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Question 1
Correct
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A 62-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his right upper quadrant. He has no prior hospital visits and generally enjoys good health. Recently retired from his job as a machinist in a PVC factory, he is concerned about his symptoms. A CT scan reveals an irregular tumor in the right lobe of his liver. What type of lesion is most probable?
Your Answer: Angiosarcoma
Explanation:Angiosarcoma of the liver is a tumor that is not commonly found. However, it has been associated with exposure to vinyl chloride, as seen in this instance. While current factories have taken measures to reduce exposure to this substance, this was not always the case.
Occupational cancers are responsible for 5.3% of cancer deaths, with men being more affected than women. The most common types of cancer in men include mesothelioma, bladder cancer, non-melanoma skin cancer, lung cancer, and sino-nasal cancer. Occupations that have a high risk of developing tumors include those in the construction industry, coal tar and pitch workers, miners, metalworkers, asbestos workers, and those in the rubber industry. Shift work has also been linked to breast cancer in women.
The latency period between exposure to carcinogens and the development of cancer is typically 15 years for solid tumors and 20 years for leukemia. Many occupational cancers are rare, such as sino-nasal cancer, which is linked to wood dust exposure and is not strongly associated with smoking. Another rare occupational tumor is angiosarcoma of the liver, which is linked to working with vinyl chloride. In non-occupational contexts, these tumors are extremely rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 60-year-old male presents with fatigue, pallor and a tingling sensation in both hands. Screening blood tests reveal:
Hb 110 g/l (115-160 g/l)
MCV 112 fl (82-100 fl)
B12 140 ng/l (200-900 ng/l)
What is the most frequent reason for this patient's macrocytic anaemia?Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia
Explanation:The primary cause of vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious anaemia. This condition occurs when the stomach lining is destroyed by autoimmune factors, leading to reduced production of intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is responsible for binding B12 in the gut, and without it, B12 absorption is impaired. This can result in a deficiency of vitamin B12 and macrocytic anaemia, as well as neurological symptoms due to damage to spinal cord myelination.
While a strict vegan diet and alcoholism can also lead to B12 deficiency, they are not the most common causes.
Microcytic sideroblastic anaemia, on the other hand, is caused by lead poisoning, which impairs haem production.
Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.
Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.
Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy with coeliac disease visits his GP with complaints of fatigue. The doctor suspects iron deficiency anaemia and requests some blood tests. The pathologist's report indicates the presence of microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells along with another unusual cell type. Which of the following abnormal red cell types is indicative of iron deficiency anaemia?
Your Answer: Schistocytes
Correct Answer: Pencil cells
Explanation:Iron deficiency anaemia is characterized by microcytic and hypochromic cells, as well as pencil and target cells on a peripheral blood film. Schistocytes may be present due to mechanical heart valves, while rouleaux may be observed in cases of chronic liver disease and malignant lymphoma. Tear drop poikilocytes may be seen in myelofibrosis.
Pathological Red Cell Forms in Blood Films
Blood films are used to examine the morphology of red blood cells and identify any abnormalities. Pathological red cell forms are associated with various conditions and can provide important diagnostic information. Some of the common pathological red cell forms include target cells, tear-drop poikilocytes, spherocytes, basophilic stippling, Howell-Jolly bodies, Heinz bodies, schistocytes, pencil poikilocytes, burr cells (echinocytes), and acanthocytes.
Target cells are seen in conditions such as sickle-cell/thalassaemia, iron-deficiency anaemia, hyposplenism, and liver disease. Tear-drop poikilocytes are associated with myelofibrosis, while spherocytes are seen in hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. Basophilic stippling is a characteristic feature of lead poisoning, thalassaemia, sideroblastic anaemia, and myelodysplasia. Howell-Jolly bodies are seen in hyposplenism, while Heinz bodies are associated with G6PD deficiency and alpha-thalassaemia. Schistocytes or ‘helmet cells’ are seen in conditions such as intravascular haemolysis, mechanical heart valve, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Pencil poikilocytes are seen in iron deficiency anaemia, while burr cells (echinocytes) are associated with uraemia and pyruvate kinase deficiency. Acanthocytes are seen in abetalipoproteinemia.
In addition to these red cell forms, hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in megaloblastic anaemia. Identifying these pathological red cell forms in blood films can aid in the diagnosis and management of various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 75-year-old man has a tumour located at the tip of his tongue. Initially, which region will the tumour metastasize to?
Your Answer: Submental nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic Drainage of the Tongue
The lymphatic drainage of the tongue varies depending on the location of the tumour. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue have minimal communication of lymphatics across the midline, resulting in metastasis to the ipsilateral nodes being more common. On the other hand, the posterior third of the tongue has communicating networks, leading to early bilateral nodal metastases being more common in this area.
The tip of the tongue drains to the submental nodes and then to the deep cervical nodes, while the mid portion of the tongue drains to the submandibular nodes and then to the deep cervical nodes. If mid tongue tumours are laterally located, they will usually drain to the ipsilateral deep cervical nodes. However, those from more central regions may have bilateral deep cervical nodal involvement. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the tongue is crucial in determining the spread of tumours and planning appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, and sudden-onset shortness of breath. Upon diagnosis, she is found to have a pulmonary embolism and is later discovered to have Factor V Leiden. What is the underlying mechanism that causes this condition to lead to blood clots?
