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  • Question 1 - A 57-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents to his local...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents to his local Emergency Department with sudden loss of vision in the lower left quadrant of his visual field in both eyes. A CT scan of his head reveals an area of infarction in his brain, leading to a diagnosis of acute ischemic stroke. Which blood vessel is most likely occluded?

      Your Answer: Right middle cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      Effects of Cerebral Artery Occlusions on Vision

      The brain’s interpretation of visual information is a complex process that involves multiple pathways and structures. The occlusion of different cerebral arteries can lead to various visual impairments.

      Right Middle Cerebral Artery
      The right middle cerebral artery supplies blood to the right superior optic radiation. An infarction in this area can cause contralateral homonymous quadrantanopia, which is the loss of vision in the lower left quadrant of the visual field of both eyes.

      Left Anterior Cerebral Artery
      An occlusion of the left anterior cerebral artery can lead to complete loss of vision in the left eye due to optic nerve ischaemia.

      Left Posterior Cerebral Artery
      A left posterior cerebral artery infarct can cause contralateral homonymous hemianopia, which is the loss of the medial half of the left eye’s visual field and the lateral half of the right eye visual field.

      Right Vertebral Artery
      The right vertebral artery supplies blood to the basilar artery and contributes blood to many anastomotic vessels. An occlusion in this area can result in unpredictable outcomes.

      Left Ophthalmic Artery
      An occlusion of the left ophthalmic artery can cause complete vision loss of the ipsilateral eye due to infarction of the ipsilateral optic nerve, similar to the possible ocular effects of an anterior cerebral artery infarct.

      In conclusion, the occlusion of different cerebral arteries can lead to various visual impairments, and understanding these effects can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of stroke patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      128.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are working in the pediatric unit and examine a 6-month-old infant. On...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the pediatric unit and examine a 6-month-old infant. On examination, you observe a small left-sided hematoma over the parietal bone. The hematoma is soft to touch and does not extend beyond the margins of the parietal bone. The infant is otherwise healthy. The infant was born at term via spontaneous vaginal delivery, and there were no prenatal or labor complications. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Caput succedaneum

      Correct Answer: Cephalhaematoma

      Explanation:

      Medical students may mistake a cephalhaematoma for a caput succedaneum, but there are distinguishing features. Cephalhaematomas typically develop after birth and do not cross the skull’s suture lines, as the blood is contained between the skull and periosteum. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is an extraperiosteal collection of blood that can cross over the suture lines and may be present at birth. Subaponeurotic haemorrhages are a serious condition caused by bleeding in the potential space between the periosteum and subgaleal aponeurosis. They typically present as a boggy swelling that grows insidiously and is not confined to the skull sutures. In severe cases, the neonate may experience haemorrhagic shock. Chignons are birth traumas that occur after the use of a ventouse device during delivery, while a cranial abrasion usually occurs after a caesarean section or instrumental delivery.

      A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.

      In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man visited his doctor complaining of painless haematuria that had been...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visited his doctor complaining of painless haematuria that had been occurring on and off for three months. He has a past medical history of COPD and IHD, and has smoked 25 packs of cigarettes per year for the past 40 years. Upon examination, no abnormalities were found. However, a urine dipstick test revealed 3+ blood. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bladder transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Bladder cancer typically presents with painless haematuria, which requires referral to a urology haematuria clinic. Approximately 5-10% of microscopic haematuria and 20-25% of frank haematuria will have a urogenital malignancy. Tests carried out in the haematuria clinic include urine analysis, cytology, cystoscopy, and ultrasound. Transitional cell carcinoma is the most common type of bladder cancer, and smoking increases the risk by threefold. Bladder stones and urinary tract infections may also cause bladder irritation and haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      95.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by a friend who...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by a friend who found him confused and drowsy, with his hands over his abdomen. The patient has vomited twice on the way to the hospital and appears to be in pain. An arterial blood gas reveals the following results: pH 7.29 (normal range: 7.35-7.45), HCO3- 17 mmol/L (normal range: 22-26 mmol/L), pCO2 3kPa (normal range: 4.5-6kPa), p02 12kPa (normal range: 10-14kPa), and anion gap 20mEq/L (normal range: 10-14mEq/L). Which diagnostic test would provide the quickest indication of the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Liver function tests

      Correct Answer: Blood glucose monitoring (BM)

      Explanation:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      796.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a 48-hour history of headache and malaise that...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a 48-hour history of headache and malaise that has worsened in the last 6 hours. She has vomited twice and recently had a sore throat. Her general practitioner has been treating her with a topical anti-fungal cream for vaginal thrush. On examination, she is photophobic and has moderate neck stiffness. The Glasgow Coma Score is 15/15, and she has no focal neurological signs. Her temperature is 38.5 °C. A computed tomography (CT) brain scan is reported as ‘Normal intracranial appearances’. A lumbar puncture is performed and CSF results are as follows: CSF protein 0.6 g/l (<0.45), cell count 98 white cells/mm3, mainly lymphocytes (<5), CSF glucose 2.8 mmol/l (2.5 – 4.4 mmol/l), and blood glucose 4.3 mmol/l (3-6 mmol/l). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Acute Viral Meningitis from Other Neurological Disorders

      Acute viral meningitis is characterized by mild elevation of protein, a mainly lymphocytic cellular reaction, and a CSF: blood glucose ratio of >50%. In contrast, bacterial meningitis presents with a polymorph leukocytosis, lower relative glucose level, and more severe signs of meningism. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents subacutely with very high CSF protein and very low CSF glucose. Fungal meningitis is rare and mainly occurs in immunocompromised individuals. Guillain–Barré syndrome, an autoimmune peripheral nerve disorder causing ascending paralysis, is often triggered by a recent viral illness but presents with focal neurological signs, which are absent in viral meningitis. Accurate diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A sixty-eight-year-old male arrived at the emergency department after tripping while getting out...

