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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to your clinic in the afternoon. He is concerned about his risk of developing acral lentiginous melanoma after learning that his brother has been diagnosed with the condition. He has read that this subtype of melanoma is more prevalent in certain ethnic groups and wants to know which group is most commonly affected.
Can you provide information on the ethnicity that is at higher risk for acral lentiginous melanoma?Your Answer: Caucasians
Correct Answer: Asians
Explanation:The acral-lentiginous melanoma is a subtype of melanoma that is often disregarded and not commonly seen in Caucasians. It is more prevalent in individuals from the Far East. This type of melanoma typically grows slowly and may not be noticeable in its early stages, presenting as pigmented patches on the sole. As it progresses, nodular areas may develop, indicating deeper growth. Sadly, the Jamaican musician Bob Marley passed away at the age of 36 due to complications from an acral lentiginous melanoma.
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.
The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old nulliparous lady is started on continuous HRT 18 months after her last period. Nine months later she starts to get intermittent spotting. Her doctor stops the HRT, wondering if it may be causative, but the spotting is still persisting four weeks later. There is no post-coital bleeding or dyspareunia.
On examination her BP is 140/80 mmHg and BMI is 35 kg/m2. Abdominal and pelvic examination (including the appearance of her cervix) is normal. Her last smear was nine months ago and they have all been normal to date.
There is a family history of hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer and hypertension.
What should be done next?Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology as urgent suspected cancer
Explanation:Suspected Endometrial Cancer in postmenopausal Woman with Abnormal Bleeding
According to the 2015 NICE guidelines, women aged 55 and over with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred for suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. This includes women who experience unexplained vaginal bleeding more than 12 months after menstruation has stopped due to menopause.
In this case, the patient’s periods stopped 18 months ago, making her postmenopausal. Her recent bleeding episode, along with her nulliparity, obesity, menopause after 52, and family history of hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer, all increase her risk for endometrial cancer. Although bleeding can occur when using HRT, the patient began bleeding six months after initiating HRT, and the bleeding persisted four weeks after stopping HRT, making it less likely that the medication is the cause.
Re-initiating HRT would be contraindicated until endometrial cancer is ruled out. While the patient has not experienced post-coital bleeding and has a normal-looking cervix with normal smear results, referral for colposcopy would not be the most appropriate next step. Inserting a Mirena coil may be useful in managing troublesome bleeding associated with HRT, but it would not be appropriate until the patient is investigated for endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 3
Incorrect
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As a GP, when completing medical reports for patients or outside agencies regarding their health, there are certain guidelines from the GMC that must be followed when disclosing information for insurance, employment, and other purposes. When preparing a report for a third party, besides the patient, who else can confirm that the patient has given consent to the report?
Your Answer: Any first degree relative of the patient
Correct Answer: An officer of a government department
Explanation:GMC Guidance on Medical Reports
The first priority of a doctor is to prioritize patient care. In order to disclose any information about a patient for reasons other than their care or clinical audit, doctors should seek consent from the patient. Before providing information to third parties, doctors must ensure that the patient is aware of the scope and purpose of the report and that relevant information cannot be withheld. Written consent from the patient or an authorized representative is necessary. If an officer of a government department or agency or a registered health professional acts on behalf of the patient, assurance that the patient has consented is sufficient. For more information on GMC guidance regarding medical reports, please refer to the General Medical Council’s ethical guidance for doctors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of sudden discomfort in her right eye. She describes it as feeling 'gritty' and notices watering. She also experienced some discharge from the eye upon waking up in the morning. Upon examination, the conjunctiva appears red and inflamed. What is the most appropriate management for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Resolution is slow and spontaneous
Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics can be withheld
Explanation:Understanding Conjunctivitis: Topical Antibiotics and Treatment Options
Conjunctivitis, commonly known as pink eye, is a condition characterized by inflamed conjunctiva, discharge, and gritty eye discomfort. While most cases are self-limiting and resolve spontaneously within 5-7 days, severe symptoms or rapid resolution may require the use of topical antibiotics such as chloramphenicol and fusidic acid. However, NICE guidelines recommend withholding antibiotics unless necessary. Bacterial and viral forms of conjunctivitis can be differentiated clinically, with purulent discharge indicating a positive bacterial culture. Mucopurulent discharge with crusting is suggestive of bacterial conjunctivitis, while pruritis and petechial subconjunctival hemorrhages suggest a viral cause. While antibiotics can improve rates of clinical and microbiological remission, most cases resolve spontaneously. Referral to ophthalmology should be considered if symptoms persist for longer than 5-7 days. Serious complications from untreated infective conjunctivitis are rare but can include epidemic keratoconjunctivitis, keratitis, and corneal perforation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis?
