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  • Question 1 - Your practice nurse brings her 14-year-old daughter to see you.
    She has recently...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice nurse brings her 14-year-old daughter to see you.
      She has recently been seen by a child and adolescent psychiatrist, who has diagnosed mild to moderate depression. She is being seen again tomorrow and mother wants to talk through the treatment options with you.
      What is the first line treatment for mild to moderate depression in a 14-year-old?

      Your Answer: Watchful waiting for up to three months for spontaneous improvement to occur

      Correct Answer: Treatment with a tricyclic antidepressant alone

      Explanation:

      First Line Treatment for Psychological Disorders

      When it comes to treating psychological disorders, it is important to offer the right therapy as a first line treatment. According to experts, one of the following specific psychological therapies should be offered for at least three months: individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive behavioural therapy, or guided self-help. However, before starting any therapy, it is recommended to wait for up to four weeks and monitor the symptoms. This is known as watchful waiting. If the symptoms persist, then one of the psychological therapies mentioned above should be offered. By following this approach, patients can receive the most effective treatment for their psychological disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      165.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic with abdominal discomfort and bloody stools. She has been managing her condition with daily mesalamine 1 g. She has not undergone any previous surgeries.
      Upon further questioning, she reports experiencing colicky abdominal pain and passing bloody stools 8-10 times a day for the past three days.
      During the physical examination, her temperature is 37.8°C, pulse rate is 96 bpm, and blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg. The abdomen is tender to palpation but no masses or signs of peritonitis are present.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Increase his mesalazine dose and review in one week

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for inpatient management

      Explanation:

      Severity of Ulcerative Colitis and the Truelove-Witts Criteria

      Severe flare-ups of inflammatory bowel disease can lead to serious complications such as toxic megacolon, perforation, sepsis, and severe bleeding. Hospital admission and inpatient treatment are necessary in such cases. Severe ulcerative colitis is characterized by significant systemic upset and severe lower gastrointestinal symptoms. Blood investigations can provide further information on disease severity.

      The Truelove-Witts criteria are a validated way of stratifying disease severity. According to these criteria, acute severe ulcerative colitis is defined as bowels open more than six times daily plus one or more of the following: haemoglobin less than 105 g/L, ESR greater than 30 mm/hr, pulse rate greater than 90 bpm, and temperature greater than 37.8°C.

      If a patient presents with bloody diarrhea and systemic unwellness (fever and/or tachycardia), immediate hospital admission for in-patient assessment is necessary. Approximately half of severe ulcerative colitis attacks occur as a first attack in a patient without a previous diagnosis.

      Moderate disease is classified as four to six stools a day (with or without blood) with minimal systemic disturbance. Mild disease is classified as less than four stools a day (with or without blood) with no systemic unwellness (no fever or tachycardia) and a normal ESR.

      It is important to note that anti-diarrheal agents such as loperamide should be avoided as they have not been shown to reduce stool frequency in ulcerative colitis and have been associated with an increased risk of toxic megacolon. Studies from the 1950s show that untreated severe ulcerative colitis had a mortality rate of almost 25%, but with the use of corticosteroids and expert surgical input, this figure has been reduced to less than 1%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      113.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 62-year old male presents with dysphagia. His symptoms were first noticed a...

    Correct

    • A 62-year old male presents with dysphagia. His symptoms were first noticed a few months ago and have steadily worsened.
      Initially he found difficulty swallowing solids but over recent weeks has also been having difficulty swallowing liquids. In addition to his swallowing problems he has lost over a stone in weight.
      On examination, he looks thin and slightly pale.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal cancer

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for Dysphagia in a 60-Year-Old Patient

      There are several factors that may suggest a diagnosis of oesophageal cancer in a patient in their 60s who presents with dysphagia. The gradual difficulty in swallowing solids and then liquids is a common symptom as the cancer grows and obstructs the oesophagus. Weight loss and pallor are also frequently observed due to cachexia and anaemia.

      Achalasia, on the other hand, is a condition characterized by abnormal peristalsis and lack of lower oesophageal sphincter relaxation. It is most common in the third to fifth decades and presents with intermittent dysphagia, which is more pronounced for solids than liquids. Oesophageal cancer, however, tends to cause a more rapid and progressive dysphagia.

      Chagas’ disease, caused by Trypanosoma cruzi spread by reduviid bugs, is not commonly seen in the United Kingdom but can cause a clinical picture similar to achalasia when it affects the oesophagus. GORD can also result in oesophageal stricture and dysphagia, but this is usually due to chronic reflux, and the history is relatively short. Finally, a pharyngeal pouch typically presents with dysphagia, halitosis, a neck lump, and regurgitation of undigested food.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You encounter a 30-year-old mother of two who is experiencing recurrent Meniere's disease....

