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  • Question 1 - You review a 35-year-old woman with a history of menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea. She...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 35-year-old woman with a history of menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea. She has started a new relationship and wants some advice on the best method of contraception.
      An ultrasound scan from six months ago showed three subserosal fibroids ranging in size from 1 to 2 cm in maximal dimension, without uterine distortion.
      Her medical history includes migraines with aura, which are well controlled at present.
      Which of the following is the best suited method of contraception for this patient?

      Your Answer: Progesterone-only pill

      Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      Contraceptive Options for Women with Menorrhagia and Fibroids

      Women with menorrhagia and small fibroids may benefit from the levonorgestrel intrauterine system as a first-line contraceptive option. This device reduces bleeding by 90% and offers a convenient, long-acting method of contraception with a low failure rate. However, if the intrauterine system is not acceptable, the progesterone-only pill is a reasonable alternative.

      For women with larger fibroids or uterine distortion, alternative forms of contraception should be offered, such as the COCP, progesterone implant, injections, or barrier methods. It is important to inform patients that any form of contraception they choose does not protect against sexually transmitted infections.

      The intrauterine copper device is another long-acting reversible contraceptive option, but it is not recommended for women with pre-existing menorrhagia due to the risk of heavier bleeding. While this device is non-hormonal and over 99% effective in preventing pregnancy, it is an invasive procedure and carries a risk of expulsion and uterine perforation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain for the last day. She reports that she has had some bloody vaginal discharge. She is currently sexually active. She has a fever of 38.1 °C. On examination, she has uterine tenderness and there is severe cervical motion tenderness.
      What is the most important initial investigation in helping to reach a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Initial Investigations in a Patient with Lower Abdominal Pain: A Case Study

      When a patient presents with lower abdominal pain, it is important to conduct initial investigations to determine the underlying cause. In this case study, the patient exhibits symptoms consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease, but it is crucial to rule out an ectopic pregnancy as it can lead to serious complications.

      Pregnancy Test: The most important initial investigation for women of childbearing age who present with abdominal pain is a pregnancy test. This test can quickly determine if the patient is pregnant and if an ectopic pregnancy is a possibility.

      Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR): While an ESR test can identify infection and inflammation, it is of limited diagnostic or therapeutic benefit in this case and would not affect the patient’s management.

      Abdominal Ultrasound: Although an abdominal ultrasound can identify potential issues, such as an ectopic pregnancy, a pregnancy test should take priority in this case.

      Cervical and Urethral Swab: A swab can identify sexually transmitted diseases that may be causing pelvic inflammatory disease, but it is not the most important initial investigation.

      Full Blood Count: While a full blood count can identify potential infections and provide a baseline for admission, it is unlikely to help reach a diagnosis and is not the most important initial investigation.

      In conclusion, initial investigations are crucial in determining the underlying cause of lower abdominal pain. In this case, a pregnancy test is the most important initial investigation to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, followed by other tests as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old student visits the Genitourinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic with concerns about a...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old student visits the Genitourinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic with concerns about a recent sexual encounter. He had unprotected sex with a woman and has since developed a purulent urethral discharge and painful urination. Gram-negative diplococci were identified in specimens taken from him. What is the probable causative organism for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing and Differentiating Sexually Transmitted Infections

      Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common health concern, and prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and further transmission. One such STI is gonorrhoeae, caused by the bacterium N. gonorrhoeae. Symptoms include purulent discharge, dysuria, and frequency, and if left untreated, can lead to infertility.

      Herpes simplex, another STI, typically presents with ulceration, which is not seen in this patient. Candida albicans, a type of yeast, is an unlikely diagnosis in men and would present with balanitis and white discharge. Chlamydia trachomatis, while similar in presentation, does not show Gram-negative diplococci on microscopy. However, up to 50% of patients with gonorrhoeae may also have coexisting chlamydia infection, so antibiotic regimes should cover both. Ciprofloxacin is effective, but drug-resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae are emerging, so alternative antibiotics may be necessary.

      Finally, Trichomonas vaginalis, an anaerobic protozoan infection, is ruled out by the microscopy result. Accurate diagnosis and differentiation of STIs are essential for effective treatment and prevention of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old man visits the Urology Clinic after being referred by his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man visits the Urology Clinic after being referred by his GP due to a painful genital ulcer. The patient reports that the skin lesion has evolved over time, initially presenting as pustular after he returned from South America. During the examination, you observe that the ulcer base is filled with a foul-smelling yellow discharge, and there is tender lymphadenopathy on one side upon palpation. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

      Correct Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Genital Ulcer Disease: A Case of Chancroid

      A patient presents with a genital ulcer, which has developed from a papule to a painful ulcer. The lesion is diagnosed as chancroid, a sexually transmitted disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. Chancroid is endemic in Asia, South America, and Africa, and typically presents as a single lesion in men and multiple lesions in women. Painful unilateral lymphadenopathy may be present, which can progress to suppurative buboes.