Your Answer: Penicillin V
Correct Answer: Cefaclor
Explanation:C.difficile is strongly associated with cephalosporins, in addition to clindamycin.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman presents to the surgery for review. She complains of feeling hungry all the time although, despite this, she has lost weight. She also complains of palpitations that have been present for the past three months.
She has a past history of anxiety and has taken a course of SSRI four years ago for two years in total.
Examination reveals a BP of 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 92 and regular. She has a fine tremor. There is a small, 1.5 cm nodule within the left lobe of the thyroid.
Investigations reveal:
Hb 125 g/L (115-160)
WCC 6.4 ×109/L (4.5-10)
PLT 281 ×109/L (150-450)
Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
K 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
Cr 78 µmol/L (70-110)
TSH 0.02 mU/L (0.4-4.5)
FT4 62 pmol/L (10-24)
You decide to refer this lady, but which of the following is likely to be the next step in her management without need to first consult a specialist colleague?Your Answer: Thyroid uptake scan
Correct Answer: Start propranolol
Explanation:Management of Thyrotoxicosis in Primary Care
In cases of suspected benign thyroid adenoma causing thyrotoxicosis, it is appropriate to prescribe a beta blocker such as propranolol to relieve adrenergic symptoms while awaiting specialist endocrinology assessment. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS), further evaluation should include a thyroid uptake scan and ultrasound, with radioiodine being the intervention of choice for a solitary toxic nodule.
If symptoms persist despite treatment with a beta blocker or if a beta blocker is not tolerated or contraindicated, or if the patient is at risk of complications from hyperthyroidism, specialist advice should be sought regarding other treatment options such as starting carbimazole. In cases where the patient is taking a drug such as amiodarone or lithium, liaison between the specialist prescribing the drug and an endocrinologist may be necessary.
RET mutation testing is useful for evaluating familial medullary thyroid carcinoma or MEN-2B syndrome, but this is not an investigation that is typically carried out in primary care as these conditions are rare and unlikely to be the diagnosis in this case. Thyroid uptake scanning and ultrasound are useful in the evaluation of a nodule, but should not delay starting anti-thyroid drugs. Urgent referral for fine-needle aspiration is not necessary in this low-risk situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman has a diagnosis of subclinical hypothyroidism, but over the past six months has been increasingly fatigued, constipated and always feels cold. She has gained 3 lb in the same timeframe despite no change to her diet or lifestyle. Her General Practitioner suspects the development of primary hypothyroidism and arranges a thyroid function blood test to confirm.
Which of the following biochemical changes is most likely to appear first?
Your Answer: Fall in serum thyroxine-binding globulin
Correct Answer: Increase in serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Explanation:Hypothyroidism develops gradually over a long period of time. In the early stages, the body compensates for the low levels of free thyroxine by increasing the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). This can result in subclinical hypothyroidism, where TSH levels are slightly elevated and thyroxine levels are low-normal. Subclinical hypothyroidism affects 3-8% of the population and carries a risk of progressing to overt hypothyroidism. Treatment should be considered if TSH levels are 10 U/ml or higher, or if there are other factors such as a goitre, positive anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies, or subfertility. As hypothyroidism progresses, there is a decrease in free triiodothyronine (T3) and free thyroxine (T4) levels, followed by a decrease in thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) levels. Total triiodothyronine (T3) levels tend to decrease later in the course of hypothyroidism, after a rise in TSH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male presents to your clinic with a painful, red left eye that has been bothering him for the past week. He denies any history of trauma to the eye, but the pain has been progressively worsening. The pain is exacerbated by eye movement and he is experiencing photophobia. He also reports a possible decrease in vision in the affected eye. The patient has no significant medical history.
