-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with suspected spinal trauma following a car accident. He presents with back pain and pain in his right leg. Initial vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 125/83 mmHg and a heart rate of 83bpm. Upon examination, there is bruising on his chest and an obvious deformity in his right leg. Later that day, he suddenly experiences a severe headache and appears flushed, sweating profusely. His vital signs now show a blood pressure of 162/97mmHg and a heart rate of 51. What is the level of his injury?
Your Answer: T5
Explanation:Autonomic dysreflexia can occur if the spinal cord injury is at or above the T5 level. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as headache, sweating, hypertension, and bradycardia, which can be triggered by any afferent sympathetic signal, such as urinary retention or faecal impaction. A spinal injury at the level of L1 or S1 is too low to cause autonomic dysreflexia, but may affect bladder and bowel control and the use of the hip and legs.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition that occurs in patients who have suffered a spinal cord injury at or above the T6 spinal level. It is caused by a reflex response triggered by various stimuli, such as faecal impaction or urinary retention, which sends signals through the thoracolumbar outflow. However, due to the spinal cord lesion, the usual parasympathetic response is prevented, leading to an unbalanced physiological response. This response is characterized by extreme hypertension, flushing, and sweating above the level of the cord lesion, as well as agitation. If left untreated, severe consequences such as haemorrhagic stroke can occur. The management of autonomic dysreflexia involves removing or controlling the stimulus and treating any life-threatening hypertension and/or bradycardia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 31-year-old arrives at the Emergency Department by ambulance after being involved in a car accident. During the ABCDE assessment, it is discovered that the patient has suffered a penetrating injury at the T9 level.
Following an MRI of the spine and consultation with a neurologist, the patient is diagnosed with Brown-Sequard syndrome on the left side.
What symptoms can be expected from this patient's condition?Your Answer: Left-sided loss of motor, vibration and proprioception, with right-sided loss of pain and temperature sensation
Explanation:The spinothalamic tract crosses over at the same level where the nerve root enters the spinal cord, while the corticospinal tract, dorsal column medial lemniscus, and spinocerebellar tracts cross over at the medulla.
Brown-Sequard syndrome affects one entire side of the spinal cord, resulting in the loss of motor function, vibration, and proprioception on the left side, and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side.
In Brown-Sequard syndrome, the loss of motor function, vibration, and proprioception occurs on the same side due to the corticospinal tract and dorsal column medial meniscus crossing over at the medulla. The loss of pain and temperature sensation occurs on the opposite side due to the crossing over of the tract at the nerve root.
Anterior cord syndrome affects the descending corticospinal tract and ascending spinothalamic tract, leading to the loss of motor function, pain, and temperature sensation below the injury site. However, proprioception and vibration sensation remain unaffected as the dorsal columns are spared.
Central cord syndrome results in the loss of motor function on both sides, as well as some loss of vibration and proprioception.
Posterior cord syndrome affects the dorsal column medial lemniscus, leading to the loss of proprioception and vibration sensation on the same side. This condition can be caused by neck hyperflexion, disc compression, ischaemia, vitamin B12 deficiency, or multiple sclerosis.
The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.
One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 79-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with sudden onset right sided hemiparesis. He has a medical history of hypertension and reports no changes to his vision, speech or hearing.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Wallenberg syndrome
Correct Answer: Lacunar infarct
Explanation:A lacunar stroke can lead to isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, or hemiparesis with limb ataxia. In this case, the patient is experiencing isolated hemiparesis, which is likely caused by a lacunar infarct. Hypertension is strongly linked to this type of stroke.
Weber’s syndrome results in CN III palsy on the same side as the stroke and weakness in the opposite limb.
Nystagmus is a common symptom of Wallenberg syndrome.
Ipsilateral deafness is a common symptom of lateral pontine syndrome.
Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.
Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 65-year-old patient with a history of Parkinson's disease visits your clinic to discuss their medications. During their recent neurology appointment, they were advised to increase the dosage of one of their medications due to worsening symptoms, but they cannot recall which one. To aid their memory, you initiate a conversation about the medications and their effects on neurotransmitters. Which neurotransmitter is predominantly impacted in Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Parkinson’s disease primarily affects dopaminergic neurons that project from the substantia nigra to the basal ganglia striatum. This is important to note as the condition is commonly treated with medications that increase dopamine levels, such as levodopa, dopamine agonists, and monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitors.
