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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with confused speech and weakness on the right side. During the examination, you observe weakness in the right upper limb, but no sensory loss. The patient appears perplexed when answering questions, and her speech is incoherent and nonsensical. What region of the brain is responsible for receptive dysphasia?
Your Answer: Primary sensory cortex
Correct Answer: Wernicke's area
Explanation:Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.
In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true about endothelin?
Your Answer: It is a potent vasodilator
Correct Answer: Endothelin antagonists are useful in primary pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Antagonists are used in primary pulmonary hypertension because endothelin induced constriction of the pulmonary blood vessels.
Understanding Endothelin and Its Role in Various Diseases
Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by the vascular endothelium. Initially, it is produced as a prohormone and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme. Endothelin interacts with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C, leading to calcium release. This interaction is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases, including primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.
Endothelin is known to promote the release of angiotensin II, ADH, hypoxia, and mechanical shearing forces. On the other hand, it inhibits the release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin. Raised levels of endothelin are observed in primary pulmonary hypertension, myocardial infarction, heart failure, acute kidney injury, and asthma.
In recent years, endothelin antagonists have been used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension. Understanding the role of endothelin in various diseases can help in the development of new treatments and therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of worsening breathlessness in the past 6 months. She has been smoking 10 cigarettes a day for the last 40 years. The doctor suspects that she may have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What is one of the mechanisms by which smoking damages the lungs and leads to emphysema?
Your Answer: Inactivation of polymorphonuclear leucocytes
Correct Answer: Inactivation of alpha-1 antitrypsin
Explanation:The function of alpha-1 antitrypsin is to inhibit elastase. However, smoke has a negative impact on this protein in the lungs, resulting in increased activity of elastases and the breakdown of elastic tissue, which leads to emphysema.
Contrary to popular belief, smoke actually activates polymorphonuclear leucocytes, which contributes to the development of emphysema.
Mucous gland hyperplasia, basal cell metaplasia, and basement membrane thickening are all examples of how smoke affects the lungs to cause chronic bronchitis, not emphysema.
COPD, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, can be caused by a variety of factors. The most common cause is smoking, which can lead to inflammation and damage in the lungs over time. Another potential cause is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic condition that can result in lung damage. Additionally, exposure to certain substances such as cadmium (used in smelting), coal, cotton, cement, and grain can also contribute to the development of COPD. It is important to identify and address these underlying causes in order to effectively manage and treat COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 4
Correct
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As per conventional methods, which of the following is deemed to be the most superior level of evidence?
Your Answer: RCTs with non-definitive results
Explanation:Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine
In order to evaluate the quality of evidence in evidence-based medicine, levels or grades are often used to organize the evidence. Traditional hierarchies placed systematic reviews or randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each. On the other hand, the GRADE system is a grading approach that classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, or very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical or important, and the evidence is gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence. Evidence can be promoted or downgraded based on certain circumstances. The use of levels and grades of evidence helps to evaluate the quality of evidence and make informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 5
Correct
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You have been summoned to attend to a patient on your ward due to concerns about his breathing and possible deterioration. The patient is 78 years old. He is only responsive to pain and his breathing rate is 6 breaths per minute. Upon examination, you observe that he has pinpoint pupils. The nerve responsible for innervating the muscle that causes pupil constriction, known as constrictor pupillae, is derived from which nerve?
Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve
Explanation:The correct answer is the oculomotor nerve, which is the third cranial nerve responsible for supplying motor innervation to four extra-orbital muscles and parasympathetic fibers to constrictor pupillae and ciliaris. The optic nerve is the second cranial nerve that carries visual information from the retina, while the trochlear nerve is the fourth cranial nerve that supplies the superior oblique extra-orbital muscle. The ophthalmic nerve is the first division of the trigeminal nerve that carries sensation from the orbit, upper eyelid, and forehead, and the abducens nerve is the sixth cranial nerve that supplies the lateral rectus extra-orbital muscle. The patient’s presentation is consistent with opioid overdose, which is characterized by reduced respiratory rate, altered conscious level, and pinpoint pupils. Intravenous naloxone can reverse opioid overdose.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Eve, a 67-year-old female, is undergoing endovascular surgery to repair an abdominal aortic aneurysm. The surgeon places the stent in the aorta and common iliac arteries, as the aneurysm is located just above the aortic bifurcation. What is the level of the bifurcation?