Your Answer: Low levels of factor V in the blood
Correct Answer: Activated protein C resistance
Explanation:The Factor V Leiden mutation causes activated protein C resistance, resulting in excess clotting due to inefficient inactivation of factor V. This is the correct answer.
Antiphospholipid antibodies binding to plasma membranes is not the correct answer as it is a mechanism of blood clot formation in antiphospholipid syndrome (APS).
High levels of platelets in the blood is also not the correct answer as it is not implicated in Factor V Leiden. Thrombocytosis, or high levels of platelets, can lead to clots but is not related to this mutation.
Low levels of factor V in the blood is also not the correct answer as factor V deficiency is a rare inherited bleeding disorder, not a clotting disorder. It is a form of haemophilia.
Understanding Factor V Leiden
Factor V Leiden is a common inherited thrombophilia, affecting around 5% of the UK population. It is caused by a mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein, resulting in activated factor V being inactivated 10 times more slowly by activated protein C than normal. This leads to activated protein C resistance, which increases the risk of venous thrombosis. Heterozygotes have a 4-5 fold risk of venous thrombosis, while homozygotes have a 10 fold risk, although the prevalence of homozygotes is much lower at 0.05%.
Despite its prevalence, screening for Factor V Leiden is not recommended, even after a venous thromboembolism. This is because a previous thromboembolism itself is a risk factor for further events, and specific management should be based on this rather than the particular thrombophilia identified.
Other inherited thrombophilias include Prothrombin gene mutation, Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin III deficiency. The table below shows the prevalence and relative risk of venous thromboembolism for each of these conditions.
Overall, understanding Factor V Leiden and other inherited thrombophilias can help healthcare professionals identify individuals at higher risk of venous thrombosis and provide appropriate management to prevent future events.
Condition | Prevalence | Relative risk of VTE
— | — | —
Factor V Leiden (heterozygous) | 5% | 4
Factor V Leiden (homozygous) | 0.05% | 10
Prothrombin gene mutation (heterozygous) | 1.5% | 3
Protein C deficiency | 0.3% | 10
Protein S deficiency | 0.1% | 5-10
Antithrombin III deficiency | 0.02% | 10-20 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female presents with frequent bruising and bleeding gums, prompting concern for the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. What tests would you order to investigate this?
Your Answer: D-dimer
Correct Answer: Prothrombin time (PT)
Explanation:The prothrombin time (PT) is used to assess the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade, while the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to assess the intrinsic pathway. The thrombin time is used to assess fibrin formation. A 50:50 mixing study is used to determine if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.
The Coagulation Cascade: Two Pathways to Fibrin Formation
The coagulation cascade is a complex process that leads to the formation of a blood clot. There are two pathways that can lead to fibrin formation: the intrinsic pathway and the extrinsic pathway. The intrinsic pathway involves components that are already present in the blood and has a minor role in clotting. It is initiated by subendothelial damage, such as collagen, which leads to the formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12. This complex activates Factor 11, which in turn activates Factor 9. Factor 9, along with its co-factor Factor 8a, forms the tenase complex, which activates Factor 10.
The extrinsic pathway, on the other hand, requires tissue factor released by damaged tissue. This pathway is initiated by tissue damage, which leads to the binding of Factor 7 to tissue factor. This complex activates Factor 9, which works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10. Both pathways converge at the common pathway, where activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Thrombin hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin and also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.
Finally, fibrinolysis occurs, which is the process of clot resorption. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate this process. It is important to note that certain factors are involved in both pathways, such as Factor 10, and that some factors are vitamin K dependent, such as Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. The intrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while the extrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the prothrombin time (PT).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 27-year-old man comes to his doctor for a routine check-up before participating in a local 20-mile cycling race. He has been training for over a year and is determined to win. He has been experiencing occasional headaches on both sides of his head for the past three weeks, but they come and go and are not accompanied by aura, photophobia, or phonophobia. He has some redness and tenderness on his abdomen, but no masses are felt. His bowel and bladder function are normal. He had flu-like symptoms last week but is feeling much better now. His blood test results are as follows, and his hematocrit level is higher than normal:
Hemoglobin: 198 g/L
Platelets: 250 * 10^9/L
White blood cells: 6 * 10^9/L
Which of the following best explains his symptoms and blood test results?Your Answer: Secondary polycythemia due to erythropoietin use
Explanation:Athletes who use EPO are at risk of developing polycythemia. Cyclists are known to frequently use EPO, which can cause localized erythema on the abdomen from repeated injections. The patient’s headaches are not migrainous as they lack associated symptoms such as aura, photophobia, or phonophobia. Renal cell carcinoma is the primary type of kidney cancer in adults and typically presents with flank pain, haematuria, and a flank mass. Other symptoms may include weight loss, night sweats, fever, and malaise.
Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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An eager nursing student comes to you with a set of inquiries regarding blood transfusion reactions. Which of her subsequent statements is inaccurate?