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter with a wide range of functions and is commonly used in medications such as antidepressants, antiemetics, and antipsychotics.
GABA primarily acts on inhibitory neurons and is important in the mechanism of drugs like benzodiazepines and barbiturates.
Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter found at the neuromuscular junction and has roles within the central and autonomic nervous systems. It is important in conditions like myasthenia gravis and with drugs like atropine and neostigmine.
Noradrenaline is a catecholamine with various functions in the brain and activates the sympathetic nervous system outside of the brain. It is commonly used in anaesthetics and emergency situations and is an important mediator with drugs like beta-blockers.
Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 29-year-old male visits an acute eye clinic with a complaint of a painful eye. During the examination, the ophthalmologist observes a photophobic red eye and identifies a distinctive lesion, resulting in a quick diagnosis of herpes simplex keratitis.
What is the description of the lesion?Your Answer: Dendritic corneal lesion
Explanation:Keratitis caused by herpes simplex is characterized by dendritic lesions that appear as a branched pattern on fluorescein dye. This is typically seen during slit lamp examination. While severe inflammation may be present, indicated by the presence of an inflammatory exudate of the anterior chamber (hypopyon), this is not specific to herpes simplex and may be associated with other causes of keratitis or anterior uveitis. It’s worth noting that herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is not caused by herpes simplex, but rather occurs when the dormant shingles virus in the ophthalmic nerve reactivates. Hutchinson’s sign, which is a vesicular rash at the tip of the nose in the context of an acute red eye, is suggestive of HZO. Lastly, it’s important to note that a tear dropped pupil is not a feature of keratitis and may be caused by blunt trauma.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that primarily affects the cornea and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis.
One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man is brought to his family doctor by his wife, who reports that her husband has been misplacing items around the house, such as putting his wallet in the fridge. She also mentions that he has gotten lost on two occasions while trying to find his way home. The man has difficulty remembering recent events but can recall his childhood and early adulthood with clarity. He denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations or issues with his mobility. The wife notes that her husband's behavioral changes have been gradual rather than sudden. A CT scan reveals significant widening of the brain sulci. What is the most likely diagnosis for this man, and what is the underlying pathology?
Your Answer: Hyperphosphorylated tau bodies
Correct Answer: Extracellular amyloid plaques and intracellular fibrillary tangles
Explanation:Alzheimer’s disease is caused by the deposition of insoluble beta-amyloid protein, leading to the formation of cortical plaques, and abnormal aggregation of the tau protein, resulting in intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles. This disease is characterized by a gradual onset of memory and behavioral problems, as well as brain atrophy visible on CT scans. Vascular dementia, on the other hand, is caused by multiple ischemic insults to the brain, resulting in a stepwise decline in cognition. Prion disease, such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, is characterized by the presence of insoluble beta-pleated protein sheets. Lacunar infarcts, caused by obstruction of small penetrating arteries in the brain, can be detected by MRI or CT scans. Lewy body dementia is characterized by the presence of intracellular Lewy bodies, along with symptoms of dementia and Parkinson’s disease.
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.
The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.
Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman is scheduled for an open carpal tunnel decompression. As part of the consent process, the surgeon discusses the potential risks of the procedure, including the possibility of damaging important structures.
What is accurate regarding the risks linked to open carpal tunnel decompression?Your Answer: Ulnar nerve is at a risk of damage during open carpal tunnel decompression
Explanation:The ulnar nerve is at risk of damage during open carpal tunnel decompression, making the second answer incorrect. The extensor digitorum tendon is not encountered during a carpal tunnel release as it is found dorsal to the radius and ulna. There is no known association between carpal tunnel decompression and the risk of rheumatoid arthritis or osteoporosis.
The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.
The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.
Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 33-year-old female comes to see you with a complaint of right wrist pain that has been bothering her for the past two months. She mentions having difficulty buttoning up her clothes with her right hand. During your examination, you observe that she struggles to pick up a pen with her index finger and thumb, indicating impairment of her pincer grip. Based on these findings, you suspect that she may have sustained damage to her anterior interosseous nerve.
