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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following treatment options for acute mania has been found to be less effective than a placebo?
Your Answer: Lithium
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:Antimanic Drugs: Efficacy and Acceptability
The Lancet published a meta-analysis conducted by Cipriani in 2011, which compared the efficacy and acceptability of various anti-manic drugs. The study found that antipsychotics were more effective than mood stabilizers in treating mania. The drugs that were best tolerated were towards the right of the figure, while the most effective drugs were towards the top. The drugs that were both well-tolerated and effective were considered the best overall, including olanzapine, risperidone, haloperidol, and quetiapine. Other drugs included in the analysis were aripiprazole, asenapine, carbamazepine, valproate, gabapentin, lamotrigine, lithium, placebo, topiramate, and ziprasidone. This study provides valuable information for clinicians in selecting the most appropriate antimanic drug for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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Which mental health issue has the strongest correlation with homicide rates?
Your Answer: Substance misuse
Explanation:When substance misuse is considered, the majority of harmful actions towards others are not attributed primarily to mental illness. Additionally, individuals with mental illness of intellectual disability are at a higher risk of being subjected to violence rather than being the ones who commit violent acts.
Homicide is classified into three categories in England and Wales: murder, manslaughter, and infanticide. Murder requires intent to kill of cause grievous bodily harm, while manslaughter can be voluntary of involuntary. Mental disorder is significantly associated with homicide, particularly in people diagnosed with schizophrenia and personality disorder. Homicide rates by people with a mental disorder are based on calculations of those with disposals such as ‘diminished responsibility’ and ‘not guilty by reason of insanity’. The age-standardised rate for homicide in people with schizophrenia is estimated to be around 0.1 / 100,000, which translates to about 20-30 mental disorder homicides each year in England and Wales. However, a significant proportion of these cases tend to have a secondary diagnosis of alcohol / drug dependence. Individuals with schizophrenia commit 5-6% of homicides in England.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A senior citizen who has been on diazepam for a number of years has recently been encouraged to stop them. You see them in clinic soon after they have started a reduction regime and they complain of a number of problems. Which of the following symptoms would most likely be related to them reducing their diazepam?:
Your Answer: Chest pain
Correct Answer: Weakness
Explanation:Benzodiazepines and Addiction
Benzodiazepines are known to be addictive and should only be prescribed as a hypnotic or anxiolytic for a maximum of 4 weeks. Withdrawal symptoms can be physical of psychological, including stiffness, weakness, GI disturbance, paraesthesia, flu-like symptoms, visual disturbance, anxiety, insomnia, nightmares, depersonalisation, decreased memory and concentration, delusions, and hallucinations. Patients who wish to withdraw from short-acting benzodiazepines should first be converted to diazepam, which has a longer half-life and produces less severe withdrawal. The table provides approximate equivalent doses for different benzodiazepines. These guidelines are from the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A new drug which may reduce the chance of elderly patients developing arthritis is introduced. In one study of 2,000 elderly patients, 1,200 received the new drug and 120 patients developed arthritis. The remaining 800 patients received a placebo and 200 developed arthritis. What is the absolute risk reduction of developing arthritis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:To calculate the ARR, we first need to find the CER and EER. The CER is the conversion rate of the control group, which is 200 out of 800, of 0.25. The EER is the conversion rate of the experimental group, which is 120 out of 1,200, of 0.1.
To find the ARR, we subtract the EER from the CER:
ARR = CER – EER
ARR = 0.25 – 0.1
ARR = 0.15Therefore, the ARR is 0.15 of 15%.
Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A new antihypertensive medication is trialled for adults with high blood pressure. There are 500 adults in the control group and 300 adults assigned to take the new medication. After 6 months, 200 adults in the control group had high blood pressure compared to 30 adults in the group taking the new medication. What is the relative risk reduction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 75%
Explanation:The RRR (Relative Risk Reduction) is calculated by dividing the ARR (Absolute Risk Reduction) by the CER (Control Event Rate). The CER is determined by dividing the number of control events by the total number of participants, which in this case is 200/500 of 0.4. The EER (Experimental Event Rate) is determined by dividing the number of events in the experimental group by the total number of participants, which in this case is 30/300 of 0.1. The ARR is calculated by subtracting the EER from the CER, which is 0.4 – 0.1 = 0.3. Finally, the RRR is calculated by dividing the ARR by the CER, which is 0.3/0.4 of 0.75 (of 75%).
Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which study design is susceptible to making the erroneous assumption that relationships observed among groups also hold true for individuals?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ecological study
Explanation:An ecological fallacy is a potential error that can occur when generalizing relationships observed among groups to individuals. This is a concern when conducting analyses of ecological studies.
Types of Primary Research Studies and Their Advantages and Disadvantages
Primary research studies can be categorized into six types based on the research question they aim to address. The best type of study for each question type is listed in the table below. There are two main types of study design: experimental and observational. Experimental studies involve an intervention, while observational studies do not. The advantages and disadvantages of each study type are summarized in the table below.
Type of Question Best Type of Study
Therapy Randomized controlled trial (RCT), cohort, case control, case series
Diagnosis Cohort studies with comparison to gold standard test
Prognosis Cohort studies, case control, case series
Etiology/Harm RCT, cohort studies, case control, case series
Prevention RCT, cohort studies, case control, case series
Cost Economic analysisStudy Type Advantages Disadvantages
Randomized Controlled Trial – Unbiased distribution of confounders – Blinding more likely – Randomization facilitates statistical analysis – Expensive – Time-consuming – Volunteer bias – Ethically problematic at times
Cohort Study – Ethically safe – Subjects can be matched – Can establish timing and directionality of events – Eligibility criteria and outcome assessments can be standardized – Administratively easier and cheaper than RCT – Controls may be difficult to identify – Exposure may be linked to a hidden confounder – Blinding is difficult – Randomization not present – For rare disease, large sample sizes of long follow-up necessary
Case-Control Study – Quick and cheap – Only feasible method for very rare disorders of those with long lag between exposure and outcome – Fewer subjects needed than cross-sectional studies – Reliance on recall of records to determine exposure status – Confounders – Selection of control groups is difficult – Potential bias: recall, selection
Cross-Sectional Survey – Cheap and simple – Ethically safe – Establishes association at most, not causality – Recall bias susceptibility – Confounders may be unequally distributed – Neyman bias – Group sizes may be unequal
Ecological Study – Cheap and simple – Ethically safe – Ecological fallacy (when relationships which exist for groups are assumed to also be true for individuals)In conclusion, the choice of study type depends on the research question being addressed. Each study type has its own advantages and disadvantages, and researchers should carefully consider these when designing their studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the minimum time interval required after a suspected paracetamol overdose before levels can be measured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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As a consultant child and adolescent psychiatrist visiting a local high school, you have been asked by the principal for advice on interventions to reduce the suicide rate among students. Due to limited funds, it is important to focus on the most common method of suicide among this age group.
Which method of suicide would you recommend the principal to address in their intervention plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hanging
Explanation:The most prevalent method of suicide in prisons across the country is hanging of self-strangulation. As a result, the prison service places a high priority on eliminating ligature points. For more information on this topic, refer to the National Clinical Survey on Suicide by Prisoners conducted by Shaw et al. in 2004, which can be found in the British Journal of Psychiatry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A middle aged male is brought to the hospital by the police after being found wandering in the city centre. He appears confused and disoriented, and has a strong smell of alcohol. Upon examination, you observe red cheeks and multiple spider angiomas. The patient attempts to leave the department and exhibits significant gait disturbance. Although his neurological examination is challenging due to his level of agitation, you do not detect ophthalmoplegia. What medication would you prescribe for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pabrinex
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.
The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.
Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What demographic is most frequently targeted in homicides committed by individuals receiving mental health treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acquaintance
Explanation:Homicide is a serious issue in the UK, with an average of 580 convictions each year. Shockingly, 11% of those convicted were patients under mental health services, although this figure has been decreasing. An independent review of mental health homicides found that 80% of perpetrators were male, with a mean age of 37. In most cases, the perpetrator knew the victim, with 33% being friends and 33% being partners. Illicit substances were used in 75% of cases, and 95% of perpetrators were in the community at the time of the offence. These findings highlight the need for continued efforts to prevent homicides and support those with mental health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What percentage of values fall within one standard deviation above and below the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 68.20%
Explanation:Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate denominator to use when computing the sample variance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: n-1
Explanation:Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What was the percentage of restricted patients who were convicted again within 2 years of transitioning into the community, based on UK data from 1998 to 2006?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7%
Explanation:Recidivism Rates of Restricted Patients vs. UK Prison Population
Restricted patients are individuals who are under the risk management of the Secretary of State for Justice and receive care in secure hospitals. From 1998 to 2006, less than 500 restricted cases per year were reintegrated into the community, and their two-year re-conviction rates were 7% for all offenses and 1% for serious offenses. In contrast, the UK prison population had a much higher recidivism rate. In the first quarter of 2004, out of 20,000 individuals released from prison, 65% were convicted again for any offense. These findings suggest that the risk management strategies for restricted patients may be more effective in reducing recidivism rates compared to the general prison population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s on Clozaril receives an amber result from the CPMS. What course of action should be taken in response?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient should continue taking clozapine but should have another blood test in two days time and then twice weekly until the result becomes normal
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate term to describe the act of passing normal feces in inappropriate locations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Encopresis
Explanation:Elimination Disorders
Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.
Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.
Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.
Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Anthony Ryle is credited with the development of which therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive analytic therapy
Explanation:Fonagy and Bateman – Mentalisation-Based Treatment
Mentalisation-Based Treatment (MBT) was developed by Peter Fonagy and Anthony Bateman in the 1990s. It is a psychodynamic therapy that focuses on improving the patient’s ability to mentalise, which is the capacity to understand one’s own and others’ mental states. MBT is primarily used to treat borderline personality disorder, but it has also been used to treat other mental health conditions.
Fonagy and Bateman work on MBT was influenced by their research on attachment theory and the importance of early relationships in shaping mentalisation abilities. They believed that individuals with borderline personality disorder have difficulties with mentalisation due to early attachment disruptions, and that MBT could help them develop more stable and secure relationships.
MBT is typically delivered in a group of individual format, and it involves a combination of psychoeducation, cognitive-behavioral techniques, and psychodynamic interventions. The therapist helps the patient to identify and reflect on their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors, and to understand how these are influenced by their past experiences and relationships. The therapist also helps the patient to develop more adaptive coping strategies and to improve their interpersonal skills.
Overall, Fonagy and Bateman work on MBT has contributed to the development of psychodynamic therapies that are more focused on specific treatment goals and evidence-based practices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old patient is referred by their GP with memory problems. You establish a diagnosis of mild cognitive impairment. What is recommended for prevention of dementia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None are recommended
Explanation:Mild Cognitive Impairment: A Transitional Zone between Normal Function and Alzheimer’s Disease
Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a clinical syndrome that describes individuals who do not meet the criteria for dementia but have a high risk of progressing to a dementia disorder. MCI is a transitional zone between normal cognitive function and clinically probable Alzheimer’s disease (AD). The diagnosis of MCI is based on self and/of informant report and impairment on objective cognitive tasks, evidence of decline over time on objective cognitive tasks, and preserved basic activities of daily living/minimal impairment in complex instrumental functions.
When individuals with MCI are followed over time, some progress to AD and other dementia types, while others remain stable of even recover. The principal cognitive impairment can be amnestic, single non-memory domain, of involving multiple cognitive domains. There is evidence that deficits in regional cerebral blood flow and regional cerebral glucose metabolism could predict future development of AD in individuals with MCI.
