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  • Question 1 - Which bone is an uncommon location for metastatic spread? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which bone is an uncommon location for metastatic spread?

      Your Answer: Scapula

      Correct Answer: Tibia

      Explanation:

      Bone Metastasis and its Common Sites

      Bone metastasis is a common cause of pain in cancer patients. It can also lead to pathological fractures and hypercalcaemia. The spine is the most commonly affected part of the skeleton, followed by the pelvis, hip, femurs, and skull. However, the tibia is rarely involved in bone metastasis.

      In summary, bone metastasis is a significant concern for cancer patients, as it can cause pain and other complications. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients for signs of bone metastasis, especially in the commonly affected sites such as the spine, pelvis, hip, femurs, and skull.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      10.4
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  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of nausea and vomiting. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of nausea and vomiting. She has been diagnosed with inoperable cancer and is experiencing pain from infiltration of the posterior abdominal wall. Currently, her pain is being managed effectively with Kapake (codeine 30 mg and paracetamol 500 mg), taken two tablets four times per day.

      What is the optimal approach for managing her pain?

      Your Answer: Rectal non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous diamorphine by continuous infusion

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Best Analgesia for a Patient with Inoperable Carcinoma

      When a patient has inoperable carcinoma and requires opiate analgesia, it is important to choose the most effective method of administration. In the case of a patient who is vomiting, parenteral analgesia is necessary. Subcutaneous diamorphine administered through continuous infusion is the best option for achieving adequate analgesia while also allowing for effective dose titration.

      Other options, such as fentanyl patches, are not ideal for titration as they are used for 72 hours and are typically reserved for patients with stable opiate usage. Intramuscular pethidine has a delayed onset and prolonged effect, which is not ideal when the patient’s opiate requirements are unknown. Oral morphine is unlikely to be tolerated in a vomiting patient, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are unlikely to provide sufficient pain relief in this case.

      In summary, subcutaneous diamorphine administered through continuous infusion is the most effective and appropriate method of analgesia for a patient with inoperable carcinoma who is vomiting and requires opiate pain relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      39.7
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  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with proximal muscle weakness. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with proximal muscle weakness. He has noticed difficulty in trying to get up out of a chair. There is a past history of obstructive airways disease and a 35-pack-year cigarette history. On examination, you notice that he has marked weakness of the pelvic and shoulder girdle and decreased tendon reflexes.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 80 mm/hr 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      You suspect that he may have an underlying malignancy with a paraneoplastic syndrome. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoid

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the bronchus

      Explanation:

      Paraneoplastic Syndromes: Neurological Manifestations in Different Types of Cancer

      Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neurological manifestation that affects around 6% of cancer patients, particularly those with bronchial and ovarian tumors. This syndrome is characterized by proximal muscle weakness, impotence, and peripheral neuropathy. The cause of Lambert-Eaton is unknown, but it may be due to anti-tumor antibodies that cross-react with calcium channels involved in neuromuscular function. Resection of the primary tumor or use of immunosuppressive agents may lead to an improvement in symptoms for some patients.

      In contrast, neurological manifestations are rare in colorectal carcinoma, with only a few case reports of patients presenting with neurological symptoms as a paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to colorectal carcinoma. Bronchial carcinoid is more likely to cause endocrine paraneoplastic syndromes, such as Cushing’s syndrome. Renal cell carcinoma is also more likely to cause an endocrine picture rather than neurological manifestations. Similarly, pancreatic tumors are more commonly associated with endocrinological manifestations than neurological presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      54.4
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  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old woman has been suffering from Paget's disease of bone for over...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman has been suffering from Paget's disease of bone for over a decade. Lately, she has been experiencing increased pain in her lower back and hip region even when at rest. Upon conducting an X-ray, a destructive mass is observed in her bony pelvis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Paget’s Disease of Bone

      Paget’s disease of bone is a condition that typically affects individuals in their later years. It is characterized by a disruption in the normal process of bone repair, resulting in the formation of weak bones that are prone to fractures. Specifically, the repair process ends at the stage of vascular osteoid bone, which is not as strong as fully mineralized bone.

      Unfortunately, Paget’s disease of bone can also lead to complications such as osteogenic sarcoma, which occurs in approximately 5% of cases. As such, it is important for individuals with this condition to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      15.8
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  • Question 5 - The pathologist observed a lymph node biopsy under a microscope and found that...