What muscle is innervated by this nerve?Your Answer: Flexor pollicis longus
Explanation:The flexor pollicis longus muscle is innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve, which is a branch of the median nerve. This nerve also innervates the pronator quadratus and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles. If this nerve is damaged, it can result in weakness of the pincer grip, as observed in the patient. The ulnar nerve innervates the adductor pollicis muscle, while the radial nerve innervates the abductor pollicis longus muscle. The tibial nerve innervates the flexor digitorum brevis muscle.
The anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of the median nerve that supplies the deep muscles on the front of the forearm, excluding the ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus. It runs alongside the anterior interosseous artery along the anterior of the interosseous membrane of the forearm, between the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus. The nerve supplies the whole of the flexor pollicis longus and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus, and ends below in the pronator quadratus and wrist joint. The anterior interosseous nerve innervates 2.5 muscles, namely the flexor pollicis longus, pronator quadratus, and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles are located in the deep level of the anterior compartment of the forearm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man has his impacted 3rd molar surgically removed. After the procedure, he experiences numbness on the anterolateral part of his tongue. What is the probable cause of this?
Your Answer: Injury to the mandibular branch of the facial nerve
Correct Answer: Injury to the lingual nerve
Explanation:A lingual neuropraxia may occur in some patients after surgical extraction of these teeth, resulting in anesthesia of the front part of the tongue on the same side. The teeth are innervated by the inferior alveolar nerve.
Lingual Nerve: Sensory Nerve to the Tongue and Mouth
The lingual nerve is a sensory nerve that provides sensation to the mucosa of the presulcal part of the tongue, floor of the mouth, and mandibular lingual gingivae. It arises from the posterior trunk of the mandibular nerve and runs past the tensor veli palatini and lateral pterygoid muscles. At this point, it is joined by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve.
After emerging from the cover of the lateral pterygoid, the lingual nerve proceeds antero-inferiorly, lying on the surface of the medial pterygoid and close to the medial aspect of the mandibular ramus. At the junction of the vertical and horizontal rami of the mandible, it is anterior to the inferior alveolar nerve. The lingual nerve then passes below the mandibular attachment of the superior pharyngeal constrictor and lies on the periosteum of the root of the third molar tooth.
Finally, the lingual nerve passes medial to the mandibular origin of mylohyoid and then passes forwards on the inferior surface of this muscle. Overall, the lingual nerve plays an important role in providing sensory information to the tongue and mouth.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Considering the pituitary gland, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Your Answer: The posterior pituitary secretes oxytocin via a positive feedback loop
Correct Answer: The pituitary is in direct contact with the optic chiasm
Explanation:While the pituitary gland is in close proximity to the optic chiasm, craniopharyngiomas can cause bitemporal hemianopia by exerting pressure on this structure. However, a dural fold separates it from the chiasm.
The pituitary gland is a small gland located within the sella turcica in the sphenoid bone of the middle cranial fossa. It weighs approximately 0.5g and is covered by a dural fold. The gland is attached to the hypothalamus by the infundibulum and receives hormonal stimuli from the hypothalamus through the hypothalamo-pituitary portal system. The anterior pituitary, which develops from a depression in the wall of the pharynx known as Rathkes pouch, secretes hormones such as ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, GH, and prolactin. GH and prolactin are secreted by acidophilic cells, while ACTH, TSH, FSH, and LH are secreted by basophilic cells. On the other hand, the posterior pituitary, which is derived from neuroectoderm, secretes ADH and oxytocin. Both hormones are produced in the hypothalamus before being transported by the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 35-year-old man suffers a hemisection of the spinal cord at the level T5 due to a stabbing in his back. You conduct an evaluation of the patient's sensory function, including temperature, vibration, and fine touch, as well as muscle strength. What signs would you anticipate observing?
Your Answer: Contralateral loss of temperature, ipsilateral loss of fine touch and vibration, ipsilateral spastic paresis
Explanation:The spinothalamic tract carries sensory fibers for pain and temperature and decussates at the same level as the nerve root entering the spinal cord. As a result, contralateral temperature loss occurs. The dorsal column medial lemniscus carries sensory fibers for fine touch, vibration, and unconscious proprioception. It decussates at the medulla, leading to ipsilateral loss of fine touch and vibration. The corticospinal tract is a descending tract that has already decussated at the medulla and is responsible for inhibiting muscle movement. If affected in the spinal cord, it causes an upper motor neuron lesion on the ipsilateral side.