Upon examination, the left eye appears diffusely red and is tearing. Visual acuity is decreased in the left eye, but there are no abnormalities on staining. The left pupil reaction is slower than the right, but the shape appears normal. The anterior chamber appears normal.
What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Reassurance and lubricating eye drops
Correct Answer: Same day urgent referral to an ophthalmologist
Explanation:Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Other common symptoms include watering and photophobia, which is sensitivity to light. In some cases, scleritis can also lead to a gradual decrease in vision.
Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are asked to organise a tutorial on child protection for nursing students attached to the pediatric ward. When discussing patterns of behaviour which may point towards child abuse, which one of the following is least likely to be relevant?
Your Answer: History of child abuse in the family
Correct Answer: Frequent attendances to see the GP
Explanation:If parents take their child to the A&E department instead of a GP on a regular basis, it could be an indication of child abuse. This is because they may assume that seeing a different doctor each time will decrease the likelihood of any suspicions being raised.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to protect vulnerable children. One way that abuse may come to light is through a child’s own disclosure. However, there are other factors that may indicate abuse, such as inconsistencies in a child’s story or repeated visits to emergency departments. Children who appear frightened or withdrawn may also be experiencing abuse, exhibiting a state of frozen watchfulness.
Physical signs of abuse can also be indicative of maltreatment. Bruising, fractures (especially in the metaphyseal area or posterior ribs), and burns or scalds are all possible signs of abuse. Additionally, a child who is failing to thrive or who has contracted a sexually transmitted infection may be experiencing abuse. It is important to be aware of these signs and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities. By recognizing and addressing child abuse, we can help protect vulnerable children and promote their safety and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding statin-induced myopathy is inaccurate for elderly patients?
Your Answer: Pravastatin is more likely to cause myopathy than simvastatin
Explanation:Lipophilic statins such as simvastatin and atorvastatin are more likely to cause myopathy compared to relatively hydrophilic statins like rosuvastatin, pravastatin, and fluvastatin.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are conducting an audit of anti-epileptic drug prescribing at the clinic, to evaluate the frequency of prescribing branded versus generic medications.
Which of the following drugs is crucial to prescribe by brand name?Your Answer: Topiramate
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Prescribing by brand is crucial when it comes to phenytoin and carbamazepine, which are the top anti-epileptic medications.
Antiepileptics: Prescribing by Brand
For several years, healthcare professionals have been advised to prescribe certain antiepileptic medications by brand rather than generically. In November 2013, the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued more specific guidance on how to treat individual antiepileptics. The guidance categorizes the more common antiepileptics into three categories: Category 1, Category 2, and Category 3.
Category 1 includes phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, and primodine. Patients taking these medications should be maintained on a specific manufacturer’s product.
Category 2 includes sodium valproate, lamotrigine, clonazepam, and topiramate. For these medications, healthcare professionals should use clinical judgement and consult with the patient, taking into account seizure frequency and treatment history, to determine whether to maintain the patient on a specific manufacturer’s product.
Category 3 includes levetiracetam, gabapentin, pregabalin, ethosuximide, and vigabatrin. For these medications, it is usually unnecessary to maintain the patient on a specific manufacturer’s product unless there are specific reasons such as patient anxiety or risk of confusion/dosing errors.
Overall, the guidance aims to ensure that patients with epilepsy receive consistent and effective treatment by reducing the risk of switching between different manufacturers’ products.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman with terminal metastatic breast cancer has been on a syringe driver for four days following a period of vomiting. He is currently taking a total of 30 mg of diamorphine over 24 hours via a syringe driver, but his nausea is now well controlled and he wishes to go back on to oral medication.
What total dose of oral morphine should you prescribe over a 24-hour period?Your Answer: 15 mg
Correct Answer: 120 mg
Explanation:Drug Calculation Learning Point
When it comes to drug calculations, it’s important to be careful and avoid getting caught out. One common scenario is converting a patient from oral medication to a subcutaneous infusion as their disease progresses. However, it’s also important to be able to take patients off a syringe driver and back on to oral medication. In this case, the total daily dose of diamorphine via syringe driver is one-third of the total oral dose of morphine. It’s easy to get the calculation the wrong way around, so it’s crucial to be familiar with this learning point.