Your Answer: Graft versus host disease involves neutrophil proliferation
Explanation:A helpful mnemonic for remembering transfusion reactions is Got a bad unit. Each letter represents a potential complication:
G – Graft vs. Host disease
O – Overload
T – Thrombocytopenia
A – Alloimmunization
B – Blood pressure unstable
A – Acute hemolytic reaction
D – Delayed hemolytic reaction
U – Urticaria
N – Neutrophilia
I – Infection
T – Transfusion-associated lung injuryGraft vs. Host disease occurs when the patient’s own lymphocytes are similar to the donor’s lymphocytes, causing severe complications. Thrombocytopenia may occur a few days after transfusion and may resolve on its own. Patients with IGA antibodies require IgA deficient blood transfusions.
Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.
Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.
Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.
TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman, previously healthy, visited her doctor complaining of a growing rubbery lump in her neck and night sweats. She was quickly referred to a haematologist who diagnosed her with lymphoma. The patient is currently undergoing chemotherapy for the lymphoma and has come to your clinic with glove-and-stocking distribution paraesthesia.
What medication is the most probable cause of this symptom in this patient?Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide
Correct Answer: Vincristine
Explanation:Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 29-year-old man is admitted to the haematology ward for acute lymphocytic leukaemia treatment. You are consulted due to his complaint of supra-pubic pain and frank haematuria. Upon checking his medication, you observe that he is taking cyclophosphamide and suspect that he may have developed haemorrhagic cystitis from this drug.
What is the primary mode of action of cyclophosphamide?Your Answer: Cross-linking in DNA
Explanation:Cyclophosphamide is a medication that is used to treat various types of cancer and induce immunosuppression in patients before stem cell transplantation. It works by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, one of the complications of cyclophosphamide treatment is haemorrhagic cystitis. This occurs because when the liver breaks down cyclophosphamide, it releases a toxic metabolite called acrolein. Acrolein is concentrated in the bladder and triggers an inflammatory response that can lead to haemorrhagic cystitis.
To reduce the risk of haemorrhagic cystitis, doctors can administer MESNA, a drug that conjugates acrolein and reduces the inflammatory response.
Bleomycin, on the other hand, degrades preformed DNA instead of causing cross-linking. Hydroxyurea inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, which decreases DNA synthesis. 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that arrests the cell cycle and induces apoptosis. Vincristine inhibits the formation of microtubules.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a patient in your clinic who has developed lesions on his penis. He reports that he has recently come back from Thailand, where he had unprotected sexual intercourse with multiple partners on three occasions. He denies any discomfort or pain while urinating, and there is no discharge. On examination, you notice a small group of fleshy lesions on the glans, but there is no ulceration.
What is the most probable pathogen responsible for the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: HIV
Correct Answer: HPV 6 or 11
Explanation:Genital warts are caused by HPV subtypes 6 and 11, which are non-carcinogenic. These warts are sexually transmitted and can also affect the larynx. While they do not pose a cancer risk, they can be psychologically distressing and require treatment such as podophyllotoxin ointment, cryotherapy, or surgical removal. Recurrence is possible due to HPV ability to remain dormant.
In contrast, HPV subtypes 16 and 18 are carcinogenic and linked to various cancers, but do not cause warts.
Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, presents with a painless ulcer during the primary stage and can develop wart-like lesions during secondary syphilis, although this is rare compared to genital warts. Chlamydia trachomatis is another common sexually transmitted infection with various symptoms.
HPV Infection and Cervical Cancer
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, with subtypes 16, 18, and 33 being the most carcinogenic. Other common subtypes, such as 6 and 11, are associated with genital warts but are not carcinogenic. When endocervical cells become infected with HPV, they may undergo changes that lead to the development of koilocytes. These cells have distinct characteristics, including an enlarged nucleus, irregular nuclear membrane contour, hyperchromasia (darker staining of the nucleus), and a perinuclear halo. These changes are important diagnostic markers for cervical cancer and can be detected through Pap smears or other screening methods. Early detection and treatment of HPV infection and cervical cancer can greatly improve outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male with a history of sickle cell disease is admitted to the haematology ward due to fatigue and jaundice after a recent weather change. Upon reviewing his medical records, you observe that his typical haemoglobin levels range from 80-90g/L, but his latest blood test indicates a decrease to 53g/L. Based on this information, you suspect that he is experiencing a haemolytic crisis. What other blood parameter would you anticipate to be low in this patient's situation?
Your Answer: Reticulocytes
Correct Answer: Haptoglobin
Explanation:Haptoglobin is responsible for binding to free haemoglobin in the blood. Patients with sickle cell disease often experience anaemia, but can also suffer from a sudden drop in Hb levels known as a haemolytic crisis. This can be triggered by various factors such as infection, cold weather, and hypoxia. During a haemolytic crisis, red blood cells break down rapidly, releasing haemoglobin which haptoglobin binds to, leading to a decrease in haptoglobin levels in the blood. Reticulocytes, immature red blood cells, are released into the blood in response to haemolysis and haemorrhage, causing their levels to increase during a haemolytic crisis. Jaundice, a condition characterized by yellowing of the skin and eyes, is caused by hyperbilirubinaemia. Haemolysis leads to high levels of unconjugated bilirubin, while conditions such as pancreatic cancer or biliary tree strictures can cause high levels of conjugated bilirubin.