The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.
One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with progressive weakness of her lower limbs. Her symptoms started three days previously when she noticed her legs felt heavy when rising from a seated position. This weakness has progressed to the point now where she is unable to stand unassisted and has now started to affect some of the muscles of her abdominal wall and lower back. She is otherwise well, apart from suffering a diarrhoeal illness 12 days previously. Neurological examination of the lower limbs identifies generalised weakness, reduced tone and absent reflexes; sensory examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following organisms is most likely to have caused this patient's diarrhoeal symptoms?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Explanation:The correct answer for the trigger of Guillain-Barre syndrome is Campylobacter jejuni. The patient’s symptoms of ascending muscle weakness without sensory signs and absent reflexes and reduced tone suggest a lower motor neuron lesion, which is likely due to GBS. GBS is an autoimmune-mediated demyelinating disease of the peripheral nervous system that is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being the classic trigger. None of the other options are associated with GBS. Bacillus cereus can cause food poisoning from rice, resulting in vomiting and diarrhoea. Escherichia coli is common among travellers and can cause watery stools and abdominal cramps. Shigella can cause bloody diarrhoea with vomiting and abdominal pain.
Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.
The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.
In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 74-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with slurred speech and a drooping left side of his face. During cranial nerve examination, he is unable to smile on the left side but can close both eyes, raise both eyebrows symmetrically, and wrinkle his forehead. What is the location of the lesion responsible for this facial nerve palsy?
Your Answer: Right lower motor neuron
Correct Answer: Right upper motor neuron
Explanation:When there is weakness on one side of the face but the forehead remains unaffected (meaning the person can still raise their eyebrows and wrinkle their forehead), it is likely caused by an upper motor neuron lesion in the facial nerve on the opposite side of the weakness. This type of lesion is often the result of a stroke, brain tumor, or brain bleed. It is important to note that lower motor neuron lesions, such as those found in Bell’s palsy, do not spare the forehead and only affect one side of the face. A left upper motor neuron lesion would cause weakness on the right side of the face with forehead sparing. Damage to the zygomatic branch of the facial nerve does not result in forehead sparing.
The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.
The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 45-year-old female comes to see you with concerns about her vision. She reports experiencing blurred vision for the past few weeks, which she first noticed while descending stairs. She now sees two images when looking at one object, with one image appearing below and tilted away from the other. She denies any changes in her taste or hearing. Upon examination, her pupils are equal and reactive to light, and there is no evidence of nystagmus. Based on these findings, which cranial nerve is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Trochlea
Explanation:Torsional diplopia is a symptom that is commonly associated with a fourth nerve palsy, also known as a trochlear nerve palsy. This condition is characterized by the perception of tilted objects, as the affected individual sees one object as two images, with one image appearing slightly tilted in relation to the other. Fourth nerve palsy can also cause vertical diplopia, where two images of one object are seen, with one image appearing above the other. The affected eye may be deviated upwards and rotated outwards.
Lesions in the eighth cranial nerve, also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve, can lead to symptoms such as hearing loss, vertigo, and nystagmus.
Sixth nerve palsy, or abducens nerve palsy, can cause horizontal diplopia, where two images of one object are seen side by side. This is due to defective abduction, which prevents the eye from moving laterally.
Third nerve palsy, or oculomotor nerve palsy, can result in diplopia, as well as a down and out eye with a fixed, dilated pupil.
Seventh nerve palsy, or facial nerve palsy, can cause flaccid paralysis of the upper and lower face, loss of corneal reflex, loss of taste, and hyperacusis.
Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy
Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 31-year-old man visits an ophthalmology clinic with a complaint of experiencing double vision while descending stairs. He reports a recent mountain biking accident that required him to seek emergency medical attention. Although he has recuperated, he mentions that he sustained a severe frontal head injury after colliding with a tree.
During the examination, his left eye is raised and deviated medially, and he experiences vertical diplopia when looking up and down.