For example, if a patient is having 30 mg of diamorphine over 24 hours, the total 24-hour oral dose of morphine would be 30 mg x 3 = 90 mg oral morphine. This is a common area of weakness in the AKT exam, and examiners have highlighted it as an area of poor performance. Therefore, it’s essential to practice this calculation repeatedly during revision time to ensure a thorough understanding of the concept.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman presents with lumbar back pain that is causing sleep disturbance despite pain relief. On examination, there is perianal numbness and a relaxed anal sphincter. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Review analgesia
Correct Answer: Immediate hospital admission
Explanation:Cauda Equina Syndrome: A Surgical Emergency
Cauda equina syndrome is a medical emergency that requires urgent admission and surgical intervention. It is characterized by non-mechanical back pain and symptoms suggestive of spinal cord compression. The most common cause is herniation of a lumbar disc, but it can also be caused by tumours, trauma, or spinal abscess.
The symptoms of cauda equina syndrome include saddle paraesthesia or anaesthesia, perineal or perianal sensory loss, recent onset of faecal incontinence, recent onset of bladder dysfunction, unexpected laxity of the anal sphincter, and severe or progressive neurological deficit in the lower limbs.
Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent permanent neurological damage. Urgent surgical spinal decompression is usually indicated to relieve the pressure on the spinal cord and nerves. If you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of cauda equina syndrome, seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A study was conducted to investigate whether individuals with lower socioeconomic status were at a higher risk of developing gastric cancer. The study tracked participants for 35 years and discovered that those with lower socioeconomic status had a significantly greater likelihood of developing gastric cancer. The researchers concluded that there was a strong correlation between lower socioeconomic status and gastric cancer development. However, an independent committee reviewing the study later discovered that individuals with lower socioeconomic status were also more likely to smoke.
What type of potential bias is likely to be present in this study design?Your Answer: Berkson bias
Correct Answer: Confounding bias
Explanation:Confounding bias arises when an unaccounted factor has a causal relationship with the main outcome, leading to a distorted effect of the exposure of interest. In the case of the study mentioned, the association between lower socioeconomic status and gastric cancer is confounded by smoking, which is more prevalent among people with lower socioeconomic status. Berkson bias occurs when cases and controls are selected from hospitals instead of the general population, while measurement bias arises from systematically distorted information gathering. Recall bias occurs when those exposed have a greater sensitivity for recalling exposure, and selection bias arises from a poorly devised method of recruiting participants, leading to nonrandom assignment to study groups.
Understanding Confounding in Statistics
Confounding is a term used in statistics to describe a situation where a variable is correlated with other variables in a study, leading to inaccurate or spurious results. For instance, in a case-control study that examines whether low-dose aspirin can prevent colorectal cancer, age could be a confounding factor if the case and control groups are not matched for age. This is because older people are more likely to take aspirin and also more likely to develop cancer. Similarly, in a study that finds a link between coffee consumption and heart disease, smoking could be a confounding factor as it is associated with both drinking coffee and heart disease.
Confounding occurs when there is a non-random distribution of risk factors in the populations being studied. Common causes of confounding include age, sex, and social class. To control for confounding in the design stage of an experiment, randomization can be used to produce an even distribution of potential risk factors in two populations. In the analysis stage, confounding can be controlled for by stratification. Understanding confounding is crucial in ensuring that research findings are accurate and reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father who reports that he has been experiencing nocturnal coughing for the past three months. The father has observed that his son frequently wakes up at night due to coughing fits. Despite two previous rounds of antibiotics, the cough has not improved. The child is generally healthy, has a good appetite, and has met all developmental milestones for his age. On examination, there are no notable findings. What would be your plan of action?
Your Answer: Nebulised bronchodilators
Correct Answer: Monitored initiation of metered dose inhaler (short acting beta agonist ) with spacer
Explanation:Managing Suspected Asthma in Children
Asthma is a possible diagnosis in children with a family history of atopy. If a child cannot perform spirometry, management options depend on their symptoms. Asymptomatic children may be monitored, while symptomatic children may be offered a carefully monitored trial of treatment. Oral bronchodilators and cough suppressants are not effective, and further antibiotics are futile. Nebulised bronchodilators are only appropriate during an acute attack. A trial of inhaled bronchodilators (MDI with spacer) may be justified, but establishing the diagnosis should be the top priority. It is unlikely that a four-year-old child would be able to perform spirometry successfully with reversibility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 64-year-old woman who presents to you with a new-onset headache that started 3 weeks ago. Samantha's medical history includes type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia, and she has a body mass index of 29 kg/m².