Laboratory Findings in Haematological Disease
Haptoglobin is a laboratory test that measures the level of a protein that binds to free haemoglobin. A decrease in haptoglobin levels is often associated with intravascular haemolysis, a condition where red blood cells are destroyed within blood vessels. On the other hand, an increase in mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is commonly seen in hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune haemolytic anemia. In contrast, a decrease in MCHC is often observed in microcytic anaemia, which is commonly caused by iron deficiency. It is important to note that autoimmune haemolytic anemia is often associated with spherocytosis. These laboratory findings are commonly tested in haematological disease exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male visits his GP complaining of fatigue. The GP schedules a blood test to rule out anaemia as a possible cause. Typically, where do red blood cells undergo breakdown in the body?
Your Answer: Kidneys
Correct Answer: Spleen
Explanation:The spleen is responsible for breaking down most of the red blood cells. This is achieved through the action of macrophages that identify and eliminate old red blood cells. It is worth noting that in a healthy individual, the liver, kidneys, and blood vessels do not participate in the breakdown of red blood cells. Additionally, while the bone marrow plays a crucial role in producing blood cells, it is not involved in the destruction of red blood cells.
Understanding Haemolytic Anaemias by Site
Haemolytic anaemias can be classified by the site of haemolysis, either intravascular or extravascular. In intravascular haemolysis, free haemoglobin is released and binds to haptoglobin. As haptoglobin becomes saturated, haemoglobin binds to albumin forming methaemalbumin, which can be detected by Schumm’s test. Free haemoglobin is then excreted in the urine as haemoglobinuria and haemosiderinuria. Causes of intravascular haemolysis include mismatched blood transfusion, red cell fragmentation due to heart valves, TTP, DIC, HUS, paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria, and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.
On the other hand, extravascular haemolysis occurs when red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages in the spleen or liver. This type of haemolysis is commonly seen in haemoglobinopathies such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis, haemolytic disease of the newborn, and warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.
It is important to understand the site of haemolysis in order to properly diagnose and treat haemolytic anaemias. While both intravascular and extravascular haemolysis can lead to anaemia, the underlying causes and treatment approaches may differ.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A pediatrician orders packed red cells for transfusion for a young patient with significant blood loss. As you approach the storage unit, you notice that the power is off, which was keeping the red cells at the correct storage temperature.
What temperature should this donation be stored at before use?Your Answer: 20ºC
Correct Answer: 4ºC
Explanation:Guidelines for Red Blood Cell Transfusion
In 2015, NICE released guidelines for the use of blood products, specifically red blood cells. These guidelines recommend different transfusion thresholds for patients with and without acute coronary syndrome (ACS). For patients without ACS, the transfusion threshold is 70 g/L, while for those with ACS, it is 80 g/L. The target hemoglobin level after transfusion is 70-90 g/L for patients without ACS and 80-100 g/L for those with ACS. It is important to note that these thresholds should not be used for patients with ongoing major hemorrhage or those who require regular blood transfusions for chronic anemia.
When administering red blood cells, it is crucial to store them at 4°C prior to infusion. In non-urgent scenarios, a unit of RBC is typically transfused over a period of 90-120 minutes. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective transfusions for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man has a tumour located in the central area of the posterior third of his tongue. Which lymph node group is most likely to be affected by metastasis?
Your Answer: Contralateral deep cervical nodes
Correct Answer: Bilateral deep cervical nodes
Explanation:Metastasis to the bilateral deep cervical lymph nodes is a common occurrence in tumours located in the posterior third of the tongue. This is particularly true for tumours located near the midline, as lymph vessels may cross the median plane at this location. Additionally, centrally located tumours are also more likely to exhibit early metastasis.
Lymphatic Drainage of the Tongue
The lymphatic drainage of the tongue varies depending on the location of the tumour. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue have minimal communication of lymphatics across the midline, resulting in metastasis to the ipsilateral nodes being more common. On the other hand, the posterior third of the tongue has communicating networks, leading to early bilateral nodal metastases being more common in this area.
The tip of the tongue drains to the submental nodes and then to the deep cervical nodes, while the mid portion of the tongue drains to the submandibular nodes and then to the deep cervical nodes. If mid tongue tumours are laterally located, they will usually drain to the ipsilateral deep cervical nodes. However, those from more central regions may have bilateral deep cervical nodal involvement. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the tongue is crucial in determining the spread of tumours and planning appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which one of the following statements related to the coagulation cascade is true?
Your Answer: Tissue factor released by damaged tissue initiates the extrinsic pathway
Explanation:The primary route of coagulation is the extrinsic pathway, which is inhibited by heparin’s ability to prevent the activation of factors 2, 9, 10, and 11. The convergence of both pathways occurs during the activation of factor 10. Fibrinogen is transformed into fibrin by thrombin. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin during fibrinolysis, which breaks down fibrin.