Your Answer: S2
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:The point at which the aorta divides into the common iliac arteries is located at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebrae (L4). The renal arteries originate at the level of the second lumbar vertebrae (L2), while the inferior mesenteric artery originates at the level of the third lumbar vertebrae (L3). The posterior superior iliac spines are located at the level of the second sacral vertebrae (S2).
Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body
The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.
In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Tom, a 50-year-old man, visits his primary care physician to discuss his medications. He was recently hospitalized for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and was prescribed dabigatran to prevent future occurrences. Can you explain how this anticoagulant works?
The mechanism of action of dabigatran is its ability to inhibit thrombin, a key enzyme in the blood clotting process. By blocking thrombin, dabigatran prevents the formation of blood clots and reduces the risk of DVT and other thromboembolic events. Unlike traditional anticoagulants such as warfarin, dabigatran does not require regular monitoring and has fewer drug interactions. However, it may increase the risk of bleeding and should be used with caution in patients with renal impairment.Your Answer: Inhibits the activation of plasminogen
Correct Answer: Directly inhibits thrombin
Explanation:Dabigatran is a DOAC that directly inhibits thrombin, a clotting factor that converts fibrinogen to fibrin strands. This impairs clot formation and can be reversed with idarucizumab in severe bleeding.
Tranexamic acid inhibits the activation of plasminogen, which prevents the breakdown of fibrin clots and increases clotting. It is commonly used in menorrhagia.
Other DOAC medications, such as rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban, inhibit clotting factor Xa, which activates thrombin. These medications can be reversed with recombinant human factor Xa.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, as well as natural anticoagulants protein C and S. It initially increases the risk of clotting, so patients must take heparin injections when first starting warfarin.
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX, an enzyme that synthesizes thromboxanes, which promote platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction. By inhibiting thromboxane production, aspirin is effective in preventing myocardial infarction and stroke.
Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A different patient undergoes a femoral hernia repair and during the operation, the surgeon decides to enter the abdominal cavity to resect small bowel. A transverse incision is made two thirds of the way between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis. Which of the structures listed below will remain intact?
Your Answer: Peritoneum
Correct Answer: Posterior lamina of the rectus sheath
Explanation:At this level, the incision is situated beneath the arcuate line and there is a lack of posterior wall in the rectus sheath.
The rectus sheath is a structure formed by the aponeuroses of the lateral abdominal wall muscles. Its composition varies depending on the anatomical level. Above the costal margin, the anterior sheath is made up of the external oblique aponeurosis, with the costal cartilages located behind it. From the costal margin to the arcuate line, the anterior rectus sheath is composed of the external oblique aponeurosis and the anterior part of the internal oblique aponeurosis. The posterior rectus sheath is formed by the posterior part of the internal oblique aponeurosis and transversus abdominis. Below the arcuate line, all the abdominal muscle aponeuroses are located in the anterior aspect of the rectus sheath, while the transversalis fascia and peritoneum are located posteriorly. The arcuate line is the point where the inferior epigastric vessels enter the rectus sheath.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 9
Correct
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Where is the area postrema located in the brain? A 16-year-old girl was prescribed erythromycin for her severe acne, but after three days, she had to stop taking it due to severe nausea that made her unable to function.
Your Answer: Floor of the 4th ventricle
Explanation:The vomiting process is initiated by the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which receives signals from various sources such as the gastrointestinal tract, hormones, and drugs. This zone is located in the area postrema, which is situated on the floor of the 4th ventricle in the medulla. It is noteworthy that the area postrema is located outside the blood-brain barrier. The nucleus of tractus solitarius, which is also located in the medulla, contains autonomic centres that play a role in the vomiting reflex. This nucleus receives signals from the chemoreceptor trigger zone. The vomiting centres in the brain receive inputs from different areas, including the gastrointestinal tract and the vestibular system of the inner ear.