During your examination, you measure Samantha's blood pressure which is 190/118 mmHg. A repeat reading shows 186/116 mmHg. Upon conducting fundoscopy, you observe evidence of retinal haemorrhage.
What would be the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer: Provide lifestyle advice to improve diabetes control and support weight loss
Correct Answer: Refer for same-day specialist assessment
Explanation:NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.
To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.
If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.
ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.
Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A clinical investigation examined the effectiveness of a new test for diagnosing prostate cancer. The test is designed to show positive in the presence of the disease. The sensitivity was reported as 70%.
Which one of the following statements is correct?Your Answer: 70% of people will be correctly classified as having or not having the disease
Correct Answer: 70% of people with the disease will have a negative test result
Explanation:Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity
Sensitivity and specificity are two important measures used to evaluate the accuracy of medical tests. Sensitivity refers to the probability that a test will correctly identify a condition when it is present, while specificity refers to the probability that a test will correctly identify the absence of a condition when it is not present.
In the given scenario, the data suggests that there is a 70% probability of the test being positive when tested in a group of patients with the disease. This means that if 100 patients with the disease were tested, 70 of them would test positive and 30 would test negative. It is important to note that sensitivity and specificity are not fixed values and can vary depending on the test and the population being tested. Understanding these measures can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about the use and interpretation of medical tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You see a 14-year-girl. She tells you she has intercourse with her boyfriend and wants to start on the pill. Her boyfriend is aged 15.
You discuss the situation with her and are satisfied that she understands your advice and is sufficiently mature to make decisions of this kind on her own.
Which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer: You should contact child protection services
Correct Answer: You should prescribe the pill
Explanation:Understanding Gillick and Fraser Competence
When it comes to prescribing contraception to minors, healthcare professionals may refer to the terms Gillick competence and Fraser competence. These terms are often used interchangeably, but some authorities use Fraser competency specifically when discussing contraception.
Gillick competence refers to a minor’s ability to make decisions about their own healthcare without parental consent. This includes decisions about contraception, but also extends to other areas of consent. Fraser competence, on the other hand, specifically relates to a minor’s ability to understand the risks and benefits of contraception and make an informed decision about using it.
In either case, healthcare professionals must assess the minor’s level of understanding and maturity before prescribing contraception without parental consent. If the minor is deemed competent, they have the right to make their own decisions about their healthcare, including the use of contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 19
Incorrect
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At what stage should thiazide diuretics be avoided in patients with chronic kidney disease, according to BNF guidance?
Your Answer: eGFR < 20 ml / min
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which statement is accurate regarding the evaluation of a patient's ability to make decisions?
Your Answer: A patient who has given power of attorney to a carer no longer has capacity to make decisions about medical care
Correct Answer: For a person to have capacity, they must be able to retain the information that you give them about the decision they are being asked to make
Explanation:Understanding Capacity to Make Decisions
Capacity to make decisions can vary and may change over time. A person who has the capacity to make one decision may not necessarily have the capacity to make another, and vice versa. To determine if a patient has the capacity to make a particular decision, they must understand the information given to them and be able to retain it long enough to weigh it and come to a decision for themselves. It is not necessary for a psychiatrist or psychogeriatrician to assess capacity, but seeking a specialist view may be helpful if there are doubts. Irrational decisions do not necessarily indicate a lack of capacity. Under the Mental Capacity Act 2005, an individual can appoint an attorney to make decisions on their behalf if they become mentally incapacitated in the future. The attorney can only make decisions when the patient has lost the capacity to make those decisions for themselves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male comes to the clinic with a deep wound on his hand caused by a terrier bite. The wound is accompanied by swelling. After receiving tetanus immunisation and wound cleaning, what would be the most suitable antibiotic regimen for this patient?
Your Answer: Flucloxacillin oral
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim oral
Explanation:Prophylactic Antibiotics in Dog Bites
The use of prophylactic antibiotics in dog bites is a controversial topic. However, evidence supports their use in deep wounds, bites to the hands, and signs of infection. It is also important to consider immune compromise as an indication, along with involvement of deep structures such as joints or tendons, or in the presence of prosthetic joints.