The Coagulation Cascade: Two Pathways to Fibrin Formation
The coagulation cascade is a complex process that leads to the formation of a blood clot. There are two pathways that can lead to fibrin formation: the intrinsic pathway and the extrinsic pathway. The intrinsic pathway involves components that are already present in the blood and has a minor role in clotting. It is initiated by subendothelial damage, such as collagen, which leads to the formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12. This complex activates Factor 11, which in turn activates Factor 9. Factor 9, along with its co-factor Factor 8a, forms the tenase complex, which activates Factor 10.
The extrinsic pathway, on the other hand, requires tissue factor released by damaged tissue. This pathway is initiated by tissue damage, which leads to the binding of Factor 7 to tissue factor. This complex activates Factor 9, which works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10. Both pathways converge at the common pathway, where activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Thrombin hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin and also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.
Finally, fibrinolysis occurs, which is the process of clot resorption. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate this process. It is important to note that certain factors are involved in both pathways, such as Factor 10, and that some factors are vitamin K dependent, such as Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. The intrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while the extrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the prothrombin time (PT).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 27-year-old vegetarian male visits his GP complaining of fatigue despite getting adequate sleep. The doctor conducts a thorough examination and orders a complete blood count and thyroid function tests. The results reveal that the patient has macrocytic anemia, and the doctor suspects B12 deficiency due to his dietary habits. If the body uses up vitamin B12 at a regular rate but is not replenished, how long can the body's stores last?
Your Answer: 3 years
Explanation:Vitamin B12 can be found in animal products, including meat. In order for it to be absorbed in the body’s terminal ileum, intrinsic factor is necessary. This factor is produced by the stomach’s parietal cells. The body stores around 2-3 mg of vitamin B12, which can last for 2-4 years. As a result, signs of B12 deficiency usually do not appear until after a prolonged period of insufficient consumption.
Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.
Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.
Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy has been diagnosed with aplastic anaemia. He hails from a family of farmers and used to play hide and seek in the barns where pesticides and other chemicals were stored. He visited his GP complaining of fatigue, dyspnoea, and headaches. Further blood tests revealed a significant leucopenia. Aplastic anaemia is a condition where haematopoietic stem cells that produce immune cell precursors fail. Where in the body are these cells primarily located?
Your Answer: Bone marrow
Explanation:Aplastic anemia is a condition where there is a shortage of blood cells from all types of progenitor lines. It is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 15 to 25 and those over 60.
The causes of aplastic anemia can be attributed to various factors such as infections (including Epstein-Barr), toxic exposure (such as benzene and radiation), idiopathic, and rarely hereditary.
Haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow generate immune cells. These cells produce two main types of progenitors, myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells, which give rise to all immune cells.
Myeloid progenitor cells give rise to cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.
Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of blood cells due to a poorly functioning bone marrow. It is most commonly seen in individuals around the age of 30 and is marked by a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While lymphocytes may be relatively spared, the overall effect is a condition known as pancytopenia. In some cases, aplastic anaemia may be the first sign of acute lymphoblastic or myeloid leukaemia. A small number of patients may later develop paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria or myelodysplasia.
The causes of aplastic anaemia can be idiopathic, meaning that they are unknown, or they can be linked to congenital conditions such as Fanconi anaemia or dyskeratosis congenita. Certain drugs, such as cytotoxics, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, phenytoin, and gold, as well as toxins like benzene, can also cause aplastic anaemia. Infections such as parvovirus and hepatitis, as well as exposure to radiation, can also contribute to the development of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male has been experiencing recurrent chest infections that are becoming more frequent. Upon examination of a blood film, it was discovered that he has small mature lymphocytes with a dense nucleus, leading to a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia. Which immune cells, derived from lymphoid progenitors, are typically found in higher numbers in this condition?
Your Answer: Eosinophils
Correct Answer: B cells
Explanation:Dendritic cells are derived from both myeloid and lymphoid lineages.
Haematopoiesis: The Generation of Immune Cells
Haematopoiesis is the process by which immune cells are produced from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. These stem cells give rise to two main types of progenitor cells: myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells. All immune cells are derived from these progenitor cells.
The myeloid progenitor cells generate cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.
This process is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system. Without haematopoiesis, the body would not be able to produce the necessary immune cells to fight off infections and diseases. Understanding haematopoiesis is crucial in developing treatments for diseases that affect the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman has been referred to the haematology clinic due to intermittent lymphadenopathy affecting her neck for the past 18 months. Following a biopsy, the histology report suggests a possible diagnosis of follicular lymphoma. To assist with the diagnosis, genetic analysis is conducted.
What is the most probable genomic alteration that will be detected?Your Answer: T(11;22) causing c-myc gene translocation
Correct Answer: T(14;18) causing increased BCL-2 transcription
Explanation:Genetics of Haematological Malignancies
Haematological malignancies are cancers that affect the blood, bone marrow, and lymphatic system. These cancers are often associated with specific genetic abnormalities, such as translocations. Here are some common translocations and their associated haematological malignancies:
– Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22)): This translocation is present in more than 95% of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). It results in the fusion of the Abelson proto-oncogene with the BCR gene on chromosome 22, creating the BCR-ABL gene. This gene codes for a fusion protein with excessive tyrosine kinase activity, which is a poor prognostic indicator in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
– t(15;17): This translocation is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (M3) and involves the fusion of the PML and RAR-alpha genes.