Vomiting is the involuntary act of expelling the contents of the stomach and sometimes the intestines. This is caused by a reverse peristalsis and abdominal contraction. The vomiting center is located in the medulla oblongata and is activated by receptors in various parts of the body. These include the labyrinthine receptors in the ear, which can cause motion sickness, the over distention receptors in the duodenum and stomach, the trigger zone in the central nervous system, which can be affected by drugs such as opiates, and the touch receptors in the throat. Overall, vomiting is a reflex action that is triggered by various stimuli and is controlled by the vomiting center in the brainstem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the fundamental structure of the adrenal cortex?
Your Answer: Enterochromaffin cells
Correct Answer: Zona reticularis
Explanation:Anatomy and Function of the Adrenal Glands
The adrenal glands are composed of two distinct parts: the outer cortex and the inner medulla. The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing the body’s steroid hormones and is divided into three layers. The outermost layer, the zona glomerulosa, produces mineralocorticoids such as aldosterone. The middle layer, the zona fasciculata, produces glucocorticoids like cortisol. The innermost layer, the zona reticularis, produces androgens such as DHEA and androstenedione.
On the other hand, the adrenal medulla is made up of enterochromaffin cells, which are neural crest derivatives that secrete catecholamines. The adrenal gland is covered by a fibrous capsule that contains fibroblasts. The adrenal gland plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, including blood pressure, metabolism, and stress response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Histology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man is having a right nephrectomy. At what level does the renal artery typically branch off from the abdominal aorta during this procedure?
Your Answer: L3
Correct Answer: L2
Explanation:The level with L2 is where the renal arteries typically branch off from the aorta.
Anatomy of the Renal Arteries
The renal arteries are blood vessels that supply the kidneys with oxygenated blood. They are direct branches off the aorta and enter the kidney at the hilum. The right renal artery is longer than the left renal artery. The renal vein, artery, and pelvis also enter the kidney at the hilum.
The right renal artery is related to the inferior vena cava, right renal vein, head of the pancreas, and descending part of the duodenum. On the other hand, the left renal artery is related to the left renal vein and tail of the pancreas.
In some cases, there may be accessory arteries, mainly on the left side. These arteries usually pierce the upper or lower part of the kidney instead of entering at the hilum.
Before reaching the hilum, each renal artery divides into four or five segmental branches that supply each pyramid and cortex. These segmental branches then divide within the sinus into lobar arteries. Each vessel also gives off small inferior suprarenal branches to the suprarenal gland, ureter, and surrounding tissue and muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy has been referred to a haematologist by his GP due to frequent nosebleeds and easy bruising. His parents are concerned and investigations reveal a diagnosis of haemophilia B, which is an X-linked recessive disease. What is the likelihood that the boy's father is also affected by haemophilia B?
Your Answer: 100%
Correct Answer: Equal to rest of the population
Explanation:X-linked recessive inheritance affects only males, except in cases of Turner’s syndrome where females are affected due to having only one X chromosome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by carrier females, and male-to-male transmission is not observed. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is rare for an affected father to have children with a heterozygous female carrier, but in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect can be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman is admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. As part of her pre-operative evaluation, it is discovered that she is taking furosemide to manage her high blood pressure. What is the location of action for this diuretic medication?
Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule
Correct Answer: Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
Explanation:Furosemide and bumetanide are diuretics that work by blocking the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, which decreases the reabsorption of NaCl.
Diuretic drugs are classified into three major categories based on the location where they inhibit sodium reabsorption. Loop diuretics act on the thick ascending loop of Henle, thiazide diuretics on the distal tubule and connecting segment, and potassium sparing diuretics on the aldosterone-sensitive principal cells in the cortical collecting tubule. Sodium is reabsorbed in the kidney through Na+/K+ ATPase pumps located on the basolateral membrane, which return reabsorbed sodium to the circulation and maintain low intracellular sodium levels. This ensures a constant concentration gradient.