    Correct

    • You encounter a 30-year-old mother of two who is experiencing recurrent Meniere's disease. She has been suffering from tinnitus and mild hearing loss on the right side for nearly 2 years. Every 2 months, she has an episode of vertigo accompanied by nausea and vomiting, which lasts up to 7 days and causes her significant distress. While under the care of the ENT team, she is curious about any available treatments to prevent Meniere's disease attacks.

      What would be your initial recommendation?

      Your Answer: Betahistine

      Explanation:

      To prevent recurrent attacks of Meniere’s disease, doctors often prescribe betahistine. While prochlorperazine and promethazine teoclate can be used to treat acute attacks, they are not effective in preventing them. Betahistine, taken at an initial dose of 16 mg three times a day, can help reduce the frequency and severity of symptoms such as hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. Diuretics are not recommended for treating Meniere’s disease in primary care. Although some other drugs, such as corticosteroids, have been used historically to treat Meniere’s disease, there is limited evidence to support their use and they should only be used under the supervision of an ENT specialist.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      266.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of fever, dysuria, suprapubic pain,...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of fever, dysuria, suprapubic pain, and increased frequency of micturition. This is happening 14 days after finishing antibiotic treatment for an Escherichia coli (E coli) urinary-tract infection (UTI). She is currently using condoms for contraception. Urine culture reveals the presence of the same E coli. She has no history of recurrent UTIs and is in good health otherwise.
      What is the most likely cause of her persistent symptoms?

      Your Answer: Silent pyelonephritis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of recurrent UTI in a young woman

      Recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a common problem in women, but their underlying causes can vary. In this case, the patient presents with symptoms suggestive of cystitis, but her urine culture is positive for the same organism despite completing a course of antibiotics. This raises the possibility of silent pyelonephritis, a condition in which the kidney is infected but there are no overt signs of inflammation. Other potential diagnoses to consider include interstitial cystitis, atrophic vaginitis, chlamydial urethritis, and use of spermicidal jelly. Each of these conditions has distinct features that can help guide further evaluation and management. For example, interstitial cystitis is characterized by sterile urine cultures and chronic pelvic pain, while atrophic vaginitis is more common in postmenopausal women and can cause recurrent UTIs due to changes in vaginal flora. Chlamydial urethritis may be suspected if there is a history of unprotected sexual activity, and a mid-stream urine culture would be negative. Finally, the use of spermicidal jelly can increase the risk of UTIs, but this is usually due to re-infection rather than relapse. Overall, a careful history and physical examination, along with appropriate laboratory tests, can help narrow down the differential diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      524.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You see a 6-month-old baby girl who has been crying and pulling her...

    Correct

    • You see a 6-month-old baby girl who has been crying and pulling her legs up as if she is in pain. She has had some loose stools and has vomited twice today.
      Her mother says that the last stool looked rather red as if there was blood in it. She looks pale and distressed.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception: A Common Cause of Intestinal Obstruction in Children

      Intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in children aged 5 months to 3 years, accounting for up to 25% of abdominal emergencies in children up to age 5. It occurs when one segment of the bowel invaginates into another just distal to it, leading to obstruction. This condition is more common in boys than girls, with a ratio of approximately 3:2, and two-thirds of patients are under 1-year-old, with the peak age being between 5-10 months.

      The clinical features of intussusception include sudden onset of paroxysms of colicky abdominal pain, which may be more insidious in older children. The pain occurs about every 10-20 minutes and is often accompanied by crying. Patients may appear well between paroxysms initially, but early vomiting can rapidly become bile-stained. Neurological symptoms such as lethargy, hypotonia, or sudden alterations of consciousness can also occur.

      Other features of intussusception include a palpable ‘sausage-shaped’ mass, often in the right upper quadrant, and absence of bowel in the right lower quadrant (Dance’s sign). Patients may also experience dehydration, pallor, shock, irritability, sweating, and later mucoid and bloody ‘red currant stools’. Late pyrexia may also occur.

      In summary, intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in children, with a range of clinical features that can help diagnose the condition. Early recognition and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      134.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 6-month-old boy is scheduled for his routine immunisations. He has received all...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy is scheduled for his routine immunisations. He has received all previous immunisations according to the routine schedule and has no medical history. What vaccinations should he receive during this visit?

      Your Answer: '6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) + PCV

      Correct Answer: '6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) + Men B

      Explanation:

      PCV in addition to the 6-1 vaccine (which includes protection against diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib, and hepatitis B).