    Incorrect

    • The pathologist observed a lymph node biopsy under a microscope and found that the lymph node morphology was completely effaced by scattered malignant cells. These cells were identified as Reed-Sternberg cells and were large and binucleated. Given these findings, what is the most probable pathological diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Waldenström macroglobulinemia

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Overview of Different Types of Lymphoma

      Lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system, which is responsible for fighting infections and diseases. There are several types of lymphoma, each with its own unique characteristics and treatment options.

      Hodgkin Lymphoma: This type of lymphoma is diagnosed by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are large malignant B cells found in lymphoid tissue. It is staged using the Ann Arbor staging system and can be treated with cyclical chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy.

      Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia: This type of lymphoma is caused by the malignant transformation of B1 cells, a subset of B cells. It is a slow-growing cancer that may not require immediate treatment.

      Waldenström Macroglobulinemia: This neoplasm is characterized by a single clone of B cells and a mixture of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and lymphoplasmacytoid cells. Treatment options include chemotherapy, immunotherapy, and stem cell transplantation.

      Follicular Lymphoma: This type of lymphoma is a transformation of the B cells found in lymph node follicles. It is a slow-growing cancer that may not require immediate treatment.

      Burkitt Lymphoma: This type of lymphoma is not associated with Reed-Sternberg cells and can present as either a leukemia or lymphoma. Treatment options include chemotherapy and immunotherapy.

      Overall, the treatment and prognosis for lymphoma depend on the type and stage of the cancer, as well as the individual patient’s health and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      16.6
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old male with an inoperable oesophageal carcinoma has received a self-expanding metal...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with an inoperable oesophageal carcinoma has received a self-expanding metal stent to relieve his malignant dysphagia. However, he has now presented with acute dysphagia to fluids that has lasted for four hours. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage this situation?

      Your Answer: Laser ablation

      Correct Answer: Fizzy drink

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Malignant Dysphagia in Oesophageal Cancer Patients

      Patients with oesophageal cancer often present with symptoms such as progressive dysphagia, weight loss, and anaemia. Unfortunately, these symptoms tend to appear late in the disease’s progression, making treatment more challenging. Oesophagectomy, the surgical removal of the oesophagus, is typically reserved for early-stage cancers that have not yet invaded surrounding tissues. Traditionally, malignant dysphagia was treated with repeated endoscopic dilatations. However, self-expanding metal stents (SEMS) are now the preferred treatment option for patients with malignant dysphagia.

      While SEMS placement is generally safe and effective, there are some potential complications to be aware of. Early complications may include malposition, oesophageal perforation, bleeding, and stent migration. Late complications are more commonly related to eating, such as food bolus blockages or tumour overgrowth. If a food bolus blocks a stent, patients may be advised to consume a fizzy drink to help break it up. However, if this is unsuccessful, endoscopy may be required to dislodge the blockage.

      In summary, SEMS placement is a safe and effective treatment option for patients with malignant dysphagia caused by oesophageal cancer. While there are potential complications to be aware of, these are generally manageable with prompt medical attention. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with oesophageal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      44.5
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  • Question 7 - A 76-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency confused, dehydrated and constipated. He...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency confused, dehydrated and constipated. He is complaining of significant pain down his left flank. He was diagnosed with multiple myeloma 6 months ago and is currently undergoing treatment. He is treated with aggressive fluid resuscitation and recovers promptly.
      Elevated levels of which biochemical parameter would has caused this presentation?

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Explanation:

      Electrolyte Imbalances and their Symptoms

      Calcium: Hypercalcaemia of malignancy is a common cause of lytic bone lesions in multiple myeloma patients. Symptoms include dehydration, which can be prevented with aggressive fluid resuscitation. Treatment involves intravenous bisphosphonate or denosumab and calcitonin to inhibit osteoclastic bone resorption.

      Vitamin D: Over-medication with vitamin D can lead to hypervitaminosis D, which presents similar symptoms to hypercalcaemia. However, hypercalcaemia of malignancy is more likely in patients with lytic bone lesions.

      Phosphate: Hyperphosphataemia can be caused by impaired renal excretion or massive extracellular phosphate loadings. Symptoms are similar to hypercalcaemia, but hypercalcaemia of malignancy is more likely in patients with multiple myeloma.

      Sodium: Hypernatraemia presents with symptoms of thirst, lethargy, weakness, and irritability.