For complicated animal bites, including those from cats or humans, co-amoxiclav is recommended as the first-line treatment. It is important to note that the treatment of animal bites, especially those on the hand, may require more than just antibiotics. Seeking the advice of a plastic surgeon for debridement or tendon repair may also be necessary. Proper treatment and care can help prevent further complications and promote healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for a 4-year-old child with eczema on both lower legs (excluding the feet) for a two-week period?
Your Answer: 15 g
Correct Answer: 30 g
Explanation:How to Apply Topical Corticosteroids
Topical corticosteroids are medications that are applied to the skin to treat various skin conditions. It is important to spread the cream or ointment thinly on the affected area, but enough to cover it completely. To determine the right amount to use, the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu). One ftu is approximately 500 mg or 0.5 g, which is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand.
When applying to a child’s lower legs, two ftus or 1 g per daily dose is recommended. To treat both lower legs for two weeks, a prescription for 15g is required. It is important to start with the lowest effective dose and apply once daily. Only if there is no improvement should the treatment be increased to twice daily. By following these guidelines, topical corticosteroids can be used safely and effectively to treat skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A study looks at the risk of myocardial infarction in 2 groups of patients with different ages. There are 1000 patients in the group aged 50 and above, and 1000 in the group aged below 50. In the group aged below 50, there were 20 myocardial infarctions, while in the group aged 50 and above there were 80 myocardial infarctions.
Select from the list the risk of a myocardial infarction in the group aged below 50.Your Answer: 5
Correct Answer: 0.2
Explanation:Understanding Risk: Calculating the Proportion of Patients Developing a Condition
Risk is a term used to describe the likelihood of an event occurring. In the context of healthcare, risk is often used to calculate the proportion of patients who develop a specific condition. For example, if 200 out of 1000 patients develop a certain condition, the risk of that condition is 0.2 or 20%. Understanding risk is important in healthcare as it helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options and preventative measures. By calculating the risk of a particular condition, healthcare providers can identify patients who may be at higher risk and take steps to mitigate that risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is brought to surgery by his father.
He has symptoms of a moderate depression and has been recommended pharmacological therapy by another health professional. You refer him to the local young people's mental health service for further treatment. His father asks about medication, as he is on citalopram himself for depression.
What is the recommended first line antidepressant medication for adolescents with moderate depression?Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Treatment Recommendations for Children and Young People with Depression
Children and young people who present with moderate to severe depression should be assessed by a CAMHS team. The first-line treatment for depression in this population is fluoxetine, as it is the only antidepressant for which the benefits outweigh the risks. According to NICE NG134, combined therapy with fluoxetine and psychological therapy should be considered as an alternative to psychological therapy followed by combined therapy for initial treatment of moderate to severe depression in young people aged 12-18 years. Patients taking St John’s wort should be advised to discontinue it when starting antidepressants. Tricyclics should not be used, and citalopram and sertraline are considered suitable second-line treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man with psoriasis is seeking a review of his skin and topical treatments. He has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and prescribed warfarin. Which of the following topical treatments, as per the British National Formulary, is most likely to interfere with his anticoagulation and should be excluded?
Your Answer: Dithrocream (dithranol)
Correct Answer: Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate)
Explanation:Resources for Further Reading on Miconazole and Warfarin Interaction
The following links offer valuable resources for those seeking more information on the interaction between miconazole and warfarin. It is important to note that even non-oral preparations of miconazole can greatly affect the International Normalized Ratio (INR) in individuals taking warfarin. Therefore, caution should be exercised when using these medications together. To learn more about this topic, please refer to the following resources.
– Link 1: [insert link]
– Link 2: [insert link]
– Link 3: [insert link] -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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During a routine postnatal check, a 29 year old woman presents with no underlying medical comorbidities and is currently breastfeeding her baby. She maintains a normal, varied diet. What daily supplements, if any, would you recommend for her?
Your Answer: No supplement needed
Correct Answer: Vitamin D
Explanation:To promote the bone health of both the mother and child, the NHS recommends that pregnant and breastfeeding women take a daily vitamin D supplement of 10mcg. Women who are eligible for Healthy Start vouchers may be able to receive free supplements, which can be discussed with their Health Visitor.