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      100.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 58-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a follow-up on her Antihypertensive...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a follow-up on her Antihypertensive medication. She is currently prescribed bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily and atenolol 50 mg daily for her hypertension, and atorvastatin for her dyslipidaemia. She also has a history of gout. What is a commonly known side effect of bendroflumethiazide?

      Your Answer: Hypouricaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Thiazides: Risks and Adverse Effects

      Thiazides are a type of medication commonly used to treat high blood pressure and edema. However, they are associated with several adverse effects. One of the most common is metabolic alkalosis, which occurs when the body’s pH becomes too alkaline. Thiazides can also cause hypokalaemia, a condition where there is a low level of potassium in the blood, and hypercalcaemia, where there is too much calcium in the blood.

      Another potential risk of thiazides is an increase in insulin resistance, which can lead to type 2 diabetes. Meta-analyses have shown that combining thiazides with beta-blockers may further increase this risk. Additionally, thiazides are known to precipitate gout, a painful form of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints.

      Hypertriglyceridaemia, a condition where there are high levels of triglycerides in the blood, is also associated with hyperuricaemia, which is an excess of uric acid in the blood. Thiazides can exacerbate this condition, leading to an increased risk of gout. It is important to be aware of these potential risks and to discuss them with a healthcare provider before starting thiazide therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      130.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 63-year-old woman presents with a painful swollen left calf. She recently returned...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents with a painful swollen left calf. She recently returned from a walking holiday in Austria where she walked up to 10 miles a day. There is no history of venous thromboembolism. On examination, the left calf is 4 cm larger than the right with tenderness and mild pitting oedema. Non-varicose superficial collateral veins are present. The right calf is normal. What is the correct diagnostic reasoning and management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: A DVT is unlikely, reassure the patient that no further investigation is required

      Correct Answer: A DVT is likely, refer for a proximal leg vein ultrasound to be carried out within four hours

      Explanation:

      Two-Level DVT Wells Score for Assessing Probability of DVT

      When assessing the probability of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a two-level DVT Wells score should be used. This score takes into account various factors and findings, such as cancer, recent immobilization, leg swelling, and tenderness. One point is given for each of these factors, and two points can be subtracted if another diagnosis is more likely.

      If the score is two points or more, it is likely that the patient has a DVT and a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be performed within four hours. If the scan cannot be carried out within four hours, a parenteral anticoagulant should be given and the scan arranged within 24 hours.

      If the score is one point or less, D-dimer testing should be performed. A positive result should be followed up with a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan within four hours, and a negative result should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

      In the case of the patient described, she scores at least two points, making a DVT likely. Therefore, she should be referred for a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan to be performed within four hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      6442.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 59-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a lump on her upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a lump on her upper eyelid that she has noticed recently. The lump is not causing any discomfort. Upon examination, a 6mm firm lump is observed that distorts the eyelid margin and causes loss of eyelashes. The lump appears to be slightly ulcerated. What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Advise gentle massage of the lump

      Correct Answer: Arrange a 2 week referral

      Explanation:

      A possible meibomian cyst is suggested by the patient’s history. These cysts typically develop slowly over several weeks, resulting in a firm, localized swelling of the eyelid. While there may be initial discomfort, pain and tenderness are usually absent. Meibomian cysts are most commonly found on the upper eyelid and are typically 2-8 mm in diameter.

      When the eyelid is turned inside out, a meibomian cyst appears as a distinct, immobile, circular, yellowish lump (lipogranuloma). In the acute phase, it may appear inflamed, tender, and red. The skin overlying the cyst is usually normal and freely movable, while the meibomian cyst itself adheres to the tarsal plate. There should be no associated ulceration, bleeding, telangiectasia, or discharge.

      Warm compresses and massage are the first-line treatments for meibomian cysts. Topical or oral antibiotics should not be used.

      If a malignant eyelid tumor is suspected, such as if the meibomian cyst has an unusual appearance (such as distortion of the eyelid margin, loss of eyelashes, ulceration, or bleeding) or if a suspected meibomian cyst recurs in the same location, NICE recommends arranging a 2-week wait referral. As a result, the correct answer is a 2-week referral.

      Source: CKS

      According to the April 2016 feedback report, candidates should be familiar with the presentation and management of common eye conditions, as well as less common eye conditions that require urgent attention.

      Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues such as blepharitis, styes, chalazions, entropion, and ectropion. Blepharitis is an inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Styes are infections that occur in the glands of the eyelids, with external styes affecting the sebum-producing glands and internal styes affecting the Meibomian glands. Chalazions, also known as Meibomian cysts, are retention cysts that present as painless lumps in the eyelid. While most cases of chalazions resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.

      When it comes to managing styes, there are different types to consider. External styes are usually caused by a staphylococcal infection in the glands of Zeis or Moll, while internal styes are caused by an infection in the Meibomian glands. Treatment typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only recommended if there is an associated conjunctivitis.