– t(8;14): Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with this translocation, which involves the translocation of the MYC oncogene to an immunoglobulin gene.
– t(11;14): Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with the deregulation of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene.
– t(14;18): Follicular lymphoma is associated with increased BCL-2 transcription due to this translocation.
Understanding the genetic abnormalities associated with haematological malignancies is important for diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is hospitalized with cholestasis caused by a stone lodged at the ampulla of vater. Which test is the most indicative of a bleeding tendency during ERCP in this specific scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prothrombin time
Explanation:The clotting factors that are dependent on vitamin K include 2, 7, 9, and 10, which can be accurately measured through the prothrombin time test. On the other hand, factors 8, 9, 11, and 12 are tested through the APTT, which can also be affected by vitamin K deficiency, but is usually associated with severe liver disease. Platelet function is measured through the bleeding time test. Additionally, jaundice can impair the production of vitamin K dependent clotting factors.
Abnormal coagulation can be caused by various factors such as heparin, warfarin, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and liver disease. Heparin prevents the activation of factors 2, 9, 10, and 11, while warfarin affects the synthesis of factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. DIC affects factors 1, 2, 5, 8, and 11, and liver disease affects factors 1, 2, 5, 7, 9, 10, and 11.
When interpreting blood clotting test results, different disorders can be identified based on the levels of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), prothrombin time (PT), and bleeding time. Haemophilia is characterized by increased APTT levels, normal PT levels, and normal bleeding time. On the other hand, von Willebrand’s disease is characterized by increased APTT levels, normal PT levels, and increased bleeding time. Lastly, vitamin K deficiency is characterized by increased APTT and PT levels, and normal bleeding time. Proper interpretation of these results is crucial in diagnosing and treating coagulation disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to his GP with complaints of fatigue and breathlessness upon exertion. During examination, no splenomegaly was observed. A peripheral smear revealed microcytic red blood cells with basophilic stippling. A bone marrow biopsy showed an increased uptake of Prussian blue. The patient's iron levels and transferrin saturation were high, while both mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin were low. Laboratory results showed a hemoglobin level of 95 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180 g/L), platelets of 200 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), and WBC of 7.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L). The patient's ferritin level was 300 ng/mL (normal range: 20-230 ng/mL), and his vitamin B12 level was 400 ng/L (normal range: 200-900 ng/L). What is the most likely disease that the patient is suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sideroblastic anaemia
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient is sideroblastic anaemia, which is characterized by hypochromic microcytic anaemia, high levels of ferritin iron and transferrin saturation, and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. This condition is caused by vitamin B6 deficiency due to frequent alcohol consumption, leading to abnormal heme production. The peripheral smear shows basophilic stippling of red blood cells, and there is iron overload causing iron deposition in the bone marrow, observed as increased staining with Prussian blue.
Anaemia of chronic disease, iron deficiency anaemia, and aplastic anaemia are incorrect diagnoses. Anaemia of chronic disease is usually normocytic normochromic and has significantly low levels of folate, B12, and iron while ferritin is high. Iron deficiency anaemia may be microcytic hypochromic, but serum iron, ferritin, and transferrin levels would be reduced. Aplastic anaemia presents with pancytopenia and is rarely found in the given age group.
Understanding Sideroblastic Anaemia
Sideroblastic anaemia is a medical condition that occurs when red blood cells fail to produce enough haem, which is partly synthesized in the mitochondria. This results in the accumulation of iron in the mitochondria, forming a ring around the nucleus known as a ring sideroblast. The condition can be either congenital or acquired.
The congenital cause of sideroblastic anaemia is delta-aminolevulinate synthase-2 deficiency. On the other hand, acquired causes include myelodysplasia, alcohol, lead, and anti-TB medications.
To diagnose sideroblastic anaemia, doctors may conduct a full blood count, iron studies, and a blood film. The results may show hypochromic microcytic anaemia, high ferritin, high iron, high transferrin saturation, and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. A bone marrow test may also be done, and Prussian blue staining can reveal ringed sideroblasts.
Management of sideroblastic anaemia is mainly supportive, and treatment focuses on addressing any underlying cause. Pyridoxine may also be prescribed to help manage the condition.
In summary, sideroblastic anaemia is a condition that affects the production of haem in red blood cells, leading to the accumulation of iron in the mitochondria. It can be congenital or acquired, and diagnosis involves various tests. Treatment is mainly supportive, and addressing any underlying cause is crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient presents with a pale complexion and a tendency to bruise easily. Upon consultation with their GP, a blood test is ordered.