For women who are trying to conceive up until 12 weeks of gestation, it is recommended to take a daily supplement of folic acid 400mcg. Breastfeeding women who follow a vegan diet may need to take a B12 supplement. It is important for pregnant women to check that any multivitamin tablets they take do not contain high doses of vitamin A, as this can be harmful to the developing fetus.
Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman with a previous history of surgery for a ruptured ovarian cyst as a teenager presents with colicky central abdominal pain of 24 hours’ duration. She has now started to vomit and on further questioning admits to constipation for the last 12 hours. There is nothing else significant in her medical history.
Select the single most correct option.Your Answer: The symptoms suggest an acute mesenteric embolus
Correct Answer: She should be thoroughly examined for a strangulated hernia
Explanation:Understanding Bowel Obstruction and Ischaemic Bowel
Bowel obstruction can occur as a result of adhesions, which are commonly caused by previous abdominal surgery. Symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting may indicate a small bowel obstruction. It is important to rule out a strangulated hernia, especially a small femoral hernia.
Ischaemic bowel, on the other hand, is typically seen in patients with pre-existing cardiovascular disease and risk factors. This condition often presents acutely and is caused by an arterial occlusion. Symptoms include severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and diarrhoea, which may be bloody. It is important to suspect ischaemic bowel in patients with acute abdominal pain that is out of proportion to clinical findings.
In summary, understanding the differences between bowel obstruction and ischaemic bowel can help healthcare professionals make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is seen in the diabetes clinic and presents with the following results:
- Urinalysis NAD
- HbA1c 69 mmol/mol
The patient is currently taking metformin and gliclazide is added to his treatment regimen. What is the earliest time frame for repeating the HbA1c test?Your Answer: 6 months
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:NICE recommends regular monitoring of HbA1c every 2-6 months, based on individual requirements, until the patient is stable on a consistent therapy.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in red blood cells at a rate proportional to the concentration of glucose in the blood. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous three months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, and then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose levels.
The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c, which reports HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached. The table above shows the relationship between HbA1c, average plasma glucose, and IFCC-HbA1c. By using this table, one can calculate the average plasma glucose level by using the formula: average plasma glucose = (2 * HbA1c) – 4.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the Gold Standards Framework (GSF) and what does it enable for people nearing the end of their lives?
Your Answer: It promotes hospice care for patients
Correct Answer: It involves an anticipatory approach to care
Explanation:The Gold Standards Framework: A Framework for Anticipatory End-of-Life Care
The Gold Standards Framework (GSF) was originally designed for use in primary care, but has since been adapted for use in care homes and nursing homes. Its anticipatory approach to care has been shown to have positive effects on pain and symptom control, and improved planning has helped to prevent some hospital admissions. The GSF is not a prescriptive model, but rather a framework that can be tailored to meet local needs and resources. It can also be adapted for patients with non-cancer diagnoses who require end-of-life care. Ultimately, the GSF aims to help patients live and die well in their preferred place of care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 30
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman of African ethnic origin frequently experiences abdominal tenderness and bloating and intermittently suffers from diarrhoea. She has been dealing with these symptoms for a few years and knows that some of her family members have had similar issues. Her condition has worsened since she arrived in the UK 2 years ago, but she denies any problems with adjusting to life here. On physical examination, there are no abnormalities detected.
What is the most suitable initial management step for this patient?Your Answer: Trial of dairy-free diet
Explanation:Lactose intolerance is a common condition among people of Far-Eastern and African origin, affecting up to 85% and over 60% of these populations, respectively. This is due to a deficiency of the enzyme lactase, which breaks down lactose. In contrast, people from northern Europe are less likely to experience lactose intolerance as they have a higher lactose intake and are more likely to inherit the ability to digest lactose. Lactose intolerance can cause symptoms similar to irritable bowel syndrome, such as bloating and diarrhea, as undigested lactose is broken down by gut bacteria. Diagnosis can be confirmed through the lactose breath hydrogen test or by trialing a dairy-free diet. While a small intestinal mucosal biopsy can directly assay lactase activity, it is usually too invasive for a mild condition. Women with lactose intolerance should seek alternative sources of dietary calcium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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