      Overall, eyelid problems can be uncomfortable and even painful, but with proper management and treatment, they can be resolved effectively. It’s important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      72.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following statements regarding appraisal is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding appraisal is incorrect?

      Your Answer: The appraiser may be a non-principal

      Correct Answer: A different appraiser should conduct the appraisal each year

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Appraisal for GPs

      Appraisal is a crucial process that has been mandatory for GPs since 2002. Its primary purpose is to identify areas for development rather than performance management. With the introduction of revalidation by the GMC, appraisals have become even more important as they provide a structured system for recording progress towards revalidation and identifying development needs.

      After the Primary Care Trusts were disbanded, NHS England took on the responsibility for appraisals. The appraiser should be another GP who has been properly trained in appraisal. It is recommended that a doctor should have no more than three consecutive appraisals by the same appraiser in the same revalidation cycle. The average time commitment for appraisal is a minimum of 4.5 to 6.5 hours, including between 2 and 4 hours for preparation.

      The content of appraisal is based on the 4 key domains set out in the GMC’s Good Medical Practice document. These domains include knowledge, skills, and performance, contributing and complying with systems to protect patients, communication, partnership, and teamwork, and maintaining trust. It is essential for GPs to participate in appraisal regularly to ensure they are providing the best possible care to their patients and maintaining their professional standards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      7667.9
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  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most suitable test to diagnose bile acid malabsorption?

      Your Answer: SeHCAT (tauroselcholic [75 selenium] acid) test

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bile Acid Malabsorption and Coeliac Disease

      Bile acids play a crucial role in the absorption of lipids, and their malabsorption can lead to gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, bloating, and faecal incontinence. Bile acid malabsorption can be classified into three types, with primary idiopathic malabsorption being particularly common in patients with irritable bowel syndrome. Crohn’s disease and certain surgeries or diseases can also cause bile acid malabsorption.

      The SeHCAT test is a diagnostic tool that tracks the retention and loss of bile acids through the enterohepatic circulation. A capsule containing radiolabeled 75 SeHCAT is ingested, and the percentage retention of SeHCAT at seven days is calculated. A value less than 15% indicates excessive bile acid loss and suggests bile acid malabsorption.

      Faecal fat estimation is a standard test for malabsorption, but it is not specific for bile acids. Anti-transglutaminase antibodies are found in coeliac disease, and higher levels of these antibodies suggest a diagnosis of that condition. Small bowel biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease. The urea breath test is a rapid diagnostic procedure used in retesting for infections by Helicobacter pylori, which requires the triple-therapy regimen for treatment.

      In summary, the SeHCAT test, faecal fat estimation, anti-transglutaminase antibodies, small bowel biopsy, and urea breath test are all diagnostic tools that can aid in the diagnosis of bile acid malabsorption and coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - As the on-call physician, you encounter a patient in their early 50s who...

    Incorrect

    • As the on-call physician, you encounter a patient in their early 50s who has been experiencing a painful erection for the past 6 hours. The patient had taken sildenafil, a phosphodiesterase (PDE-5) inhibitor, the previous night. The patient was diagnosed with myeloma 4 months ago and is currently undergoing treatment under the haematology team.

      What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: 300 mg aspirin

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to the surgical team

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences priapism, urgent assessment in a hospital is necessary. While priapism is a rare side effect of taking PDE-5 inhibitors, patients with blood disorders such as sickle cell disease, multiple myeloma, or leukemia are at an increased risk.

      Priapism is considered a surgical emergency, and if it lasts for more than two hours, immediate referral to a hospital’s surgical team is required for treatment.

      If the priapism has been present for less than two hours, some measures may help resolve it. These include attempting to pass urine, taking a warm bath or shower, drinking plenty of water, going for a gentle walk, doing exercises like squats or running on the spot, and taking painkillers like paracetamol if necessary.

      Priapism is a condition where a man experiences a prolonged erection that lasts for more than 4 hours and is not related to sexual stimulation. There are two types of priapism: ischaemic and non-ischaemic. Ischaemic priapism is caused by reduced blood flow to the penis, while non-ischaemic priapism is caused by increased blood flow. Priapism can be caused by a variety of factors, including medication, trauma, and underlying medical conditions such as sickle cell disease. Symptoms include pain and a persistent erection. Diagnosis is made through clinical examination and tests such as blood gas analysis and ultrasonography. Treatment for ischaemic priapism involves aspiration of blood from the penis, injection of a saline flush, and vasoconstrictive agents. Non-ischaemic priapism is typically observed. It is important to seek medical attention promptly as untreated priapism can lead to permanent tissue damage and long-term erectile dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      271.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old woman presented with episodic impairment of consciousness.

    Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presented with episodic impairment of consciousness.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Chronic sub-dural haematoma

      Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      Fluctuating Level of Consciousness in Elderly Patients

      When presented with an elderly patient exhibiting fluctuating levels of consciousness, it is important to consider various potential causes. Alzheimer’s disease, normal pressure hydrocephalus, Creutzfeldt-Jacob, and depression can all lead to dementia or apparent dementia, but typically do not result in fluctuating levels of consciousness. However, chronic subdural hematoma is a condition that can be associated with such fluctuations. In the absence of neurological signs, this diagnosis may be the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. It is important to carefully consider all potential causes and conduct appropriate diagnostic tests to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      423.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 12-year-old girl has been excluded from school because of her conduct. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl has been excluded from school because of her conduct. Her mother wonders if a psychological problem might explain her behaviour. What is conduct disorder and how might it be related to the girl's behaviour?

      Your Answer: Criminal behaviour is not a feature

      Correct Answer: It may be associated with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Conduct Disorder: Characteristics and Prevalence

      Conduct disorder (CD) is a behavioral disorder that is characterized by aggressive, antisocial, and defiant behavior in children. Children with CD exhibit behaviors such as physical cruelty, destructiveness, lying, stealing, and truancy. To be diagnosed with CD, a child must exhibit at least three of these characteristics over the past year, with at least one in the last six months.

      CD can be classified into two types: early-onset CD, which occurs before the age of 10 and is less common, and adolescent-onset CD, which is more common and may be associated with ADHD. A UK government report found that 5% of children aged 5-15 years had conduct disorder, and 1% had ADHD/hyperkinetic disorder. The male to female ratio is 3:1.

      The severity of CD depends on the number of problems the child has and the effect on others. Children with CD may exhibit persistent antisocial behavior, and temper tantrums are common. Stealing, assault, and destruction of property can lead to legal consequences for the child.

      In conclusion, understanding the characteristics and prevalence of conduct disorder is crucial in identifying and addressing this behavioral disorder in children. Early intervention and treatment can help improve outcomes for children with CD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      84.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - How should the medication 'methotrexate 15 mg weekly' be entered on the repeat...

    Incorrect

    • How should the medication 'methotrexate 15 mg weekly' be entered on the repeat medication screen for a patient who was previously taking a lower dose and has completed all necessary monitoring as per shared care protocol, based on a letter received from the rheumatology department of the local hospital?

      Your Answer: Any of the above options would be appropriate

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate tablets 2.5 mg (six per week)

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate Dosage Policy

      Methotrexate is only available in 10 mg and 2.5 mg strengths, with no 5 mg formulation. However, there have been cases where two different strengths were co-prescribed, leading to potential medication errors. One patient received 10 mg tablets instead of the required 2.5 mg tablets, prompting a complaint and highlighting the need for caution. To prevent such incidents, it is recommended that only one strength of methotrexate is prescribed.

      Most Local Health Boards (LHBs) and Primary Care Trusts (PCTs) advise that dosages in primary care should be multiples of the 2.5 mg formulation. This policy aims to reduce the risk of errors and ensure consistent dosing. Patients should also be advised to double-check their prescription and request slips to avoid confusion. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure safe and effective use of methotrexate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      105.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about feeling anxious after giving...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about feeling anxious after giving birth to her daughter last week. Despite her usual loss of appetite when anxious, she reports eating well. While she was excited about her daughter's arrival during pregnancy, she now experiences frequent unhappiness and irritability. She expresses worry about motherhood and a lack of enthusiasm for it.

      What is the optimal approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale before referring to psychiatry

      Correct Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      Mothers experiencing the ‘baby blues’ typically require reassurance, support, and follow-up. This is the correct answer as ‘baby blues’ is a common condition among mothers in the postnatal period, usually starting a week after childbirth and lasting only a few days. It is normal for mothers to feel emotional, anxious, tearful, and low after giving birth due to sudden hormonal changes. Reassurance is usually sufficient to manage this condition.

      Cognitive behavioural therapy and starting sertraline are incorrect options as they are suitable for patients with postnatal depression, which tends to start within 1-3 months post-delivery. Symptoms of postnatal depression include those of baby blues, but with additional symptoms such as lack of sleep, appetite changes, anhedonia, and thoughts of hurting themselves and their baby. Symptoms may also come on more gradually and last for a long time. However, in this vignette, the patient only describes feelings related to low mood and anxiety that set in a week after giving birth, making a diagnosis of postnatal depression unlikely.