Which cranial nerve is most likely affected in this individual?Your Answer: Trochlear nerve
Explanation:Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 35-year-old male presents to the acute eye clinic with sudden onset of a painful red eye. He denies any history of trauma and has a medical history of ankylosing spondylitis for the past 8 years. On examination, his left eye has a visual acuity of 6/60 while his right eye is 6/6. Mild hypopyon is observed in his left eye during slit lamp examination. The diagnosis is anterior uveitis and he is prescribed steroid eye drops and cycloplegics. Which structure in the eye is affected in this case?
Your Answer: Ciliary body and iris
Explanation:Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 15-year-old boy arrived at the Emergency Department with knife wounds on his right lower limb following a gang altercation. During the assessment, it was discovered that he had lost sensation in the right 1st webbed space, but sensation remained intact across the rest of the dorsum of his right foot. Additionally, he was unable to dorsiflex his foot. Which nerve is the most probable to have been affected?
Your Answer: Deep fibular/peroneal nerve
Explanation:The deep fibular/peroneal nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the first web space of the foot and supplying the dorsiflexors of the foot. It is a branch of the common fibular/peroneal nerve, which bifurcates from the sciatic nerve at the popliteal fossa. The deep fibular/peroneal nerve travels alongside the anterior tibial artery in the anterior compartment of the leg, crosses the ankle joint, and terminates deep to the extensor retinaculum. Its medial branch provides cutaneous sensory innervation to the first web space between the great toe and second toe. The deep fibular/peroneal nerve also supplies motor function to the dorsiflexors of the foot, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, and fibularis/peroneus tertius muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in weakness in these muscles.
The Deep Peroneal Nerve: Origin, Course, and Actions
The deep peroneal nerve is a branch of the common peroneal nerve that originates at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to the peroneus longus muscle. It is composed of nerve root values L4, L5, S1, and S2. The nerve pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg and passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.
The deep peroneal nerve innervates several muscles, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor digitorum brevis. It also provides cutaneous innervation to the web space of the first and second toes. The nerve’s actions include dorsiflexion of the ankle joint, extension of all toes (extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus), and inversion of the foot.
After its bifurcation past the ankle joint, the lateral branch of the deep peroneal nerve innervates the extensor digitorum brevis and the extensor hallucis brevis, while the medial branch supplies the web space between the first and second digits. Understanding the origin, course, and actions of the deep peroneal nerve is essential for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve, such as foot drop and nerve entrapment syndromes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a depressed skull fracture that requires surgical intervention. After a few days, he reports experiencing double vision while walking down stairs and reading. Upon conducting an ocular convergence test, it is observed that the left eye faces downwards and medially, while the right eye does not. Which cranial nerve is most likely responsible for this symptom?
Your Answer: Abducens
Correct Answer: Trochlear
Explanation:The fourth cranial nerve is susceptible to injury in cases of head trauma due to its lengthy intracranial path. Acute fourth nerve palsy is most commonly caused by head trauma, resulting in vertical diplopia. The double vision is most severe when the affected eye looks inward, which typically occurs during the accommodation reflex while descending stairs.
Disorders of the Oculomotor System: Nerve Path and Palsy Features
The oculomotor system is responsible for controlling eye movements and pupil size. Disorders of this system can result in various nerve path and palsy features. The oculomotor nerve has a large nucleus at the midbrain and its fibers pass through the red nucleus and the pyramidal tract, as well as through the cavernous sinus into the orbit. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience ptosis, eye down and out, and an inability to move the eye superiorly, inferiorly, or medially. The pupil may also become fixed and dilated.
The trochlear nerve has the longest intracranial course and is the only nerve to exit the dorsal aspect of the brainstem. Its nucleus is located at the midbrain and it passes between the posterior cerebral and superior cerebellar arteries, as well as through the cavernous sinus into the orbit. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience vertical diplopia (diplopia on descending the stairs) and an inability to look down and in.
The abducens nerve has its nucleus in the mid pons and is responsible for the convergence of eyes in primary position. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience lateral diplopia towards the side of the lesion and the eye may deviate medially. Understanding the nerve path and palsy features of the oculomotor system can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders affecting this important system.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A man in his early 40s comes to the clinic with facial weakness on one side, asymmetry, and ptosis. The physician is considering either Bell's palsy or an upper motor lesion. What would be the most significant clinical finding to suggest Bell's palsy?