The physiological effects of commonly used diuretics vary based on their site of action. furosemide, a loop diuretic, inhibits the Na+/K+/2Cl- carrier in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle and can result in up to 25% of filtered sodium being excreted. Thiazide diuretics, which act on the distal tubule and connecting segment, inhibit the Na+Cl- carrier and typically result in between 3 and 5% of filtered sodium being excreted. Finally, spironolactone, a potassium sparing diuretic, inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump in the cortical collecting tubule and typically results in between 1 and 2% of filtered sodium being excreted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male was admitted to the hospital due to delirium observed in the nursing home. Upon diagnosis, he was found to have a lower respiratory tract infection which progressed to sepsis. During his stay in the ICU, he was discovered to have severe hyponatremia. The medical team has prescribed tolvaptan along with other medications.
What is the mechanism of action of tolvaptan?Your Answer: Vasopressin V1 receptor agonist
Correct Answer: Vasopressin V2 receptor antagonist
Explanation:Tolvaptan is a drug that blocks the action of vasopressin at the V2 receptor, which reduces water absorption and increases aquaresis without sodium loss. Vasopressin is a hormone that regulates water balance in the body.
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a commonly inherited kidney disease that affects 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2 respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for 15% of cases. ADPKD type 1 is caused by a mutation in the PKD1 gene on chromosome 16, while ADPKD type 2 is caused by a mutation in the PKD2 gene on chromosome 4. ADPKD type 1 tends to present with renal failure earlier than ADPKD type 2.
To screen for ADPKD in relatives of affected individuals, an abdominal ultrasound is recommended. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, if the individual is under 30 years old. If the individual is between 30-59 years old, two cysts in both kidneys are required for diagnosis. If the individual is over 60 years old, four cysts in both kidneys are necessary for diagnosis.
For some patients with ADPKD, tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, may be an option to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. However, NICE recommends tolvaptan only for adults with ADPKD who have chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man has recently passed away in hospital after being admitted with acute shortness of breath upon exertion and bilateral pedal pitting edema. He is known to be suffering from congestive heart failure for the past 5 years.
His medical history includes well-controlled hypertension, mitral insufficiency and a complicated sore throat as a child. He has no significant past family history. There is no previous history of any heart surgery or interventional procedures. The pathology report confirms the findings of granulomatous nodules consisting of giant cells around areas of fibrinoid necrosis in the heart of the patient.
What is the causative agent for the pathology described in the heart of this patient?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules consisting of giant cells around areas of fibrinoid necrosis, are pathognomonic for rheumatic heart disease. This condition is often a sequela of acute rheumatic heart fever, which occurs due to molecular mimicry where antibodies to the bacteria causing a pharyngeal infection react with the cardiac myocyte antigen resulting in valve destruction. The bacterial organism responsible for the pharyngeal infection leading to rheumatic heart disease is the group A β-hemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes.
In contrast, Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive, coagulase-positive bacteria that often causes acute bacterial endocarditis with large vegetations on previously normal cardiac valves. Bacterial endocarditis typically presents with a fever and new-onset murmur, and may be associated with other signs such as Roth spots, Osler nodes, Janeway lesions, and splinter hemorrhages. Staphylococcus epidermidis, on the other hand, is a gram-positive, coagulase-negative bacteria that often causes bacterial endocarditis on prosthetic valves. Streptococcus viridans, a gram-positive, α-hemolytic bacteria, typically causes subacute bacterial endocarditis in individuals with a diseased or previously abnormal valve, with smaller vegetations compared to acute bacterial endocarditis.
Rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs as a result of an immune response to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection, typically occurring 2-4 weeks after the initial infection. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever involves the activation of the innate immune system, leading to antigen presentation to T cells. B and T cells then produce IgG and IgM antibodies, and CD4+ T cells are activated. This immune response is thought to be cross-reactive, mediated by molecular mimicry, where antibodies against M protein cross-react with myosin and the smooth muscle of arteries. This response leads to the clinical features of rheumatic fever, including Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever.
To diagnose rheumatic fever, evidence of recent streptococcal infection must be present, along with 2 major criteria or 1 major criterion and 2 minor criteria. Major criteria include erythema marginatum, Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, carditis and valvulitis, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include raised ESR or CRP, pyrexia, arthralgia, and prolonged PR interval.