Currently, there is no evidence for long-term efficacy of approved pharmacological treatments in MCI. However, epidemiological studies have indicated a reduced risk of dementia in individuals taking antihypertensive medications, cholesterol-lowering drugs, antioxidants, anti-inflammatories, and estrogen therapy. Randomized clinical trials are needed to verify these associations.
Two clinical screening instruments, the CAMCog (part of the CAMDEX) and the SISCO (part of the SIDAM), allow for a broad assessment of mild cognitive impairment. MCI represents a critical stage in the progression of cognitive decline and highlights the importance of early detection and intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The researcher conducted a study to test his hypothesis that a new drug would effectively treat depression. The results of the study indicated that his hypothesis was true, but in reality, it was not. What happened?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type I error
Explanation:Type I errors occur when we reject a null hypothesis that is actually true, leading us to believe that there is a significant difference of effect when there is not.
Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You have been asked to assess a 60-year-old female at the cardiac unit of the local general hospital. She suffered a myocardial (MI) infarction three weeks ago and has been recovering well physically.
The medical team are concerned that she is experiencing frequent crying spells. You observe evidence of low mood, anhedonia and sleep disturbance.
The woman feels hopeless about the future and has fleeting thoughts of suicide. She has a history of depression which responded well to antidepressant treatment.
Which antidepressant would you recommend based on its demonstrated safety post-myocardial infarction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:According to a study published in JAMA, sertraline is a safe and effective treatment for depression in patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) of unstable angina. The study found that sertraline not only has antidepressant effects but also inhibits platelet aggregation. This suggests that sertraline may have additional benefits for patients with cardiovascular disease. For more information, refer to Glassman et al.’s study in JAMA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the most significant risk factor for autism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Having an affected sibling
Explanation:Extensive research has shown that the MMR vaccine does not pose a risk. Autism is not linked to one’s socioeconomic status and does not correlate with a high level of intelligence.
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive behaviors. The distinction between autism and Asperger’s has been abandoned, and they are now grouped together under the ASD category. Intellectual ability is difficult to assess in people with ASD, with an estimated 33% having an intellectual disability. ASD was first described in Europe and the United States using different terms, with Leo Kanner and Hans Asperger being the pioneers. Diagnosis is based on persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. The worldwide population prevalence is about 1%, with comorbidity being common. Heritability is estimated at around 90%, and both genetic and environmental factors seem to cause ASD. Currently, there are no validated pharmacological treatments that alleviate core ASD symptoms, but second-generation antipsychotics are the first-line pharmacological treatment for children and adolescents with ASD and associated irritability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which offense is classified as a summary offense?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Soliciting in a public place
Explanation:While prostitution is not illegal in the UK, certain activities related to it are considered criminal offenses. These include soliciting in public, managing a brothel, and pimping. Most of these offenses are considered summary offenses, but more serious offenses, such as rape, murder, and piracy, are considered indictable offenses and are tried in the Crown Court.
Court Structure in England and Wales
The legal system in England and Wales is divided into two main categories: criminal and civil law. Criminal law governs the rules set by the state for citizens, while civil law regulates the relationships and transactions between citizens.
All criminal cases begin in the Magistrates’ Court. Criminal offenses are classified into three main categories: summary offenses, triable either way offenses, and indictable offenses. Summary offenses are the least serious and are tried in the Magistrates’ Court, with a maximum penalty of six months imprisonment and/of a fine of up to £5,000. Triable either way offenses are the middle range of crimes and can be tried in either the Magistrates’ Court of Crown Court. Indictable offenses are the most serious crimes, including murder, manslaughter, and rape, and must be tried in the Crown Court, with the first hearing at the Magistrates’ Court.
