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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm leg...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm leg laceration. After assessing the wound, it is determined that suturing under anesthesia is necessary. You intend to supervise one of the medical students in closing the wound. Before beginning the procedure, you have a discussion about the risks associated with local anesthesia. Methemoglobinemia is primarily associated with which type of anesthetic agent?

      Your Answer: Prilocaine

      Explanation:

      Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition that can occur when prilocaine is used, particularly when administered at doses higher than 16 mg/kg.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 52 year old male is brought to the emergency department with severe...

    Correct

    • A 52 year old male is brought to the emergency department with severe head and chest injuries. As his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) continues to decline, it is determined that intubation is necessary. You begin preparing for rapid sequence induction (RSI). Before administering sodium thiopentone, the patient's blood pressure is measured and found to be 88/58 mmHg. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Use half normal dose

      Explanation:

      In patients with pre-existing hypovolaemia, the amount of sodium thiopentone administered should be reduced by half. This is because sodium thiopentone can cause venodilation and myocardial depression, which can result in significant hypovolaemia. Alternatively, an induction agent that does not cause hypotension, such as Etomidate, can be used instead. It is important to note that both propofol and thiopentone are known to cause hypotension.

      Further Reading:

      There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.

      Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.

      Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.

      Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.

      Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are a member of the team assisting with the intubation of a...

    Correct

    • You are a member of the team assisting with the intubation of a pediatric patient. The initial intubation attempt is unsuccessful. Your attending physician instructs you to apply pressure on the larynx during the second attempt. With the patient positioned in a semi-recumbent position, which direction should pressure be applied to aid in intubation?

      Your Answer: Backwards, upwards and rightwards

      Explanation:

      The BURP maneuver is a technique used to assist with intubation. It involves applying pressure in a specific direction on the larynx. The acronym BURP stands for backwards (B), upwards (U), rightwards (R), and pressure (P). To perform the maneuver correctly, the thyroid cartilage is moved backwards, 2 cm upwards, and 0.5cm – 2 cm to the right in relation to the anatomical position.

      Further Reading:

      A difficult airway refers to a situation where factors have been identified that make airway management more challenging. These factors can include body habitus, head and neck anatomy, mouth characteristics, jaw abnormalities, and neck mobility. The LEMON criteria can be used to predict difficult intubation by assessing these factors. The criteria include looking externally at these factors, evaluating the 3-3-2 rule which assesses the space in the mouth and neck, assessing the Mallampati score which measures the distance between the tongue base and roof of the mouth, and considering any upper airway obstructions or reduced neck mobility.

      Direct laryngoscopy is a method used to visualize the larynx and assess the size of the tracheal opening. The Cormack-Lehane grading system can be used to classify the tracheal opening, with higher grades indicating more difficult access. In cases of a failed airway, where intubation attempts are unsuccessful and oxygenation cannot be maintained, the immediate priority is to oxygenate the patient and prevent hypoxic brain injury. This can be done through various measures such as using a bag-valve-mask ventilation, high flow oxygen, suctioning, and optimizing head positioning.

      If oxygenation cannot be maintained, it is important to call for help from senior medical professionals and obtain a difficult airway trolley if not already available. If basic airway management techniques do not improve oxygenation, further intubation attempts may be considered using different equipment or techniques. If oxygen saturations remain below 90%, a surgical airway such as a cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.

      Post-intubation hypoxia can occur for various reasons, and the mnemonic DOPES can be used to identify and address potential problems. DOPES stands for displacement of the endotracheal tube, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment failure, and stacked breaths. If intubation attempts fail, a maximum of three attempts should be made before moving to an alternative plan, such as using a laryngeal mask airway or considering a cricothyroidotomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old with a past of opioid misuse is brought into the ER...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old with a past of opioid misuse is brought into the ER after being discovered in a collapsed state with decreased level of consciousness. You are worried about the patient's airway. Your consultant recommends using a nasopharyngeal airway adjunct instead of an oropharyngeal airway adjunct. Why is a nasopharyngeal airway preferred in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Less likely to provoke the gag reflex

      Explanation:

      When a patient is semi-conscious, it is less likely for the nasopharyngeal airway adjuncts (NPA’s) to trigger the gag reflex compared to oropharyngeal airways. Therefore, NPA’s are typically the preferred option in these cases.

      Further Reading:

      Techniques to keep the airway open:

      1. Suction: Used to remove obstructing material such as blood, vomit, secretions, and food debris from the oral cavity.

      2. Chin lift manoeuvres: Involves lifting the head off the floor and lifting the chin to extend the head in relation to the neck. Improves alignment of the pharyngeal, laryngeal, and oral axes.

      3. Jaw thrust: Used in trauma patients with cervical spine injury concerns. Fingers are placed under the mandible and gently pushed upward.

      Airway adjuncts:

      1. Oropharyngeal airway (OPA): Prevents the tongue from occluding the airway. Sized according to the patient by measuring from the incisor teeth to the angle of the mandible. Inserted with the tip facing backwards and rotated 180 degrees once it touches the back of the palate or oropharynx.

      2. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA): Useful when it is difficult to open the mouth or in semi-conscious patients. Sized by length (distance between nostril and tragus of the ear) and diameter (roughly that of the patient’s little finger). Contraindicated in basal skull and midface fractures.

      Laryngeal mask airway (LMA):

      – Supraglottic airway device used as a first line or rescue airway.
      – Easy to insert, sized according to patient’s bodyweight.
      – Advantages: Easy insertion, effective ventilation, some protection from aspiration.
      – Disadvantages: Risk of hypoventilation, greater gastric inflation than endotracheal tube (ETT), risk of aspiration and laryngospasm.