      Referring to psychiatry is also an incorrect option as it is necessary only for severe circumstances where the patient has severe mental health impairment and poses a risk to themselves or others. This vignette suggests that the patient has baby blues, so reassurance would be the most appropriate option.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      99.1
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  • Question 18 - A 58-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria. She is a heavy smoker and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria. She is a heavy smoker and has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She previously lived in Australia and has used substantial amounts of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis and also phenacetin some years ago. Renal function testing is normal. She has a raised plasma viscosity and is anaemic with a haemoglobin of 100 g/l (115-155).
      Select the most likely diagnosis to fit with this clinical picture.

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Correct Answer: Transitional-cell carcinoma of the bladder

      Explanation:

      Bladder Cancer: Risk Factors, Presentation, and Survival Rates

      Bladder cancer is a relatively uncommon malignancy, accounting for around 3% of cancer deaths. It is more prevalent in males, with a male to female ratio of 4:1, and is rare in individuals under 40 years of age. The most common type of bladder cancer is transitional-cell carcinoma.

      Several risk factors have been identified, including smoking, exposure to certain chemicals found in industrial settings, and the use of certain medications such as phenacetin and cyclophosphamide. Chronic inflammation caused by conditions such as schistosomiasis, indwelling catheters, or stones is associated with squamous-cell carcinoma of the bladder.

      The most common presentation of bladder cancer is painless hematuria (blood in the urine), although pain may occur due to clot retention. Women are more likely to have muscle-invasive disease at presentation.

      The 5-year survival rate for bladder cancer varies depending on the stage of the disease at diagnosis. Patients with small, early superficial tumors have a survival rate of 80-90%, while those with metastases at presentation have a survival rate of only 5%.

      In conclusion, bladder cancer is a serious condition that can be caused by a variety of factors. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving survival rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      388.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 22-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking advice on delaying her menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking advice on delaying her menstrual cycle for a week during her upcoming travels. She doesn't smoke, has no risk factors for venous thromboembolism, and has no history of heart disease or breast cancer. She is currently using only barrier contraception.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Offer tranexamic acid 1g three times a day for up to 4 days

      Correct Answer: Offer norethisterone to be taken 3 days before the onset of periods until her return, advising the patient it will not act as contraception

      Explanation:

      To delay their periods, women who are not on the combined hormonal contraceptive pill can take norethisterone 5 mg three times a day, starting three days before their expected period. It is important to note that this method doesn’t provide contraception, and additional contraception should be used. It is not necessary to take norethisterone seven days before the expected period. The progestogen-only pill, tranexamic acid, and copper intra-uterine device are not recommended for period delay. Tranexamic acid may be used for heavy periods.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium undergoes proliferation. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol. When the egg has matured, it secretes enough oestradiol to trigger the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which leads to ovulation.

      During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which causes the endometrium to change to a secretory lining. If fertilization doesn’t occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall. Oestradiol levels also rise again during the luteal phase. Cervical mucous thickens and forms a plug across the external os following menstruation. Just prior to ovulation, the mucous becomes clear, acellular, low viscosity, and stretchy. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky. Basal body temperature falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the phases of the menstrual cycle is important for women’s health and fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP to inquire about screening for haemochromatosis, as...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP to inquire about screening for haemochromatosis, as his brother was diagnosed with the condition 3 years ago. The patient is asymptomatic and appears to have no signs of haemochromatosis. What is the most suitable test to conduct?

      Your Answer: Serum total iron-binding capacity

      Correct Answer: HFE gene analysis

      Explanation:

      When screening for haemochromatosis, the general population should undergo a transferrin saturation test, which involves checking the level of iron in the blood compared to the amount of transferrin. However, if the patient has a family member with haemochromatosis, the most appropriate test would be a genetic analysis of the HFE gene. In practice, this would be done in conjunction with iron studies.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      241.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 15-year-old girl, with Down's syndrome, has complained of neck pain. The pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl, with Down's syndrome, has complained of neck pain. The pain began after she fell while playing basketball. Her parents have noticed that she has been experiencing more falls lately.
      During the examination, she displays tenderness throughout her neck muscles and limited neck mobility.

      What is the MOST SUITABLE course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Refer to physiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Refer to on-call orthopaedic spinal team

      Explanation:

      Warning Signs of Craniovertebral Instability in Down’s Syndrome

      Warning signs of craniovertebral instability or myelopathy in individuals with Down’s syndrome include neck pain, abnormal head posture, reduced neck movements, deterioration of gait, increased frequency of falls, and deterioration of manipulative skills. While the term atlantoaxial instability is sometimes used, occipitoatlantal subluxation is also a concern, making craniovertebral instability the preferred term.