Your Answer: Loss of taste on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, ear pain, and hyperacusis
Explanation:Bell’s palsy is a clinical condition that occurs when the facial nerve (CX 7) is damaged. This nerve is responsible for gustation sensation on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, providing sensation to an area of skin behind the ear, and innervating the stapedial muscles of the ear, which stabilizes the stapes bone and transmits sound vibrations to the inner ear. Therefore, damage to this nerve can cause these symptoms.
Although risk factors for Bell’s palsy include diabetes and family history, it is an idiopathic condition that is diagnosed through exclusion. MRI is not useful in diagnosing this condition.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience postauricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 44-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis (MS) visits her GP with a complaint of eating difficulties. During the examination, the GP observes a noticeable elevation of the mandible when striking the base of it. Which cranial nerve provides the afferent limb to this reflex?
Your Answer: CN VII (marginal mandibular branch)
Correct Answer: CN V3
Explanation:Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
When conducting minor surgery on the scalp, which region is considered a hazardous area in terms of infection spreading to the central nervous system (CNS)?
Your Answer: Pericranium
Correct Answer: Loose areolar tissue
Explanation:The risk of infection spreading easily makes this area highly dangerous. The emissary veins that drain this region could facilitate the spread of sepsis to the cranial cavity.
Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. Different types of traumatic brain injury include extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, while secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. Management may include IV mannitol/furosemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man presents with a gradual onset loss of feeling in his feet. His past medical history includes alcohol misuse.
Upper and lower limb motor examinations identify bilateral extensor plantar reflexes with absent knee jerks. Sensory examination identifies reduced sensation to vibration and proprioception distal to the elbows and knees, and reduced light touch sensation in a stocking distribution.
Blood tests:
Hb 118 g/L Male: (135-180)
Platelets 170 * 109/L (150 - 400)
MCV 112 fL (80 - 100)
Fasting blood glucose 4.5 mmol/L (3.9-5.6)
Serum vitamin B12 125 ng/L (190-950)
Serum folate 2.3 ng/ml (2.7-17.0)
Which affected areas of the nervous system are causing his symptoms?Your Answer: Lateral spinothalamic tracts and dorsal columns
Correct Answer: Lateral corticospinal tracts and dorsal columns
Explanation:The patient is suffering from subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, which affects the dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts. This condition is often caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency resulting from alcohol misuse. The patient’s examination reveals upper motor neuron signs, reduced proprioception, and vibration sense. The anterior corticospinal tract, anterior spinocerebellar tract, anterior spinothalamic pathway, and lateral spinothalamic pathway are all unaffected by this condition.
Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord
Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.
This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 20-year-old man is rushed to the emergency department following his ejection from a car during a road accident.
During the examination, the patient responds to simple questions with incomprehensible sounds and opens his eyes in response to pain. There is also an abnormal wrist flexion when a sternal rub is applied, and a positive Battle's sign is observed.
A CT scan of the head is ordered, which reveals a fracture of the petrous temporal bone.
Which nerve is most likely to be affected by the patient's injury?Your Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:The facial nerve passes through the internal acoustic meatus, which is correct. This nerve provides motor innervation to the muscles of facial expression, parasympathetic innervation to salivary and lacrimal glands, and special sensory innervation of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue via the chorda tympani. The patient in question has a Glasgow Coma Score of 7, indicating nonspecific neurotrauma from a recent road traffic accident. It is unlikely that damage to the internal acoustic meatus would affect the glossopharyngeal or hypoglossal nerves, which pass through different structures. Damage to the oculomotor nerve, which passes through the superior orbital fissure, may cause ptosis and a dilated ‘down-and-out’ pupil.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man presents to the physician with complaints of difficulty in making facial expressions such as smiling and frowning. Due to a family history of brain tumours, the doctor orders an MRI scan.
In case a tumour is detected, which foramen of the skull is likely to be the site of the tumour?Your Answer: Internal acoustic meatus
Explanation:The correct answer is that the facial nerve passes through the internal acoustic meatus, along with the vestibulocochlear nerve. This nerve is responsible for facial expressions, which is consistent with the patient’s reported difficulties with smiling and frowning.