Management of rheumatic fever involves antibiotics, typically oral penicillin V, as well as anti-inflammatories such as NSAIDs as first-line treatment. Any complications that develop, such as heart failure, should also be treated. It is important to diagnose and treat rheumatic fever promptly to prevent long-term complications such as rheumatic heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which infection has the longest incubation period among the following options?
Your Answer: Dengue fever
Correct Answer: Chickenpox
Explanation:Understanding Incubation Periods of Diseases
Incubation periods refer to the time between exposure to a disease-causing agent and the onset of symptoms. Knowing the incubation period of a disease is important in diagnosing and managing it. Some diseases have short incubation periods of less than a week, such as meningococcus, diphtheria, influenzae, and scarlet fever. Others have an incubation period of 1-2 weeks, including malaria, dengue fever, typhoid, and measles. Diseases with an incubation period of 2-3 weeks include mumps, rubella, and chickenpox. On the other hand, infectious mononucleosis, cytomegalovirus, viral hepatitis, and HIV have longer incubation periods of more than 3 weeks.
Understanding the incubation period of a disease can help healthcare professionals identify the possible cause of a patient’s symptoms and provide appropriate treatment. It can also help in preventing the spread of the disease by identifying and isolating infected individuals. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the incubation periods of common diseases and to seek medical attention if symptoms develop within the expected time frame.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with low blood pressure after a car crash. What is the mechanism by which angiotensin II increases the filtration fraction in the kidney?
Your Answer: Vasodilation of the efferent glomerular arteriole
Correct Answer: Vasoconstriction of the efferent glomerular arteriole
Explanation:Angiotensin II helps maintain GFR by increasing the filtration fraction through vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus. Despite its vasoconstrictive effect on the glomerular arteries, angiotensin II has a greater impact on the efferent arteriole, leading to an increase in glomerular pressure and filtration fraction.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the primary location for the release of dehydroepiandrosterone in individuals?
Your Answer: Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland
Correct Answer: Zona reticularis of the adrenal gland
Explanation:The adrenal cortex can be remembered with the mnemonic GFR-ACD, where DHEA is a hormone with androgenic effects that is primarily secreted by the adrenal gland.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man who is overweight visits his GP with complaints of heartburn and regurgitation that worsen when lying flat. The GP suspects gastroesophageal reflux caused by a hiatus hernia and recommends lifestyle changes to promote weight loss, as well as antacids.
Where is the opening through which this problem occurs located in the diaphragm?Your Answer: T12
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:The level at which the oesophagus passes through the diaphragm is T10, which is also where the oesophageal hiatus is located. When the stomach protrudes through this opening, it is referred to as a hiatus hernia.
Understanding Diaphragm Apertures
The diaphragm is a muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity and plays a crucial role in respiration. Diaphragm apertures are openings within this muscle that allow specific structures to pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity. The three main apertures are the aortic hiatus at T12, the oesophageal hiatus at T10, and the vena cava foramen at T8. To remember the vertebral levels of these apertures, a useful mnemonic involves counting the total number of letters in the spellings of vena cava (8), oesophagus (10), and aortic hiatus (12).
In addition to these main apertures, smaller openings in the diaphragm exist in the form of lesser diaphragmatic apertures. These allow much smaller structures to pass through the thoracic cavity into the abdomen across the diaphragm. Examples of lesser diaphragmatic apertures include the left phrenic nerve, small veins, superior epigastric artery, intercostal nerves and vessels, subcostal nerves and vessels, splanchnic nerves, and the sympathetic trunk. Understanding the diaphragm and its apertures is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 20
Correct
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A patient is being treated for a pneumonia. She is given 200 mg of an antibiotic. The concentration of the drug in her bloodstream is measured at 5 mg/L.