    Incorrect

    • A sixty-eight-year-old male arrived at the emergency department after tripping while getting out of his car and falling on his left side. He is experiencing pain in his groin and is unable to put weight on his left side. During the examination, it was observed that his left leg is externally rotated and shortened. What classification system should be utilized to categorize this patient's injury, given the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ottawa

      Correct Answer: Garden

      Explanation:

      The Garden classification system is utilized for the classification of neck of femur fractures. In this case, the patient has experienced a fall on her left side resulting in a painful, shortened, and externally rotated leg, which is highly suggestive of a neck of femur fracture. The Garden classification system categorizes these fractures into four types based on their severity and displacement. On the other hand, Gartland classification is used for supracondylar fractures in children, Salter-Harris classification is used for fractures around the growth plate in children, and the Ottawa Rules are used to identify potential ankle fractures in patients.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 54-year-old woman with a long-standing history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman with a long-standing history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to clinic complaining of swelling in her ankles, face and fingers. She states she can no longer wear her wedding ring because her fingers are too swollen. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg; she has pitting oedema in her ankles and notably swollen fingers and face. Her blood results show:
      Investigation Results Normal value
      Creatinine 353.6 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Phosphate 1.9 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Elevated
      Urinalysis 3+ glucose, 3+ protein
      Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this woman's increased PTH?

      Your Answer: Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that occurs when the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to low calcium levels in the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including chronic renal failure, vitamin D excess, and the use of certain medications like diuretics.

      In cases of chronic renal failure, decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) can lead to raised creatinine levels and proteinuria. This can cause diabetic nephropathy, which can result in hyperphosphataemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism. Over time, this can also lead to osteoporosis as a long-term complication of hyperparathyroidism.

      Vitamin D excess is another cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism, but it is associated with low phosphate levels rather than hyperphosphataemia. In cases of parathyroid adenoma, a less likely cause in this patient, there is an overproduction of PTH by a benign tumor in the parathyroid gland.

      Finally, the use of diuretics can increase phosphate excretion, leading to hypophosphataemia. This can also contribute to the development of secondary hyperparathyroidism.

      Understanding the various causes of secondary hyperparathyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. By addressing the underlying condition, it may be possible to reduce the production of PTH and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      96.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the primary nerve supply for the small muscles in the hand?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary nerve supply for the small muscles in the hand?

      Your Answer: C5

      Correct Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      Innervation of Muscles in the Hand and Forearm

      The muscles in the hand and forearm are controlled by different nerves depending on their location and function. The small muscles in the hand and forearm, such as the Flexor digitorum superficialis, Flexor pollicis longus, Flexor digitorum profundus, Lumbricals, and Interossei, are mainly innervated by the T1 nerve. This nerve controls the fine movements of the fingers and hand.

      On the other hand, the larger muscles in the upper arm, such as the deltoids and biceps, are innervated by the C5 nerve. This nerve controls the movements of the shoulder and elbow joints. The extensors of the wrist are controlled by the C6 nerve, while the wrist extensors and triceps are controlled by the C7 nerve. Finally, the finger flexors of the hands are controlled by the C8 nerve.

      the innervation of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect the nerves in the upper extremities. By identifying which nerve is affected, healthcare professionals can develop a targeted treatment plan to help patients regain function and mobility in their hands and arms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are evaluating a patient who presents with diplopia. When looking straight ahead,...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a patient who presents with diplopia. When looking straight ahead, the patient's right eye is elevated and abducted. When attempting to gaze to the left, the diplopia exacerbates.
      What is the probable underlying cause of this issue?

      Your Answer: Left 6th nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Right 4th nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy

      Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is the perception of seeing two images stacked on top of each other. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding these symptoms can help with early diagnosis and treatment of fourth nerve palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient in their 50s is brought to the acute mental health unit...

    Correct

    • A patient in their 50s is brought to the acute mental health unit by the police after being found on the street shouting at people. They have no known past medical history.

      On examination, they are poorly dressed. When asked about their mood, they begin by asking what colour the sky is, then begin to talk about their strong dislike for cheese, followed by wanting to break the table lamp they own at home. Throughout the consultation, they speak slowly.

      What term best describes this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Knight's move

      Explanation:

      Knight’s move thinking involves illogical leaps from one idea to another without any discernible link between them, while flight of ideas involves moving from one idea to another with discernible links between them. In this scenario, the patient is exhibiting Knight’s move thinking, which is a thought disorder associated with schizophrenia. This is different from circumstantiality, which involves giving excessive, unnecessary detail without returning to the original point, and clang associations, which involves linking ideas based on their sound or rhyme. Flight of ideas, on the other hand, involves rapid and pressured speech with discernible links between ideas.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      205.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Medicine (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Passmed