      Cervical spine x-rays are often unreliable, and primary care referrals can result in delays in reporting. Therefore, any clinical abnormality should be enough to warrant a referral to a specialist team. While neck exercises, simple analgesia, and physiotherapy may be helpful in cases of muscular neck pain, it is important to rule out craniovertebral instability first. Early detection and intervention can prevent further complications and improve outcomes for individuals with Down’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      572.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 56-year-old man collapses in the hospital during a nurse-led hypertension clinic. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man collapses in the hospital during a nurse-led hypertension clinic. He is unresponsive and has no pulse in his carotid artery. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?

      Your Answer: 5:01

      Correct Answer: 30:02:00

      Explanation:

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest. Patients are divided into those with ‘shockable’ rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia) and ‘non-shockable’ rhythms (asystole/pulseless-electrical activity). Key points include the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation (30:2), continuing chest compressions while a defibrillator is charged, and delivering drugs via IV access or the intraosseous route. Adrenaline and amiodarone are recommended for non-shockable rhythms and VF/pulseless VT, respectively. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Following successful resuscitation, oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98%. The ‘Hs’ and ‘Ts’ outline reversible causes of cardiac arrest, including hypoxia, hypovolaemia, and thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      276.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which one of the following statements regarding dysmenorrhoea is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding dysmenorrhoea is accurate?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis is a cause of primary dysmenorrhoea

      Correct Answer: The pain of secondary dysmenorrhoea typically develops 3-4 days before the onset of the period

      Explanation:

      The approach to managing secondary dysmenorrhoea varies depending on the root cause.

      Understanding Dysmenorrhoea

      Dysmenorrhoea is a medical condition that is characterized by excessive pain during the menstrual period. It is classified into two types: primary and secondary dysmenorrhoea. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche. It is caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. The pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting and is felt as suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, while combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line.

      On the other hand, secondary dysmenorrhoea typically develops many years after the menarche and is the result of an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but normal copper coils may worsen the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      229.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is seen.

      Her spirometry shows an FEV1 of 42% predicted with an FEV1:FVC ratio of 64%. Her current treatment consists of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) used as required which was started when a clinical diagnosis was made two to three months ago prior to her having had the spirometry performed. A chest x Ray was normal and she gave up cigarettes a few weeks ago. Her home peak flow measurments show a 30% diurnal variation.

      On reviewing her symptoms she needs to use the SABA at least four times a day and despite this still feels persistently breathless. In addition, she tells you that over the last few years she gets attacks of 'bronchitis' two to three times a year. You can see from her notes that she has received at least two courses of antibiotics each year for the last three years for acute episodes of productive cough and shortness of breath.

      Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in her pharmacological management?

      Your Answer: Add in a regular ICS

      Correct Answer: Add in a LABA and ICS in a combination inhaler

      Explanation:

      Management of COPD with Persistent Breathlessness

      Patients with COPD who experience persistent breathlessness despite regular SABA use require additional inhaled treatment to improve symptom control and prevent exacerbations. Spirometry results confirming an obstructive picture, frequent exacerbations, and an FEV1 of less than 50% are useful in determining the next step in management.

      The two options for add-on inhaled treatment are a LABA+ICS combination inhaler or a LAMA. The choice depends on the presence of asthmatic features, such as a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher eosinophil count, substantial variation on FEV1 over time, or a substantial diurnal variation in peak flow. If asthmatic features are present, a LABA & ICS combination inhaler is preferred.

      Adding a regular ICS on its own has no role in the COPD treatment ladder, while a regular SAMA can be used instead of a SABA but is not an option for add-in treatment. Adding a LABA may improve symptoms, but the combination of ICS/LABA is more beneficial for patients with a history of frequent exacerbations.

      In addition to inhaled treatment, it may be necessary to issue an emergency supply of antibiotics and oral steroids for patients with persistent breathlessness and frequent exacerbations. For more information on managing stable COPD, refer to the NICE Visual Summary guide and NICE NG115 guidelines.

      Overall, the management of COPD with persistent breathlessness requires a tailored approach based on individual patient characteristics and the presence of asthmatic features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      78.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old woman with menstrual migraines presents for evaluation. She experiences a severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with menstrual migraines presents for evaluation. She experiences a severe headache every month just before the onset of her period. According to NICE, what is recommended to prevent the development of these headaches?

      Your Answer: Pizotifen (1.5mg od) on the days around the start of menstruation

      Correct Answer: Frovatriptan (2.5 mg twice a day) on the days around the start of menstruation

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      324.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 80-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping and asks for medication to aid his insomnia. The doctor prescribes a brief course of zopiclone.

      What is one of the potential risks of administering zopiclone to elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of falls

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients taking zopiclone are at an increased risk of falling.