      Potassium: Hyperkalaemia can present with symptoms of chest pain, palpitations, and weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      7.4
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  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old male presents with a history of a sore area on his...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male presents with a history of a sore area on his tongue, which has failed to heal for over three months and is becoming increasingly bothersome. The patient is otherwise well, with a history of mild osteoarthritis of the knees, but nil else of note. He is a builder, and smokes 30 cigarettes a day for the past 30 years. He drinks around 30 units of alcohol a week.
      Following examination, the patient is referred urgently as a case of suspected cancer of the tongue.
      Which one of the following statements is correct about tongue cancer?

      Your Answer: It may be associated with human papillomavirus (HPV)

      Explanation:

      Myth-busting: Tongue Cancer Risk Factors

      Tongue cancer is a rare form of oral carcinoma, accounting for only 2% of overall cancers. While it can be associated with human papillomavirus (HPV), there are several misconceptions about its risk factors. Contrary to popular belief, smoking and alcohol are known risk factors, while coconut ingestion is not. Betel nut ingestion, on the other hand, is associated with an increased risk of tongue cancer. It is important to note that tongue cancer usually metastasises to the upper cervical and submandibular nodes, not the lower cervical nodes. However, early detection and treatment with a combination of surgery and chemoradiotherapy can often lead to a cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      26.2
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  • Question 9 - What is the most frequent method of metastasis in osteogenic sarcoma? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent method of metastasis in osteogenic sarcoma?

      Your Answer: Subperiosteal spread

      Correct Answer: Haematogenous

      Explanation:

      Osteogenic Sarcoma: A Common Bone Cancer in Young Adults

      Osteogenic sarcoma is a type of bone cancer that primarily affects adolescents and young adults. It is the most prevalent form of bone cancer and is commonly found in the bones surrounding the knee in children. The cancer usually spreads through the bloodstream and is present in 10-20% of patients at the time of diagnosis. The lungs are the most common site of metastasis, but it can also spread to other bones.

      In summary, osteogenic sarcoma is a significant health concern for young adults and adolescents. It is crucial to detect the cancer early to prevent it from spreading to other parts of the body. Regular check-ups and early intervention can help improve the prognosis and increase the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      10.2
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  • Question 10 - A 44-year-old man presented to the hospital with complaints of hoarseness and unexplained...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man presented to the hospital with complaints of hoarseness and unexplained weight loss. Upon laryngoscopy, it was found that he had paralysis of the right vocal cord. A chest radiograph was ordered to further investigate the lesion. Which radiographic view would be most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Lung apex

      Explanation:

      The Impact of Lesions on the Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve: A Guide by An AI Language Model

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a crucial nerve that innervates the vocal folds. Lesions along its course can cause dysfunction and lead to various symptoms. Here is a guide on how lesions in different regions of the body can impact the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

      Lung Apex:
      A lesion in the apex of the lung, known as a Pancoast tumor, can affect the right recurrent laryngeal nerve, which loops under the right subclavian artery at the apex of the right lung. This can cause dysfunction of the right vocal fold and may suggest malignancy, especially if accompanied by weight loss.

      Aortic Arch:
      The right recurrent laryngeal nerve branches off the vagus nerve at the right subclavian artery, and the left at the aortic arch. Therefore, lesions at the aortic arch can affect both the left and right recurrent laryngeal nerves.

      Basal Region of the Lung:
      Lesions at the base of the lungs would not affect the recurrent laryngeal nerve, as it branches from the vagus nerve at the level of the aortic arch and returns upwards.

      Hilar Region of the Right Lung:
      Lesions in the hilar region of the right lung would not affect the recurrent laryngeal nerve, as it branches off the vagus nerve at the right subclavian artery and the left at the aortic arch.

      Retrocardiac:
      Lesions in the retrocardiac region would be unlikely to impact the recurrent laryngeal nerve unless they are very large, as the nerve branches off the vagus nerve at the right subclavian artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old man has been referred to the Cancer Clinic for treatment after...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has been referred to the Cancer Clinic for treatment after being diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) with favourable cytogenetic profiling. He reports experiencing fatigue, weight loss, reduced appetite, and easy bruising. What is the most suitable approach for achieving remission induction?

      Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin and vincristine

      Correct Answer: Daunorubicin plus cytarabine

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapeutic Agents for Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

      Remission induction therapy for AML patients with a favourable cytogenetic profile typically involves a combination of cytarabine and daunorubicin or idarubicin, known as the 7 plus 3 treatment. This involves a continuous infusion of cytarabine for seven days and daunorubicin or idarubicin on days 1-3. Infusion reactions such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, alopecia, and stomatitis are monitored, and a bone marrow examination is performed after two weeks to determine the need for a second course of therapy. Complete clinical investigation profiling is performed after 4-5 weeks to assess remission.

      Asparaginase, dexamethasone, and vincristine are not used for remission induction in AML but are used for the treatment of acute lymphocytic leukemia/lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL/LBL). Cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, and vincristine are mainly used for small cell carcinoma of the lung.

      Daunorubicin and idarubicin are not standalone drugs but are used in combination with cytarabine as part of the 7 plus 3 remission induction therapy for medically fit AML patients with favourable cytogenetics. Midostaurin, an FLT3 inhibitor, is only added as one of three agents for AML patients with FLT3 mutations and is not used as a standalone remission induction drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      17.1
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  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old woman with a history of stage III endometrial cancer and mucinous...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman with a history of stage III endometrial cancer and mucinous pancreatic cancer presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain. The pain has been ongoing for the last four weeks but has worsened in the last three days as she has run out of her analgesia. She denies nausea or vomiting and she has been opening her bowels regularly. She has not been able to get an appointment with the general practitioner so that the pain medication could be prescribed. She was admitted to a hospice last week for end-of-life care.
      Examination reveals a distended abdomen. There is shifting dullness present. Bowel sounds are present. The abdomen is mildly tender to touch. Her legs are also oedematous.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate step in management?

      Your Answer: Paracentesis

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Procedures for a Hospice Patient

      When a patient is admitted to hospice care, their medical treatment shifts towards end-of-life measures and comfort. In this context, certain procedures may not be appropriate or beneficial for the patient.

      Paracentesis is a procedure that may be helpful for a hospice patient experiencing pain due to ascites. This condition is often caused by low albumin levels, which can be due to malabsorption or liver disease.

      Colonoscopy and exploratory laparotomy are invasive procedures that require sedation and post-operative pain management. These procedures are unlikely to provide added benefit to a patient with a terminal diagnosis who is on comfort measures.

      Flexible sigmoidoscopy is a simpler procedure that may be used to investigate for colon masses in patients with iron deficiency anemia.

      Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy may be considered for symptom relief, but is not typically indicated for a hospice patient.

      In summary, the appropriateness of a medical procedure for a hospice patient should be carefully considered in the context of their end-of-life care plan.

      Appropriate Procedures for a Hospice Patient

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      20.6
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  • Question 13 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Paediatric Outpatient Department by her father...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Paediatric Outpatient Department by her father with symptoms of bloating, mild fever, abdominal pain, lack of appetite, generalised feeling of being unwell and easy bruising for the past two weeks. On examination, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy (non-tender, firm, rubbery) and patches of petechiae and purpura are noted on both lower limbs.
      The child is referred to the Oncology Department where complete laboratory investigations, including full blood count (FBC), differential count and a review of the peripheral smear, were performed. The findings are indicative of acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL).
      Which of the following would be the most likely finding with the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypocellular bone marrow with pancytopenia

      Correct Answer: Positive staining for B-cell antibodies (CD19, cytoplasmic CD79a, CD22) and MPO-negative

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Leukemia and Lymphoma: Key Features and Diagnostic Tests

      Leukemia and lymphoma are types of blood cancers that can present with similar symptoms, making diagnosis challenging. However, certain features and diagnostic tests can help differentiate between them.

      For example, positive staining for B-cell antibodies (CD19, cytoplasmic CD79a, CD22) and MPO-negative suggest ALL/LBL, while an expanded population of myeloid cells with t(9;22) (Philadelphia chromosome) is characteristic of CML. Burkitt’s lymphoma is characterized by highly proliferative cells with a starry sky appearance, while hypocellular bone marrow with pancytopenia suggests aplastic anemia. Finally, AML is characterized by immature cells with large nucleoli that are MPO-positive.

      By recognizing these key features and utilizing appropriate diagnostic tests such as flow cytometry and cytochemistry, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat these blood cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      23.9
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  • Question 14 - What is the most frequent location for an osteoclastoma? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent location for an osteoclastoma?

      Your Answer: Distal end of the femur.