What is the volume of distribution of this drug?Your Answer: 40 L
Explanation:Volume of Distribution
The volume of distribution is a measure of the volume required to achieve a specific concentration of a drug in the plasma. For instance, if 200 mg of a drug is administered and the concentration in the plasma is 5 mg/L, this is equivalent to dissolving the drug in 40 L of fluid. However, the volume of distribution varies depending on the drug’s properties, such as its affinity for proteins or fats. In general, a volume of distribution that is ten times greater than the average total plasma volume suggests that the drug is primarily bound to tissues or fat rather than being freely available in the plasma. This information is crucial when determining the appropriate loading doses for certain medications, particularly those used to treat epilepsy. To summarize, the volume of distribution is essential for optimizing drug dosing and ensuring effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Correct
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A senior citizen comes in with indications and manifestations in line with Parkinson's disease, such as a tremor on one side, stiffness, and reduced movement speed. Which anatomical structure is primarily linked to the malfunction of this condition?
Your Answer: Substantia nigra pars compacta
Explanation:The degeneration of the substantia nigra, particularly the substantia nigra pars compacta, is linked to Parkinson’s disease. This region has a high concentration of dopaminergic neurons. While the disease’s extrapyramidal symptoms may involve the cerebral cortex, cerebellum, or pituitary gland, Parkinson’s disease is not typically associated with dysfunction in these areas. However, due to its complex origins, the disease may involve these regions.
Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is being evaluated for weight loss and increased thirst. During a urine dipstick test, one of the parameters showed a +++ result. In which part of the nephron does the resorption of this solute primarily occur?
Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule
Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Glucose is primarily reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron. In individuals with type 1 diabetes, the level of circulating glucose exceeds the nephron’s capacity for reabsorption, resulting in glycosuria or glucose in the urine. The collecting duct system mainly reabsorbs water under the control of hormones such as ADH. The descending limb of the loop of Henle is primarily permeable to water, while the distal convoluted tubule mainly absorbs ions and water through active transport. The thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle is the main site of resorption for sodium, potassium, and chloride ions, creating a hypotonic filtrate.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 23
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents after a car accident. He has a posterior dislocation of his right knee but is in stable condition. During a neurological examination of his lower limbs, it is observed that he has a lack of plantarflexion and inversion in his right foot. Which nerve is likely affected?
Your Answer: Tibial nerve
Explanation:The tibial nerve is responsible for allowing a patient to plantarflex and invert their foot. Although it is rare for this nerve to be injured due to its location deep within soft tissue, it can be damaged in cases of posterior knee dislocations. When the tibial nerve is affected, the patient will experience a loss of these specific movements.
The common fibular nerve is not the correct answer. This nerve controls muscles in the anterior and lateral compartments of the lower limb, allowing for foot eversion and dorsiflexion. Therefore, if this nerve is damaged, the patient will experience the opposite symptoms of what is described in the scenario.
Similarly, the common peroneal nerve is not the correct answer. This nerve is responsible for foot drop, which is a loss of foot dorsiflexion and eversion. This is the opposite of what the patient in the scenario is experiencing. While it is possible for this nerve to be injured in a posterior knee dislocation, it is more commonly affected in cases of fibular neck fractures.
The femoral nerve is also not the correct answer. This nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, but it is not involved in foot movements. Additionally, the course of this nerve does not extend past the knee, so it cannot be damaged by a posterior knee dislocation.
Finally, the obturator nerve is not the correct answer. This nerve is located higher up in the limb and controls thigh adduction. Its course does not extend distally beyond the femoral head, so it cannot be affected by popliteal pathology.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A young adult is started on a novel medication for managing their Crohn's disease. They are advised that the medication is to be taken once a week and may elevate their susceptibility to infections. Additionally, folic acid is prescribed alongside the new medication to mitigate other potential adverse effects.
What is the mode of action of this drug?Your Answer: Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase
Correct Answer: Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
Explanation:Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase to suppress the immune system and manage Crohn’s disease. This medication is taken once weekly and prescribed with folic acid. Methotrexate blocks the production of nucleotides, which impairs cell replication, particularly in rapidly replicating immune cells, leading to a reduced autoimmune response. Binding to steroid receptors, inhibiting dihydropteroate synthetase, and mimicking the shape of purines are incorrect answers. These mechanisms of action belong to other medications used to manage different conditions.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female presents with frequent bruising and bleeding gums, prompting concern for the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. What tests would you order to investigate this?
Your Answer: Thrombin time
Correct Answer: Prothrombin time (PT)
Explanation:The prothrombin time (PT) is used to assess the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade, while the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to assess the intrinsic pathway. The thrombin time is used to assess fibrin formation. A 50:50 mixing study is used to determine if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.