Magistrates’ courts handle 95% of cases, including many civil cases such as family matters, liquor licensing, and betting and gaming. Magistrates cannot typically order sentences of imprisonment exceeding six months (of 12 months for consecutive sentences) of fines exceeding £5,000. In cases triable either way, the offender may be committed by the magistrates to the Crown Court for sentencing if a more severe sentence is deemed necessary.
The Crown Court deals with serious criminal cases, some of which are on appeal of referred from Magistrates’ courts. Trials are heard by a Judge and a 12-person jury. The Crown Court is located at 77 centers across England and Wales and handles cases transferred from the Magistrates’ Courts. It also hears appeals against decisions of Magistrate’s Courts and deals with cases sent for sentence from Magistrates’ Courts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is brought to the GP by her mother. The mother reports that she has noticed a change in her daughter's behavior over the past week. She has been more irritable and talkative than usual, and her thoughts seem to be racing. However, the daughter denies any problems and insists that she feels great, despite getting very little sleep. There is no evidence of psychosis, and she has not missed any work. The mother reports a similar episode last year and a history of depression when her daughter was 14. Additionally, the mother's sister was hospitalized and given ECT many years ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bipolar II disorder
Explanation:Based on the symptoms presented, it appears that the individual is experiencing either mania or hypomania. However, as there are no psychotic symptoms and the impairment is not severe, it is more likely that this is hypomania rather than mania. Therefore, the individual may be diagnosed with bipolar II disorder.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What does the term diagnostic overshadowing refer to in the context of learning disabilities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The assumption that the presence of a learning disability explains the entire patient's behaviour
Explanation:Diagnostic Shadowing: The Danger of Assuming One Condition Explains All
Diagnostic shadowing refers to the risk of assuming that a single condition can account for all of a patient’s behavior of symptoms. This can lead to misdiagnosis and inappropriate treatment. For instance, a patient with a learning disability may be assumed to be aggressive solely due to their disability, when in fact they may have an underlying condition such as schizophrenia that has not been identified. Failing to recognize this underlying condition can result in ineffective treatment and a failure to address the root cause of the patient’s behavior. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for diagnostic shadowing and to consider all possible explanations for a patient’s symptoms. By doing so, they can provide more accurate diagnoses and better care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What evidence indicates the presence of obsessive compulsive personality disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to discard worn out objects with no sentimental value
Explanation:It is important to note that there is a significant difference between obsessive compulsive disorder and obsessive compulsive personality disorder.
Personality Disorder (Obsessive Compulsive)
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control, which can hinder flexibility and efficiency. This pattern typically emerges in early adulthood and can be present in various contexts. The estimated prevalence ranges from 2.1% to 7.9%, with males being diagnosed twice as often as females.
The DSM-5 diagnosis requires the presence of four of more of the following criteria: preoccupation with details, rules, lists, order, organization, of agenda to the point that the key part of the activity is lost; perfectionism that hampers completing tasks; extreme dedication to work and efficiency to the elimination of spare time activities; meticulous, scrupulous, and rigid about etiquettes of morality, ethics, of values; inability to dispose of worn-out of insignificant things even when they have no sentimental meaning; unwillingness to delegate tasks of work with others except if they surrender to exactly their way of doing things; miserly spending style towards self and others; and rigidity and stubbornness.
The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder, which can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” The anankastic trait domain is characterized by a narrow focus on one’s rigid standard of perfection and of right and wrong, and on controlling one’s own and others’ behavior and controlling situations to ensure conformity to these standards. Common manifestations of anankastic include perfectionism and emotional and behavioral constraint.
Differential diagnosis includes OCD, hoarding disorder, narcissistic personality disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and schizoid personality disorder. OCD is distinguished by the presence of true obsessions and compulsions, while hoarding disorder should be considered when hoarding is extreme. Narcissistic personality disorder individuals are more likely to believe that they have achieved perfection, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are usually self-critical. Antisocial personality disorder individuals lack generosity but will indulge themselves, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder adopt a miserly spending style toward both self and others. Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a fundamental lack of capacity for intimacy, while in obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, this stems from discomfort with emotions and excessive devotion to work.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the truth about the use of clozapine in combination with other medications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tobacco smoke tends to decrease clozapine levels
Explanation:The levels of clozapine are decreased by smoking.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An 87-year-old male is admitted with increasing confusion and lethargy, and his family have been particularly concerned that he has been unable to look after himself.