WBC count: 6.0 x 109/L
Neutrophil count: 0.9 x 109/L
Which type of leukemia is typically linked to these blood test results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms of anaemia and low platelets, as evidenced by their pallor and bruising. Their blood tests indicate low levels of neutrophils, but normal levels of white cells. This suggests that there may be an issue with the patient’s common myeloid progenitor cells, as neutrophils, erythrocytes, and platelets all originate from this lineage. Therefore, options 1, 3, and 5 are incorrect, as they involve cancers that affect the lymphoid lineage. Acute myeloid leukaemia can cause low levels of myeloid cells due to a differentiation block, while chronic myeloid leukaemia can cause elevated neutrophil levels as it does not exhibit a differentiation block.
Haematopoiesis: The Generation of Immune Cells
Haematopoiesis is the process by which immune cells are produced from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. These stem cells give rise to two main types of progenitor cells: myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells. All immune cells are derived from these progenitor cells.
The myeloid progenitor cells generate cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.
This process is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system. Without haematopoiesis, the body would not be able to produce the necessary immune cells to fight off infections and diseases. Understanding haematopoiesis is crucial in developing treatments for diseases that affect the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A patient comes to the clinic with a few months of experiencing head fullness and vision deterioration. After undergoing various blood tests, all results appear normal except for an Hb level of 188 g/L. What is linked to primary polycythemia in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: JAK2 mutation
Explanation:JAK2 Mutation and Primary Polycythaemia
Polycythaemia is a condition characterized by an increase in the number of red blood cells in the body. In primary polycythaemia, over 95% of cases are associated with a mutation in the JAK2 pathway. This mutation causes the pathway to be constantly active, leading to the production of red blood cells even in the absence of erythropoietin (EPO). The most common mutation occurs in exon 12, affecting position V617F.
On the other hand, secondary causes of polycythaemia include COPD and smoking, which lower blood oxygenation and trigger the secretion of EPO by the kidney’s peritubular cells. ADPKD also promotes the secretion of increased EPO, resulting in the production and release of more red blood cells. Dehydration, on the other hand, reduces plasma volume, leading to an apparent/relative polycythaemia. While these factors can cause an increase in red blood cells, they are not associated with a primary haematological disorder like the JAK2 mutation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who has presented with new-onset urinary retention over the past 8 hours. She was previously diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and is currently undergoing chemotherapy treatment for this. She notes that prior to this, her urine had a reddish-tinge.
A 3-way catheter was inserted and blood-stained urine with clots was seen within the catheter bag. Urinalysis showed significant blood but no leukocytes or nitrites were seen. A cystoscopy performed did not show any masses and biopsies taken did not show any malignancy. It was felt that this was a likely side effect of one of these chemotherapy agents.
What is the underlying mechanism of action of the culprit chemotherapy agent?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Promotes cross-linking of DNA
Explanation:The chemotherapy regime R-CHOP, which is likely being used to manage the patient’s non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, includes cyclophosphamide, a drug that functions as an alkylating agent and promotes cross-linking of DNA. This can lead to haemorrhagic cystitis, which is likely the cause of the patient’s haematuria. Other drugs in the regime have different mechanisms of action, such as inhibition of microtubule formation with vincristine, inhibition of topoisomerase II and DNA/RNA synthesis with doxorubicin, and monoclonal antibody targeting of CD20 with rituximab. Pyrimidine analogues like 5-fluorouracil, which block thymidylate synthase and induce cell cycle arrest and apoptosis, are not commonly used in the management of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements relating to malignant mesothelioma is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is linked to cigarette smoking independent of asbestos exposure.
Explanation:This type of cancer is not associated with smoking cigarettes. The preferred treatment option is a complete removal of the tumor if caught early. Radiation therapy is commonly administered before or after surgery, but this type of cancer is not highly responsive to radiation. The most effective treatment involves a combination of chemotherapy drugs, with many regimens utilizing cisplatin.
Occupational cancers are responsible for 5.3% of cancer deaths, with men being more affected than women. The most common types of cancer in men include mesothelioma, bladder cancer, non-melanoma skin cancer, lung cancer, and sino-nasal cancer. Occupations that have a high risk of developing tumors include those in the construction industry, coal tar and pitch workers, miners, metalworkers, asbestos workers, and those in the rubber industry. Shift work has also been linked to breast cancer in women.
The latency period between exposure to carcinogens and the development of cancer is typically 15 years for solid tumors and 20 years for leukemia. Many occupational cancers are rare, such as sino-nasal cancer, which is linked to wood dust exposure and is not strongly associated with smoking. Another rare occupational tumor is angiosarcoma of the liver, which is linked to working with vinyl chloride. In non-occupational contexts, these tumors are extremely rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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This full blood count (FBC) was obtained on a 60-year-old female who presents with episodes of confusion, reports of visual hallucination and her neighbours say that she is withdrawn.