      Other possible differential diagnoses include genital herpes, which produces multiple painful and itchy ulcers, and syphilis, which produces a single painless ulcer (chancre) at an early stage. However, due to the patient’s recent travel and the presence of pain, these are less likely diagnoses.

      Donovanosis, or granuloma inguinale, is caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and produces multiple nodules that burst into painless ulcers. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is minimal, making this an unlikely differential. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, produces a painless ulcer at the contact site, but the patient’s ulcer is painful. In the second stage of LGV infection, painful lymphadenopathy and bubo development occur.

      In conclusion, chancroid is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s genital ulcer, and other differential diagnoses should be considered based on clinical presentation and travel history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 5 - A health-conscious 29-year-old woman attends a drop-in Genito-urinary Medicine Clinic for a routine...

    Correct

    • A health-conscious 29-year-old woman attends a drop-in Genito-urinary Medicine Clinic for a routine sexual transmitted infection (STI) screen. Her results indicate that she has contracted Chlamydia.
      Which of the following would be the most suitable antibiotic treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg 12 hourly for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Common Antibiotics for Chlamydia Treatment: Dosage and Suitability

      Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. Antibiotics are the primary treatment for chlamydial infection. However, not all antibiotics are suitable for treating this infection. Here are some common antibiotics used for chlamydia treatment, their recommended dosage, and their suitability for this infection.

      Doxycycline 100 mg 12 hourly for 7 days
      This is the recommended treatment for Chlamydia in adults/children over 13 years, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines and British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) guidance.

      Doxycycline 100 mg 12-hourly for 3 days
      Even though doxycycline is used to treat infection with Chlamydia, a course of 100 mg 12-hourly over 3 days is not sufficient. Doxycycline 100 mg 12-hourly for 7 days is the recommended course.

      Amoxicillin 500 mg every 8 hours for 7 days
      Amoxicillin targets Gram-positive bacteria and is hence an unsuitable antibiotic for chlamydial infection.

      Azithromycin 3 g orally single dose
      A dose of 3 g per day is much too high. The recommended dose for azithromycin to treat chlamydial infection is 1 g orally per day.

      Clarithromycin 250 mg for 14 days
      Clarithromycin is not typically used to treat infection with C. trachomatis. It is most commonly used to treat respiratory tract infections, soft tissue infections and as part of the treatment for H. pylori eradication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old woman comes in seeking advice on contraception. She has recently entered...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in seeking advice on contraception. She has recently entered a new relationship and has been using barrier methods of contraception, but would like to explore other options for convenience. Her periods have become irregular over the past year, but she is otherwise healthy with a history of mild hypertension that is managed with ramipril. She does not drink but is a smoker, consuming around 20 cigarettes per day. What would be the most suitable form of contraception for this patient?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)

      Correct Answer: Progesterone-only pill (POP)

      Explanation:

      The progesterone-only pill (POP) is a suitable contraceptive option for this patient, especially since she is over 35 years old and a smoker. Other options to consider include the copper intrauterine device (IUD), the levonorgestrel IUS, and sterilization. Natural family planning may not be effective due to the patient’s irregular periods, which could be a sign of approaching menopause. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is not a contraceptive and therefore not recommended. Even though the patient is approaching menopause, she is still having periods, so contraception is still necessary. The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is not advisable due to the patient’s age and smoking status, but the POP or implant could be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      14.4
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  • Question 7 - A teenage girl has missed taking her combined contraception pill (standard strength) in...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl has missed taking her combined contraception pill (standard strength) in the middle of her pill pack and it has been almost 48 hours since her last pill. She is sexually active on a regular basis.
      What is the most appropriate guidance to provide her?

      Your Answer: Do not take the missed pill but continue the pack as normal otherwise

      Correct Answer: The missed pill must be taken as soon as it is remembered and the remaining pills should be taken at the correct time

      Explanation:

      How to Handle a Missed Birth Control Pill

      If you miss a birth control pill, it’s important to know what to do next. Here are some guidelines:

      1. The missed pill must be taken as soon as it is remembered and the remaining pills should be taken at the correct time.