      Correct Answer: Lower end of femur

      Explanation:

      Distribution and Characteristics of Giant Cell Tumours

      Giant cell tumours, also known as osteoclastomas, are most commonly found around the knee at the distal femur, accounting for approximately 50% of cases. The next most common site is the proximal tibia, followed by the proximal humerus and distal radius. These tumours are typically solitary, with less than 1% being multicentric.

      Overall, giant cell tumours are relatively rare and tend to occur in young adults between the ages of 20 and 40. They are characterized by the presence of numerous multinucleated giant cells, which are responsible for the destruction of bone tissue. While most cases are benign, some may become malignant and spread to other parts of the body. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the tumour, although radiation therapy and other treatments may also be used in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      6.5
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  • Question 15 - What is the most frequent primary cancer that leads to bone metastases? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent primary cancer that leads to bone metastases?

      Your Answer: Lung

      Correct Answer: Breast

      Explanation:

      Bone Metastases: Common Tumours, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Bone metastases are a common occurrence in patients with malignant disease, affecting approximately 30% of cases. The most frequent tumours that cause bone metastases are breast, prostate, bronchus, kidney, and thyroid, with breast and prostate cancers accounting for the majority. Symptoms of bone metastases typically include bone pain, the presence of a lump, pathological fractures, hypercalcaemia, or cord compression. Pathological fractures occur in about 10% of patients with bone metastases. Radiological changes usually occur late, and bone scintigraphy is the most sensitive diagnostic tool available to detect metastatic spread. Most metastases are osteolytic, but some tumours, such as prostate carcinoma, cause osteosclerotic lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 16 - A 59-year-old woman, who has recently started radiotherapy treatment for breast cancer, presents...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman, who has recently started radiotherapy treatment for breast cancer, presents with redness and peeling of the skin over the left breast.
      On examination, the patient has a temperature of 36.4 °C. Her pulse is 80 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/78 mmHg. Examination of the left breast reveals a sharply demarcated 7 cm × 5 cm area of faint erythema and mild patchy desquamation of the skin of the right upper quadrant.
      The right breast appears normal, and the patient has no other skin changes affecting the rest of the body.
      Which of the following statements regarding this patient is correct?

      Your Answer: Topical therapy and supportive measures to address skin changes

      Explanation:

      Managing Skin Changes from Radiation Therapy: Supportive Measures and Topical Therapy

      Radiation therapy is a common treatment for cancers located close to the skin, such as those of the head, neck, and breast. However, it can cause acute radiation dermatitis, which is one of the most common side-effects of radiotherapy. This can range from mild erythema and peeling to painful weeping bullae and ulceration. While symptoms typically resolve within a month of completing treatment, patients may develop chronic skin changes.

      To manage skin changes from radiation therapy, supportive measures are necessary to minimize side effects. This includes encouraging the use of emollients, avoiding sun exposure, and applying cosmetics to the affected area. Topical steroids may also be used, although evidence for their effectiveness is limited. It’s important to note that radiation dermatitis is not an absolute indication for discontinuing radiation therapy, but the radiation dose and distribution should be checked for accuracy.

      Patients should be aware that chronic skin changes may develop or persist after radiotherapy, such as fibrosis, telangiectasia, or atrophy of the overlying skin. It’s crucial to understand that radiation therapy is associated with numerous side-effects, with radiation dermatitis being one of the most common. While skin changes may be temporary, supportive measures and topical therapy can help manage symptoms and minimize long-term effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP after her 38-year-old sister was diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP after her 38-year-old sister was diagnosed with breast cancer. She is worried about her own risk of developing the disease, especially since their mother passed away from breast cancer at age 41. The patient requests a referral for genetic testing to determine if she carries mutations commonly associated with inherited breast cancer.

      In which genes are these mutations most frequently found?

      Your Answer: BRCA2

      Explanation:

      Genetic Mutations and Their Associated Risks

      Inherited genetic mutations can increase the risk of developing certain diseases, including cancer. The BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes are associated with an increased incidence of breast and ovarian cancers, with a 50% chance of inheritance from a parent. Mutations in these genes significantly increase the lifetime risk of developing these malignancies, with women with the BRCA1 mutation having a 72% risk of developing breast cancer and a 44% risk of developing ovarian cancer. The APC gene is associated with familial polyposis and an increased risk of colorectal cancer, while mutations in the PKD1 gene are associated with polycystic kidney disease. The delta F508 gene mutation causes cystic fibrosis, and mutations in the RAS gene are implicated in a wide range of malignancies. Understanding these genetic mutations and their associated risks can aid in early detection and prevention efforts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      7.8
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  • Question 18 - A 36-year-old patient with breast carcinoma is discovered to have a 1.5 cm...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old patient with breast carcinoma is discovered to have a 1.5 cm tumour in the upper outer quadrant (OUQ) of her left breast. One local axillary node is positive, and no metastases are detected on imaging.
      What is the accurate TNM (Tumour, Nodes, and Metastases) staging for her?