      Zopiclone works by binding to GABA-containing receptors, which enhances the effects of GABA and produces both the desired and undesired effects of the drug. Its mechanism of action is similar to that of benzodiazepines.

      Some of the side effects of zopiclone include agitation, dry mouth, constipation, dizziness, decreased muscle tone, and a bitter taste in the mouth. Elderly patients are particularly susceptible to falls when taking zopiclone.

      While diarrhoea is not a known side effect of zopiclone, withdrawal from the drug may cause convulsions, tremors, and hyperventilation.

      Understanding Z Drugs

      Z drugs are a class of medications that have comparable effects to benzodiazepines but differ in their chemical structure. They work by targeting the α2-subunit of the GABA receptor. Z drugs can be categorized into three groups: imidazopyridines, cyclopyrrolones, and pyrazolopyrimidines. Examples of these drugs include zolpidem, zopiclone, and zaleplon, respectively.

      Like benzodiazepines, Z drugs can cause similar adverse effects. Additionally, they can increase the risk of falls in older adults. It is important to understand the potential risks and benefits of these medications before use and to follow the prescribed dosage and instructions carefully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old female attends the diabetic annual review clinic.

    Her body mass index has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female attends the diabetic annual review clinic.

      Her body mass index has increased over the year to 33.3 kg/m2.

      How do you calculate body mass index?

      Your Answer: Weight/√ Height

      Correct Answer: Weight/(Height)2

      Explanation:

      Understanding BMI and its Implications

      Body:

      BMI, or Body Mass Index, is a crucial calculation in the field of anthropometry. It is determined by dividing an individual’s weight by the square of their height, and is measured in kg/m2. The resulting number can be used to categorize a person’s weight status into four groups: underweight (less than 18.5), normal (18.5-24.9), overweight (25-29.9), and obese (greater than 30).

      It is important to note that a BMI above 30 is considered obese and can have serious implications for an individual’s health. Studies have shown that obesity is linked to an increased risk of developing diabetes, cancer, osteoarthritis, and depression. Additionally, obesity can increase the risk of surgical complications, such as wound infection and dehiscence, venous thrombolembolism, incisional hernia, MI, and even death.

      Therefore, understanding BMI and its implications is crucial for maintaining good health and preventing potential health risks. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine an appropriate BMI range for an individual’s unique needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      68.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a history of fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a history of fever, chills and a headache after returning from a trip to Sub-Saharan Africa. Past data shows that 70% of patients with these symptoms and a travel history to this region have Malaria. The calculated likelihood for a negative test result is 0.1.

      What is the significance of this result?

      Your Answer: There is a 0.1 fold decrease in the odds of the patient having malaria with a negative test result

      Correct Answer: There is a 10 fold decrease in the odds of the patient having malaria with a negative test result

      Explanation:

      When a test result is negative, the likelihood ratio measures how much the odds of having the disease decrease. This ratio is used to determine the likelihood of a patient having a particular condition or disease. A higher likelihood ratio indicates a greater likelihood of having the condition, while a lower likelihood ratio suggests that the patient is less likely to have the condition. The negative likelihood ratio specifically measures the change in odds for patients with a negative test result. Conversely, the positive likelihood ratio measures the change in odds for patients with a positive test result.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      165.2
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  • Question 29 - What is the tendon involved in de Quervain's tenosynovitis/tenovaginitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the tendon involved in de Quervain's tenosynovitis/tenovaginitis?

      Your Answer: Extensor digitorum

      Correct Answer: Adductor pollicis

      Explanation:

      De Quervain’s Disease: How to Examine and Test for it

      De Quervain’s disease is a condition where the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed and thickened. To examine a patient with this condition, one can perform a Finkelstein’s test. This test involves the patient making a fist with their thumb tucked inside their fingers, and then bending their wrist towards their little finger. If the patient experiences pain on the thumb side of their wrist, it is likely that they have De Quervain’s tenosynovitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      82.8
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  • Question 30 - What is the term used to describe a worldwide flu outbreak? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a worldwide flu outbreak?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pandemic

      Explanation:

      Key Terms in Epidemiology

      Epidemiology is the study of the distribution and determinants of health and disease in populations. In this field, there are several key terms that are important to understand. An epidemic, also known as an outbreak, occurs when there is an increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is expected in a given population over a specific time period. On the other hand, an endemic refers to the usual or expected level of disease in a particular population. Finally, a pandemic is a type of epidemic that affects a large number of people across multiple countries, continents, or regions. Understanding these terms is crucial for epidemiologists to identify and respond to disease outbreaks and pandemics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Mental Health (1/3) 33%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (2/3) 67%
Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Consulting In General Practice (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/3) 33%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/2) 100%
Genomic Medicine (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/2) 50%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Passmed