      2. If one pill has been missed and it is 48–72 h since the last pill in the current pack or is 24–48 h late starting the new pack, the missed pill should be taken as soon as it is remembered. The remaining pills should be continued at the usual time.

      3. Emergency contraception is not usually required but may need to be considered if pills have been missed earlier in the pack or in the last week of the previous pack.

      4. If you miss a pill but remember before taking the next one, take the missed pill as soon as possible and continue the pack as normal.

      5. If you miss a pill and don’t remember until it’s time to take the next one, take the missed pill as soon as possible and use a backup method of contraception for the next seven days.

      6. If you miss two or more pills, follow the instructions on the package or talk to your healthcare provider.

      Remember, it’s important to take your birth control pills as directed to ensure their effectiveness. If you have any questions or concerns, talk to your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 8 - After fertilisation, which part of the spermatozoon remains in the cytoplasm of the...

    Correct

    • After fertilisation, which part of the spermatozoon remains in the cytoplasm of the oocyte?

      Your Answer: Nucleus

      Explanation:

      During fertilization, the nucleus of the sperm carries the genetic material needed to create the paternal pronucleus and subsequently the zygote. The acrosome discharges its hydrolytic enzymes to help the sperm penetrate through the corona radiata and the zona pellucida. The sperm nucleus enters the cytoplasm of the egg, along with the midpiece, mitochondria, centrosome, and kinocilium of the sperm. Fertilization triggers changes in the chemistry of the zona pellucida and the discharge of cortical granules in the egg cytoplasm, which prevent additional sperm from fertilizing the egg. The sperm nucleus decondenses to form the haploid male pronucleus, which fuses with the haploid female pronucleus to form a diploid zygote nucleus. The midpiece and kinocilium of the sperm are destroyed, while the plasma membrane covering the tail remains attached to the egg plasma membrane. Mitochondrial diseases are inherited exclusively along the maternal line because the male mitochondria are destroyed soon after fertilization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old woman visits a gynaecologist to discuss her options for contraception. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits a gynaecologist to discuss her options for contraception. The doctor suggests the insertion of a copper-bearing intrauterine device (IUD) and explains its mechanism of action and potential risks. What is the frequency of uterine perforations as a complication of IUD placement?

      Your Answer: 1 in 50 000

      Correct Answer: 1 in 1000

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risks and Mechanisms of Copper-Bearing IUDs

      Copper-bearing intrauterine devices (IUDs) are a popular form of reversible contraception that work through various mechanisms, including thickening cervical mucous, inhibiting sperm mobility, and reducing the likelihood of implantation. However, there are absolute contraindications to their use, such as pregnancy or recent childbirth, irregular vaginal bleeding, and gynecological cancer. Complications can include bleeding, pain, infection, discharge, and rare occurrences of uterine perforation, pelvic infection, expulsion, and ectopic pregnancy. The risk of uterine perforation is quoted as 1 in 1000 insertions, making it a rare but important consideration for those considering copper-bearing IUDs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old man presents to the Genitourinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic with a rash....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the Genitourinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic with a rash. Upon examination, the doctor observes numerous flesh-colored, hemispherical papules with a central indentation, measuring around 4 mm in diameter, covering the upper thighs and shaft of the penis. The diagnosis is molluscum contagiosum. What would be a suitable treatment plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Correct Answer: No treatment is advised

      Explanation:

      Molluscum Contagiosum: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin disease that can be transmitted through sexual and non-sexual means. It results in flesh-colored, hemispherical papules with a central indentation, typically found on the genitalia, lower abdomen, and upper thighs. The incubation period is 3-12 weeks, and lesions can persist for up to two years before resolving on their own.

      Diagnosis is made through clinical examination and electron microscopy of lesion particles. Treatment is not routinely recommended due to the self-resolving nature of the disease. However, cosmetic treatments such as benzoyl peroxide and podophyllotoxin may be used in adults with unsightly lesions on exposed areas or affecting quality of life.

      Saline baths, acyclovir, corticosteroids, and metronidazole are not appropriate treatments for molluscum contagiosum. Saline baths are used for itch relief in conditions like eczema, acyclovir is for herpes zoster infection, corticosteroids are not recommended for viral skin diseases, and metronidazole is used for rosacea.

      In conclusion, molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin disease that can be diagnosed through clinical examination and electron microscopy. Treatment is not routinely recommended, but cosmetic options may be used in certain cases. Other treatments, such as saline baths, acyclovir, corticosteroids, and metronidazole, are not appropriate for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Sexual Health (4/10) 40%
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