The other options are incorrect because they do not match the patient’s symptoms. The mandibular nerve passes through the foramen ovale and is responsible for sensations around the jaw, but the patient does not report any problems with eating. The maxillary nerve passes through the foramen rotundum and provides sensation to the middle of the face, but the patient does not have any sensory deficits. The hypoglossal nerve passes through the hypoglossal canal and is responsible for tongue movement, but the patient does not report any difficulties with this. The glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves pass through the jugular foramen and are responsible for various motor and sensory functions, but none of them innervate the facial muscles.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset of weakness on his right side. He reports no pain or injury. The primary suspicion is that he has experienced a stroke. What is the most frequent pathological mechanism that leads to a stroke?
Your Answer: Atherosclerotic occlusion of cerebral vessels
Correct Answer: Embolic events
Explanation:Stroke: A Brief Overview
Stroke is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, with over 150,000 strokes occurring annually in the UK alone. It is the fourth leading cause of death in the UK, killing twice as many women as breast cancer each year. However, the prevention and treatment of strokes have undergone significant changes over the past decade. What was once considered an untreatable condition is now viewed as a ‘brain attack’ that requires emergency assessment to determine if patients may benefit from new treatments such as thrombolysis.
A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), is a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain. There are two main types of strokes: ischaemic and haemorrhagic. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage in the blood vessel that stops blood flow, while haemorrhagic strokes occur when a blood vessel bursts, leading to a reduction in blood flow. Symptoms of a stroke may include motor weakness, speech problems, swallowing problems, visual field defects, and balance problems.
Patients with suspected stroke need to have emergency neuroimaging to determine if they are suitable for thrombolytic therapy to treat early ischaemic strokes. The two types of neuroimaging used in this setting are CT and MRI. If the stroke is ischaemic, and certain criteria are met, the patient should be offered thrombolysis. Once haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded, patients should be given aspirin 300mg as soon as possible, and antiplatelet therapy should be continued. If imaging confirms a haemorrhagic stroke, neurosurgical consultation should be considered for advice on further management. The vast majority of patients, however, are not suitable for surgical intervention. Management is therefore supportive as per haemorrhagic stroke.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 19-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a non-blanching rash and decreased level of consciousness. Following a normal CT head, a lumbar puncture is required for culture collection. What is the most suitable level for needle insertion?
Your Answer: L1/L2
Correct Answer: L3/L4
Explanation:The spinal cord in adults ends at the level of L1, with the remaining nerves below that forming the cauda equina. During fetal development, the spinal cord runs the entire length of the spine but regresses as the body grows.
When performing a lumbar puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid, it is crucial to avoid injuring the spinal cord. Therefore, the procedure is typically done at the level of L3/4, which is below the termination of the spinal cord. The cauda equina, being a bundle of mobile nerves, can be moved aside by the needle during the procedure.
Performing a lumbar puncture at T10-T12 is too high and carries the risk of spinal cord injury. On the other hand, L1/L2 is dangerously close to the spinal cord and also carries unnecessary risk. Therefore, L3/L4 is the appropriate level for a lumbar puncture, which can be estimated by palpating the posterior superior iliac crests.
Lumbar Puncture Procedure
Lumbar puncture is a medical procedure that involves obtaining cerebrospinal fluid. In adults, the procedure is typically performed at the L3/L4 or L4/5 interspace, which is located below the spinal cord’s termination at L1.
During the procedure, the needle passes through several layers. First, it penetrates the supraspinous ligament, which connects the tips of spinous processes. Then, it passes through the interspinous ligaments between adjacent borders of spinous processes. Next, the needle penetrates the ligamentum flavum, which may cause a give. Finally, the needle passes through the dura mater into the subarachnoid space, which is marked by a second give. At this point, clear cerebrospinal fluid should be obtained.
Overall, the lumbar puncture procedure is a complex process that requires careful attention to detail. By following the proper steps and guidelines, medical professionals can obtain cerebrospinal fluid safely and effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old woman with a history of lung cancer experiences malignant spinal cord compression, resulting in bilateral compression on the ventral horns of her spinal cord. What are the potential neurological symptoms that may present in this patient?