He has a recent history of hypertension and diabetes for which he takes lisinopril, metformin and amlodipine. On examination, he has a temperature of 36.2°C, and is confused in time and place.
His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg and his pulse 60 bpm regular. Abdominal examination reveals little but PR examination reveals that the rectum is loaded with faeces. Examination of the CNS reveals blunted tendon reflexes but no focal neurology. Initial investigations reveal:
Haemoglobin 130 g/L (120-160)
MCV 98 fL (80-100)
Platelets 200 ×109/L (150-400)
White cell count 7.2 ×109/L (4-11)
Sodium 135 mmol/L (135-145)
Potassium 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 120 mmol/L (60-110)
Glucose 10.5 mmol/L (4-7)
Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:The patient has a brief history of growing confusion and struggling to cope, with primary symptoms of confusion, constipation, hypothermia, and reduced tendon reflexes. The tests indicate a higher than normal mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mild hyponatremia. These symptoms are consistent with hypothyroidism, and the most suitable test would be thyroid function tests, which should show a decrease in free thyroxine (T4) and an increase in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which statement about confounding is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In the analytic stage of a study confounding can be controlled for by randomisation
Explanation:In the analytic stage of a study, confounding cannot be controlled for by the technique of stratification. (This is false, as stratification is a technique commonly used to control for confounding in observational studies.)
Stats Confounding
A confounding factor is a factor that can obscure the relationship between an exposure and an outcome in a study. This factor is associated with both the exposure and the disease. For example, in a study that finds a link between coffee consumption and heart disease, smoking could be a confounding factor because it is associated with both drinking coffee and heart disease. Confounding occurs when there is a non-random distribution of risk factors in the population, such as age, sex, and social class.
To control for confounding in the design stage of an experiment, researchers can use randomization, restriction, of matching. Randomization aims to produce an even distribution of potential risk factors in two populations. Restriction involves limiting the study population to a specific group to ensure similar age distributions. Matching involves finding and enrolling participants who are similar in terms of potential confounding factors.
In the analysis stage of an experiment, researchers can control for confounding by using stratification of multivariate models such as logistic regression, linear regression, of analysis of covariance (ANCOVA). Stratification involves creating categories of strata in which the confounding variable does not vary of varies minimally.
Overall, controlling for confounding is important in ensuring that the relationship between an exposure and an outcome is accurately assessed in a study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is a correct statement about funnel plots?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Each dot represents a separate study result
Explanation:An asymmetric funnel plot may indicate the presence of publication bias, although this is not a definitive confirmation. The x-axis typically represents a measure of effect, such as the risk ratio of odds ratio, although other measures may also be used.
Stats Publication Bias
Publication bias refers to the tendency for studies with positive findings to be published more than studies with negative findings, leading to incomplete data sets in meta-analyses and erroneous conclusions. Graphical methods such as funnel plots, Galbraith plots, ordered forest plots, and normal quantile plots can be used to detect publication bias. Funnel plots are the most commonly used and offer an easy visual way to ensure that published literature is evenly weighted. The x-axis represents the effect size, and the y-axis represents the study size. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape indicates that publication bias is unlikely, while an asymmetrical funnel indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, indicating either publication bias of small study effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 29
Incorrect
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After creating a scatter plot of the data, what would be the next step for the researcher to determine if there is a linear relationship between a person's age and blood pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pearson's coefficient
Explanation:Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not indicate a possible diagnosis of post traumatic stress disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersomnia
Explanation:Individuals with PTSD often struggle with sleep disturbances, while atypical depression is characterized by hypersomnia of excessive sleeping.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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