The Coagulation Cascade: Two Pathways to Fibrin Formation
The coagulation cascade is a complex process that leads to the formation of a blood clot. There are two pathways that can lead to fibrin formation: the intrinsic pathway and the extrinsic pathway. The intrinsic pathway involves components that are already present in the blood and has a minor role in clotting. It is initiated by subendothelial damage, such as collagen, which leads to the formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12. This complex activates Factor 11, which in turn activates Factor 9. Factor 9, along with its co-factor Factor 8a, forms the tenase complex, which activates Factor 10.
The extrinsic pathway, on the other hand, requires tissue factor released by damaged tissue. This pathway is initiated by tissue damage, which leads to the binding of Factor 7 to tissue factor. This complex activates Factor 9, which works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10. Both pathways converge at the common pathway, where activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Thrombin hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin and also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.
Finally, fibrinolysis occurs, which is the process of clot resorption. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate this process. It is important to note that certain factors are involved in both pathways, such as Factor 10, and that some factors are vitamin K dependent, such as Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. The intrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while the extrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the prothrombin time (PT).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which one of the following cellular types or features is not observed in sarcoidosis?
Your Answer: Reed Sternberg Cells
Explanation:Hodgkin’s disease is characterized by the presence of Reed Sternberg cells, while sarcoid is associated with the presence of all other cell types.
Chronic inflammation can occur as a result of acute inflammation or as a primary process. There are three main processes that can lead to chronic inflammation: persisting infection with certain organisms, prolonged exposure to non-biodegradable substances, and autoimmune conditions involving antibodies formed against host antigens. Acute inflammation involves changes to existing vascular structure and increased permeability of endothelial cells, as well as infiltration of neutrophils. In contrast, chronic inflammation is characterized by angiogenesis and the predominance of macrophages, plasma cells, and lymphocytes. The process may resolve with suppuration, complete resolution, abscess formation, or progression to chronic inflammation. Healing by fibrosis is the main result of chronic inflammation. Granulomas, which consist of a microscopic aggregation of macrophages, are pathognomonic of chronic inflammation and can be found in conditions such as colonic Crohn’s disease. Growth factors released by activated macrophages, such as interferon and fibroblast growth factor, may have systemic features resulting in systemic symptoms and signs in individuals with long-standing chronic inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 20-year-old female comes to the pregnancy advisory service at 12 weeks gestation and expresses her desire for an abortion. After discussing the options, it is decided that a medical abortion is the best choice for her. She inquires about the process and is informed that it involves taking two medications with a gap of approximately 2 days between them. What is the probable mechanism of action of the second medication that will be administered to this patient?
Your Answer: Prostaglandin analogue
Explanation:Misoprostol is a medication used in medical abortion, usually given 1-2 days after mifepristone. It is a prostaglandin analogue that induces uterine contractions, leading to the expulsion of the fetus. Misoprostol comes in various forms, including oral tablets and pessaries, and may cause side effects such as pain, nausea, and diarrhea. In addition to medical abortion, misoprostol may also be used for labor induction or peptic ulcer treatment. Mifepristone, on the other hand, is a progesterone receptor antagonist that blocks the hormone responsible for sustaining pregnancy, leading to uterine contractions and abortion. Other drugs that affect uterine contractions include oxytocin agonists, but none are currently licensed for use. Serum estrogen receptor modulators like tamoxifen and raloxifene are used for breast cancer and osteoporosis prophylaxis in postmenopausal women, respectively.
Drugs Used in Obstetrics and Gynaecology
Syntocinon is a synthetic form of oxytocin that is utilized in the active management of the third stage of labor. It aids in the contraction of the uterus, which reduces the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Additionally, it is used to induce labor. Ergometrine, an ergot alkaloid, is an alternative to oxytocin in the active management of the third stage of labor. It can decrease blood loss by constricting the vascular smooth muscle of the uterus. Its mechanism of action involves stimulating alpha-adrenergic, dopaminergic, and serotonergic receptors. However, it can cause coronary artery spasm as an adverse effect.
