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Question 1
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A 75-year-old patient presents to the emergency department complaining of offensive smelling diarrhea and discomfort in the lower abdomen for the past 5 days. The patient had a previous episode of clostridium difficile diarrhea 4 months ago and recently completed a course of amoxicillin for a respiratory infection 12 days ago. The patient's primary care physician sent a stool sample for testing 3 days ago, which came back positive for clostridium difficile. Based on the diagnosis of a moderate clostridium difficile infection, what is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Prescribe vancomycin 125 mg orally QDS for 10 days
Explanation:The first-line treatment for C.diff infection is typically oral vancomycin. When managing moderate cases, it is important to stop the antibiotics that caused the infection, ensure proper hydration, and provide guidance on hygiene measures. The recommended treatment is to prescribe oral vancomycin 125 mg four times a day for 10 days. Alternatively, fidaxomicin 200 mg twice a day for 10 days can be used as a second-line treatment. In severe cases, oral vancomycin may be combined with intravenous metronidazole, but it is advisable to consult with a local microbiologist or infectious disease specialist before proceeding.
Further Reading:
Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.
Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.
Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.
Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
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A 32-year-old man is brought to the hospital with a known notifiable illness.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Public Health England (PHE) has the primary goal of promptly identifying potential disease outbreaks and epidemics. While accuracy of diagnosis is not the main focus, clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection has been sufficient since 1968.
Registered medical practitioners (RMPs) are legally obligated to inform the designated proper officer at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) about suspected cases of specific infectious diseases.
The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010 outline the diseases that RMPs must report to the proper officers at local authorities. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
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A child under your supervision is diagnosed with a reportable illness.
Which of the following is NOT currently a reportable illness?Your Answer: HIV
Explanation:HIV is currently not considered a notifiable disease. The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations require the reporting of certain diseases, but HIV is not included in this list. The diseases that are currently considered notifiable include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, SARS, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever. If you want to learn more about notifiable diseases and the organisms that cause them, you can refer to the Notifiable diseases and causative organisms: how to report resource.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
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A 3-year-old girl presents with a temperature of 39 degrees. She appears fussy, and a non-blanching rash is observed on her abdomen. Tragically, she passes away later that day from Meningococcal septicaemia.
To whom should a report be submitted?Your Answer: Consultant in Communicable Disease Control
Explanation:Registered medical practitioners in England and Wales are legally obligated to inform a designated official from the Local Authority if they suspect a patient has contracted specific infectious diseases. For more information on which diseases and their causative organisms require reporting, please refer to the following resource: Notifiable diseases and causative organisms: how to report.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
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A 15 year old arrives at the emergency department complaining of a sore throat, swollen glands, and feeling tired for the past 2 weeks. Upon examination, you inform the patient that you suspect they have mononucleosis.
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Discharge with advise on analgesia
Explanation:Glandular fever is typically treated with conservative management. It is a self-limiting illness that usually resolves within 2-4 weeks and can be effectively managed with over-the-counter pain relievers. Patients should also be informed about the expected duration of the illness, ways to minimize transmission, precautions to prevent complications like splenic rupture, and provided with appropriate support and guidance. These measures are outlined in the following notes.
Further Reading:
Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.
The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.
Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.
Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a high temperature, cough, and difficulty breathing. After conducting additional tests, she is diagnosed with a notifiable illness. You fill out the notification form and get in touch with the local health protection team.
Which of the following is the LEAST probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Whooping cough
Correct Answer: Influenza
Explanation:Public Health England (PHE) has a primary goal of swiftly identifying potential disease outbreaks and epidemics. While accuracy of diagnosis is important, it takes a backseat to the speed of detection. Since 1968, the clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection has been sufficient for reporting purposes.
Registered medical practitioners (RMPs) are legally obligated to notify the designated proper officer at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) when they suspect cases of certain infectious diseases.
The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010 specify the diseases that RMPs must report to the proper officers. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.
It is worth noting that influenza is not considered a notifiable disease, making it the least likely option among the diseases listed above.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35 year old male with a history of IV drug use presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling generally unwell, lethargy, and having a fever for the past 2 days. The initial observations are as follows:
- Temperature: 38.6ÂșC
- Pulse rate: 124 bpm
- Blood pressure: 126/80 mmHg
- Respiration rate: 22 bpm
- Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
During chest auscultation, an audible murmur is detected, leading to a suspicion of infective endocarditis. What is the most likely organism causing this infection?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus is the primary organism responsible for infective endocarditis in individuals who use intravenous drugs (IVDUs). In fact, it is not only the most common cause of infective endocarditis overall, but also specifically in IVDUs. Please refer to the additional notes for more detailed information.
Further Reading:
Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.
The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.
Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.
The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.
In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
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A child with a history of stomach pain and loose stools is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection after finding eggs in their stool.
What is the most suitable treatment for this infection?Your Answer: Praziquantel
Explanation:Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.
Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.
The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
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A 5-year-old boy presents with a rash. He has been complaining of a sore throat and headaches. His mother noticed the rash on his tummy this morning, and his skin feels a little like sandpaper to touch. The rash blanches to the touch. He has had high temperatures and a flushed face too. You suspect scarlet fever and offer them antibiotics. When they leave the hospital, you remember that this is a notifiable disease and that you should inform the Consultant in Communicable Disease Control.
Within what time frame should you inform them about this case?Your Answer: Within 72 hours
Explanation:If a case is not deemed urgent, it is necessary to inform the appropriate officer within a period of three days. However, if the case is suspected to be urgent, it is crucial to verbally notify the proper officer within a timeframe of 24 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
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A patient with a past medical history of epigastric discomfort and diarrhea is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection. The infection was acquired after consuming a beef dish that was contaminated with the parasite.
Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for causing this infestation?Your Answer: Taenia saginata
Explanation:Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.
Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.
The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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