      Your Answer: T1, N1, M0

      Explanation:

      TNM Staging and Examples

      TNM staging is a system used to describe the extent of cancer in a patient’s body. It takes into account the size of the tumor (T), whether it has spread to nearby lymph nodes (N), and whether it has metastasized to distant organs (M). The categories are further subdivided to provide more detailed information. Based on the TNM categories, cancers are grouped into stages, which help determine the most appropriate treatment options.

      Examples of TNM staging include:

      – T1, N1, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), one local axillary node is positive (N1), and there are no distant metastases (M0).
      – T0, Nx, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), and there was one positive axillary lymph node (N1). Nx would mean that spread to local lymph nodes was not assessed.
      – T1, N0, M1: There was one positive axillary lymph node (N1), and there are no distant metastases (M0).
      – T2, N1, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), and there was one positive axillary lymph node (N1).
      – T1, N1, Mx: There are no distant metastases (M0).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 19 - A young medical student is investigating the involvement of oncogenes in the formation...

    Incorrect

    • A young medical student is investigating the involvement of oncogenes in the formation of different types of cancers following an interview with a patient who has breast cancer linked to an oncogene. Which oncogene promotes the growth of breast cancer?

      Your Answer: BRCA1

      Correct Answer: Human epidermal growth receptor 2 (HER2)

      Explanation:

      Genes and Proteins Associated with Cancer: HER2, p53, BRCA1, IgE, and CEA

      Cancer is a complex disease that can be caused by various genetic mutations and alterations. Some genes and proteins are associated with an increased risk of developing cancer, while others are used as markers to detect the presence of cancer. Here are some examples:

      HER2: A mutated HER2 gene is an oncogene that promotes the growth of breast cancer cells. HER2-positive breast cancers tend to be more aggressive and require targeted treatments such as trastuzumab.

      p53: The p53 gene produces a tumor suppressor protein that helps prevent the development of cancer. Loss of function or abnormal p53 is associated with an increased susceptibility to various malignancies.

      BRCA1: BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor gene that produces proteins that help repair damaged DNA. Mutations in BRCA1 increase the risk of breast and ovarian cancer in women.

      IgE: Immunoglobulin E is an antibody produced by plasma cells and is not associated with cancer development.

      CEA: Carcinoembryonic antigen is a tumor marker that may be elevated in various malignancies, including colorectal, lung, and breast cancer.

      Understanding the role of genes and proteins in cancer development and detection can help with early diagnosis and targeted treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old woman comes in with weight loss and a serum calcium concentration...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman comes in with weight loss and a serum calcium concentration of 3.22 mmol/l (normal range 2.1-2.8 mmol/l). Her skeletal survey shows no abnormalities. The doctors suspect non-metastatic hypercalcaemia. What is the probable substance being produced by the tumor?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hypercalcaemia in Cancer Patients

      Hypercalcaemia is a common occurrence in cancer patients, affecting around 10-20% of cases. It is caused by increased bone resorption and release of calcium from bone. The most common cancers associated with hypercalcaemia are breast and lung cancers, as well as multiple myeloma.

      One of the most common causes of hypercalcaemia in patients with non-metastatic solid tumours is the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP), also known as humoral hypercalcaemia of malignancy. This should be suspected in any patient with a solid tumour in the absence of bony metastases or in patients with unexplained hypercalcaemia and low serum PTH concentration. PTHrP is related in function to PTH and is most commonly secreted by breast and lung tumours.

      Osteoclast-activating cytokines can also cause osteolytic metastases and release of calcium. Calcitonin is used to lower plasma calcium concentration in patients with hypercalcaemia associated with malignancy. Calcitriol is the cause of almost all cases of hypercalcaemia in Hodgkin’s disease and approximately one-third of cases in non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Secretion of PTH as a cause is rare, and serum PTH concentrations are typically low.

      In conclusion, hypercalcaemia in cancer patients can have various causes, and it is important to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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Oncology (7/20) 35%
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