Mifepristone is used in combination with misoprostol to terminate pregnancies. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog that causes uterine contractions. Mifepristone is a competitive progesterone receptor antagonist. Its mechanism of action involves blocking the effects of progesterone, which is necessary for the maintenance of pregnancy. However, it can cause menorrhagia as an adverse effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 28
Incorrect
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During liver mobilisation for a pediatric liver transplant, the hepatic ligaments will need to be mobilized. Which of the following statements regarding these structures is false?
Your Answer: The coronary ligament is attached to the liver
Correct Answer: The right triangular ligament is an early branch of the left triangular ligament
Explanation:The coronary ligament continues as the right triangular ligament.
Structure and Relations of the Liver
The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.
The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.
The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 29
Correct
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A group of teachers in the kindergarten team want to establish the levels of literacy skills among their students.
They collect data over the course of a month and compare their results against the National Association for the Education of Young Children (NAEYC) guidelines for kindergarten literacy skills and find that they recommend all students should have basic literacy skills.
After the first month, they find that only 25% of their students have basic literacy skills.
They go on to develop a literacy program and repeat the data collection one month later. They find the levels of basic literacy skills have now improved to 75%.
What type of project is this?Your Answer: Clinical audit
Explanation:The purpose of a clinical audit is to identify areas where clinical practice falls short of the required standard and to implement interventions to improve these shortcomings. Developing interventions, such as electronic prompts, is a crucial aspect of clinical audits.
A case-control study is not applicable in this scenario. Case-control studies compare two groups based on different outcomes and retrospectively look for possible causal factors. However, in this case, there is only one group being evaluated, and the team is not looking for cause and effect.
Similarly, a cohort study is not appropriate. Cohort studies compare two groups with different characteristics over time to observe differing outcomes. This is a type of research study, which is not the aim of the clinical audit.
A risk assessment is also not relevant. Risk assessments evaluate the potential risks of an activity and are not appropriate for this scenario. A risk assessment may be conducted to assess the safety of oxygen delivery systems or the harms of not delivering oxygen to patients. However, the purpose of a clinical audit is to identify areas for improvement in clinical practice.
Likewise, a service evaluation is not the correct option. Service evaluations review clinical services for performance and outcomes, but not against any defined standards. Improving a service is an inherent part of a clinical audit and does not need to be explicitly mentioned.
Understanding Clinical Audit
Clinical audit is a process that aims to improve the quality of patient care and outcomes by systematically reviewing care against specific criteria and implementing changes. It is a quality improvement process that involves the collection and analysis of data to identify areas where improvements can be made. The process involves reviewing current practices, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to improve patient care and outcomes.
Clinical audit is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. It helps to identify areas where improvements can be made and provides a framework for implementing changes. The process involves a team of healthcare professionals working together to review current practices and identify areas for improvement. Once areas for improvement have been identified, changes can be implemented to improve patient care and outcomes.
In summary, clinical audit is a quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change. It is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. By identifying areas for improvement and implementing changes, clinical audit helps to improve patient care and outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female is seeking a termination and she is currently 16 weeks pregnant.
At what point in the pregnancy does the law impose more restrictions on obtaining a termination?Your Answer: 22 weeks
Correct Answer: 24 weeks
Explanation:Abortion Law in the UK
The Abortion Act 1967, which was amended by the Human Fertilisation and Embryology Act 1990, governs the law on abortion in the UK. According to this law, an abortion can be carried out until 24 weeks of pregnancy if two doctors agree that continuing with the pregnancy would pose a risk to the physical or psychological health of the mother or her existing children.
If the pregnancy has progressed beyond 24 weeks, an abortion can only be carried out if two doctors agree that the woman’s health is gravely threatened by the pregnancy or if the infant is likely to be born with severe physical or mental abnormalities. It is important to note that there is no time limit on procuring an abortion if these criteria are met.
In summary, the law on abortion in the UK allows for abortions to be carried out up to 24 weeks if there is a risk to the mother’s health or the health of her existing children. After 24 weeks, an abortion can only be carried out if the woman’s health is at risk or if the infant is likely to be born with severe physical or mental abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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