      Note: Proper training and assessment of the patient’s condition are essential for airway management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old man that has been involved in a car crash develops symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man that has been involved in a car crash develops symptoms of acute airway blockage. You conclude that he needs to be intubated using a rapid sequence induction. You intend to use thiopental sodium as your induction medication.
      What type of receptor does thiopental sodium act on to produce its effects?

      Your Answer: Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

      Explanation:

      Thiopental sodium is a barbiturate with a very short duration of action. It is primarily used to induce anesthesia. Barbiturates are believed to primarily affect synapses by reducing the sensitivity of postsynaptic receptors to neurotransmitters and by interfering with the release of neurotransmitters from presynaptic neurons.

      Thiopental sodium specifically binds to a unique site associated with a chloride ionophore at the GABAA receptor, which is responsible for the opening of chloride ion channels. This binding increases the length of time that the chloride ionophore remains open. As a result, the inhibitory effect of GABA on postsynaptic neurons in the thalamus is prolonged.

      In summary, thiopental sodium acts as a short-acting barbiturate that is commonly used to induce anesthesia. It affects synapses by reducing postsynaptic receptor sensitivity and interfering with neurotransmitter release. By binding to a specific site at the GABAA receptor, thiopental sodium prolongs the inhibitory effect of GABA in the thalamus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You examine the X-ray of a 65 year old male who has tripped...

    Incorrect

    • You examine the X-ray of a 65 year old male who has tripped and landed on his extended right hand. The X-ray confirms a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement. You intend to perform a reduction of the fracture using intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier's block). How many healthcare professionals should be present during the entire procedure?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.

      Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.

      During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.

      There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are getting ready to administer local anesthesia to the skin of a...

    Incorrect

    • You are getting ready to administer local anesthesia to the skin of a patient's groin before inserting a femoral venous catheter. You opt for lidocaine as the choice of medication. What is the mechanism of action of lidocaine?

      Your Answer: Blockade of voltage-gated Na+ channels

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels. These channels are responsible for the propagation of action potentials in nerve fibers. By blocking these channels, lidocaine prevents the influx of sodium ions into the nerve cells, thereby inhibiting the generation and conduction of nerve impulses. This results in local anesthesia, as the transmission of pain signals from the skin to the brain is effectively blocked.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35 year old female trauma patient is being treated in the resus....

    Correct

    • A 35 year old female trauma patient is being treated in the resus. It is decided to administer intravenous ketamine for rapid sequence induction, and your consultant requests you to prepare the medication. What is a frequently observed side effect of ketamine?

      Your Answer: Nystagmus

      Explanation:

      Ketamine administration can lead to various side effects, including nystagmus and diplopia. Other potential side effects include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations or emergence phenomena, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, and abnormal tonic-clonic movements.

      Further Reading:

      There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.

      Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.

      Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.

      Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.

      Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are overseeing the care of a 72-year-old patient who is experiencing a...

    Correct

    • You are overseeing the care of a 72-year-old patient who is experiencing a peri-arrest arrhythmia. Laboratory results indicate that the patient has a significant deficiency of magnesium in their blood. After careful consideration, you determine that administering magnesium sulfate is necessary. What is the appropriate dosage regimen for this treatment?

      Your Answer: 2g IV given over 10-15 minutes

      Explanation:

      To treat serious arrhythmia caused by hypomagnesaemia, it is recommended to administer 2 g of magnesium sulphate intravenously over a period of 10-15 minutes.

      Further Reading:

      In the management of respiratory and cardiac arrest, several drugs are commonly used to help restore normal function and improve outcomes. Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors and is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes. It works by causing vasoconstriction, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and improving cardiac output by increasing the force of heart contraction. Adrenaline also has bronchodilatory effects.

      Amiodarone is another drug used in cardiac arrest situations. It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, which prolongs repolarization and reduces myocardial excitability. The initial dose of amiodarone is 300 mg intravenously after 3 shocks, followed by a dose of 150 mg after 5 shocks.

      Lidocaine is an alternative to amiodarone in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels and decreasing heart rate. The recommended dose is 1 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection, with a repeat half of the initial dose after 5 minutes. The maximum total dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg.

      Magnesium sulfate is used to reverse myocardial hyperexcitability associated with hypomagnesemia. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 2 g over 10-15 minutes. An additional dose may be given if necessary, but the maximum total dose should not exceed 3 g.

      Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and is used to counteract the slowing of heart rate caused by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 500 mcg every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3 mg.

      Naloxone is a competitive antagonist for opioid receptors and is used in cases of respiratory arrest caused by opioid overdose. It has a short duration of action, so careful monitoring is necessary. The initial dose of naloxone is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 mcg after 1 minute. The dose can be gradually escalated up to 2 mg per dose if there is no response to the preceding dose.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to have knowledge of the pharmacology and dosing schedules of these drugs in order to effectively manage respiratory and cardiac arrest situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You have recently conducted rapid sequence induction utilizing ketamine and rocuronium and successfully...

    Correct

    • You have recently conducted rapid sequence induction utilizing ketamine and rocuronium and successfully inserted an endotracheal tube under the guidance of a consultant. What should have been the available reversal agent to counteract the effects of Rocuronium if necessary?

      Your Answer: Sugammadex

      Explanation:

      Sugammadex is a medication used to quickly reverse the effects of muscle relaxation caused by drugs like rocuronium bromide or vecuronium bromide. The 2020 guidelines for sedation and anesthesia outside of the operating room recommend having a complete set of emergency drugs, including specific reversal agents like naloxone, sugammadex, and flumazenil, readily accessible. Sugammadex is a modified form of gamma cyclodextrin that is effective in rapidly reversing the neuromuscular blockade caused by these specific drugs.

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      12.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Anaesthetics (8/10) 80%
Passmed