Your Answer: Pain and temperature loss below the level of the lesion
Correct Answer: Paresis below the level of the lesion
Explanation:Anterior cord lesions result in motor deficits because the ventral (anterior) horns of the spinal cord contain motor neuron cell bodies. These motor neurons run along the ventral corticospinal tract, which is responsible for voluntary bodily movement. Therefore, compression of the ventral part of the spinal cord by a tumor may cause paresis or paralysis below the level of the lesion. However, pain and temperature loss below the level of the lesion would be from compression of the spinothalamic tract, which runs more laterally in the spinal cord. Proprioception loss below the level of the lesion is also incorrect as it is neurologically tied to the dorsal-column medial-lemniscus tract, which runs dorsally. Additionally, spinal lesions affect sensory experience below the level of the lesion rather than above.
The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.
One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic after experiencing a seizure. During the history-taking, he reports that he first noticed shaking in his hand about an hour ago. The shaking continued for a few seconds before he lost consciousness and bit his tongue. He also experienced urinary incontinence. How would you describe this presentation?
Your Answer: Partial seizure
Correct Answer: Partial seizure with secondary generalisation
Explanation:Epilepsy is a neurological condition that causes recurrent seizures. In the UK, around 500,000 people have epilepsy, and two-thirds of them can control their seizures with antiepileptic medication. While epilepsy usually occurs in isolation, certain conditions like cerebral palsy, tuberous sclerosis, and mitochondrial diseases have an association with epilepsy. It’s important to note that seizures can also occur due to other reasons like infection, trauma, or metabolic disturbance.
Seizures can be classified into focal seizures, which start in a specific area of the brain, and generalised seizures, which involve networks on both sides of the brain. Patients who have had generalised seizures may experience biting their tongue or incontinence of urine. Following a seizure, patients typically have a postictal phase where they feel drowsy and tired for around 15 minutes.
Patients who have had their first seizure generally undergo an electroencephalogram (EEG) and neuroimaging (usually a MRI). Most neurologists start antiepileptics following a second epileptic seizure. Antiepileptics are one of the few drugs where it is recommended that we prescribe by brand, rather than generically, due to the risk of slightly different bioavailability resulting in a lowered seizure threshold.
Patients who drive, take other medications, wish to get pregnant, or take contraception need to consider the possible interactions of the antiepileptic medication. Some commonly used antiepileptics include sodium valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and phenytoin. In case of a seizure that doesn’t terminate after 5-10 minutes, medication like benzodiazepines may be administered to terminate the seizure. If a patient continues to fit despite such measures, they are said to have status epilepticus, which is a medical emergency requiring hospital treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 46-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of bilateral sciatica and partial urinary incontinence. Upon conducting a comprehensive examination and lumbosacral magnetic resonance imaging, the diagnosis of cauda equina syndrome is confirmed at the L2 level.
What is the most probable finding to be observed during the examination?Your Answer: S2-S4 anaesthesia
Explanation:Lesions in the lower lumbar region cannot result in upper motor neuron signs because the spinal cord terminates at L1.
The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.
One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man has a sarcoma removed from his right buttock, resulting in sacrifice of the sciatic nerve. What is one outcome that will not occur as a result of this procedure?
Your Answer: Foot drop
Correct Answer: Loss of extension at the knee joint
Explanation:The obturator and femoral nerves are responsible for causing extension of the knee joint.
Understanding the Sciatic Nerve
The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body, formed from the sacral plexus and arising from spinal nerves L4 to S3. It passes through the greater sciatic foramen and emerges beneath the piriformis muscle, running under the cover of the gluteus maximus muscle. The nerve provides cutaneous sensation to the skin of the foot and leg, as well as innervating the posterior thigh muscles and lower leg and foot muscles. Approximately halfway down the posterior thigh, the nerve splits into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The tibial nerve supplies the flexor muscles, while the common peroneal nerve supplies the extensor and abductor muscles.
The sciatic nerve also has articular branches for the hip joint and muscular branches in the upper leg, including the semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris, and part of the adductor magnus. Cutaneous sensation is provided to the posterior aspect of the thigh via cutaneous nerves, as well as the gluteal region and entire lower leg (except the medial aspect). The nerve terminates at the upper part of the popliteal fossa by dividing into the tibial and peroneal nerves. The nerve to the short head of the biceps femoris comes from the common peroneal part of the sciatic, while the other muscular branches arise from the tibial portion. The tibial nerve goes on to innervate all muscles of the foot except the extensor digitorum brevis, which is innervated by the common peroneal nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)