Hb 139 g/L
RBC 4.3 ×1012/L
Hct 0.415
MCV 98.5 fL
MCH 32.8 pg
Platelets 225 ×109/L
WBC 8.01 ×109/L
Neutrophils 4.67 ×109/L
Lymphocytes 2.63 ×109/L
Monocytes 0.22 ×109/L
Eosinophils 0.05 ×109/L
Basophils 0.04 ×109/L
Others 0.10 ×109/L
What is the most likely diagnosis based on the clinical history and full blood count results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol withdrawal
Explanation:Abnormalities on FBC and Possible Causes
The FBC shows a normal Hb but an elevated MCV, which could be indicative of alcohol abuse. This is further supported by the patient’s increased confusion and withdrawal, suggesting acute withdrawal. Alcohol is known to cause an increase in MCV, while other causes such as B12 and folate deficiencies would also result in anemia. However, hypothyroidism and hematological malignancies are also associated with high MCV, but they are not likely causes in this clinical picture. Overall, the FBC abnormalities and clinical presentation suggest alcohol abuse and acute withdrawal as the most probable cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Mr. Johnson is a 72-year-old man who was diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) 18 months ago. His disease has been stable, however he has now presented with fatigue and splenomegaly. His blood results are shown below.
Hb 85 g/dL
WCC 41 x 109 cells/L
Plts 210 x 109 cells/L
MCV 88 fl
Haptoglobin 115 mg/dL (30-200 mg/dL)
Direct Coombs test Positive
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
Explanation:CLL is linked to warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.
Complications of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It can lead to various complications, including anaemia, hypogammaglobulinaemia, and warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Patients with CLL may also experience recurrent infections due to their weakened immune system. However, one of the most severe complications of CLL is Richter’s transformation.
Richter’s transformation occurs when CLL cells transform into a high-grade, fast-growing non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. This transformation can happen when the leukaemia cells enter the lymph nodes. Patients with Richter’s transformation often become unwell very suddenly and may experience symptoms such as lymph node swelling, fever without infection, weight loss, night sweats, nausea, and abdominal pain.
It is essential for patients with CLL to be aware of the potential complications and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Regular check-ups and monitoring can also help detect any changes in the condition early on, allowing for prompt treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient presents to her GP with increasing muscular fatigue, mainly affecting the muscles of face. The fatigue is worse in the evenings or when using the muscle for prolonged periods. She also complains of diplopia and difficulty swallowing. On examination, she has a bilateral, partial ptosis. Tendon reflexes are normal. Her past medical history includes hypothyroidism and pernicious anaemia.
In which area of the mediastinum is the structure likely to have undergone hyperplasia in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior superior mediastinum
Explanation:The Thymus Gland: Development, Structure, and Function
The thymus gland is an encapsulated organ that develops from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches. It descends to the anterior superior mediastinum and is subdivided into lobules, each consisting of a cortex and a medulla. The cortex is made up of tightly packed lymphocytes, while the medulla is mostly composed of epithelial cells. Hassall’s corpuscles, which are concentrically arranged medullary epithelial cells that may surround a keratinized center, are also present.
The inferior parathyroid glands, which also develop from the third pharyngeal pouch, may be located with the thymus gland. The thymus gland’s arterial supply comes from the internal mammary artery or pericardiophrenic arteries, while its venous drainage is to the left brachiocephalic vein. The thymus gland plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T-cells, which are essential for the immune system’s proper functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man presents with a widespread maculopapular rash and fever after undergoing haematopoietic cell transplantation for multiple myeloma. The diagnosis is GVHD. What cell type is primarily responsible for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Donor T cells
Explanation:GVHD is a condition where T cells from the donor tissue (the graft) attack healthy cells in the recipient (the host). This can occur after a haematopoietic cell transplantation and is diagnosed based on symptoms such as fever, rash, and gastrointestinal issues. Antigen-presenting cells activate the donor T cells, but do not attack host cells. B cells, host T cells, and mast cells do not contribute to the attack on host tissue in GVHD.
Understanding Graft Versus Host Disease
Graft versus host disease (GVHD) is a complication that can occur after bone marrow or solid organ transplantation. It happens when the T cells in the donor tissue attack the recipient’s cells. This is different from transplant rejection, where the recipient’s immune cells attack the donor tissue. GVHD is diagnosed using the Billingham criteria, which require that the transplanted tissue contains functioning immune cells, the donor and recipient are immunologically different, and the recipient is immunocompromised.
The incidence of GVHD varies, but it can occur in up to 50% of patients who receive allogeneic bone marrow transplants. Risk factors include poorly matched donor and recipient, the type of conditioning used before transplantation, gender disparity between donor and recipient, and the source of the graft.
Acute and chronic GVHD are considered separate syndromes. Acute GVHD typically occurs within 100 days of transplantation and affects the skin, liver, and gastrointestinal tract. Chronic GVHD may occur after acute disease or arise de novo and has a more varied clinical picture.
Diagnosis of GVHD is largely clinical and based on the exclusion of other pathology. Signs and symptoms of acute GVHD include a painful rash, jaundice, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Chronic GVHD can affect the skin, eyes, gastrointestinal tract, and lungs.
Treatment of GVHD involves immunosuppression and supportive measures. Intravenous steroids are the mainstay of treatment for severe cases of acute GVHD, while extended courses of steroid therapy are often needed in chronic GVHD. Second-line therapies include anti-TNF, mTOR inhibitors, and extracorporeal photopheresis. Topical steroid therapy may be sufficient in mild disease with limited cutaneous involvement. However, excessive immunosuppression may increase the risk of infection and limit the beneficial graft-versus-tumor effect of the transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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