-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
You are a new partner in a practice and have taken over responsibility for overseeing the repeat prescribing system.
You want to reduce any risks of prescribing errors occurring and so want to know the risk factors for prescribing errors.
Which factor increases the likelihood of a prescribing error occurring in elderly patients?Your Answer: Increasing numbers of prescriptions for a patient
Correct Answer: Larger practices (>10,000 patients)
Explanation:Factors that Increase the Risk of Medication Errors
The General Medical Council (GMC) conducted a study to identify the factors that increase the risk of medication errors. The findings revealed that several factors contribute to medication errors, including an increasing number of prescriptions for a patient, men, children, and elderly patients. Additionally, smaller practices with less than 10,000 patients were found to be at higher risk of medication errors. Finally, failure to reconcile medications when discharge summaries are received was also identified as a significant risk factor. These findings highlight the importance of implementing effective medication management strategies to reduce the risk of medication errors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man presents to your urgent clinic with a red left eye. He reports that he woke up this morning and noticed the redness, which was not present when he went to bed last night. He denies any pain, discharge, or itching in the eye. His visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes and he doesn't wear contact lenses. He has no significant medical history and takes no regular medications.
Upon examination, his blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg. There is a uniform area of redness in the medial inferior quadrant of the left eye. The cornea appears normal and the pupil reacts appropriately to light.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Subconjunctival haemorrhage
Explanation:A painless red eye that occurs suddenly is often caused by subconjunctival haemorrhage. This condition doesn’t affect the cornea and typically resolves on its own within two weeks. However, it is important to check the patient’s blood pressure as subconjunctival haemorrhage can rarely be linked to hypertension. On the other hand, a painful red eye may be caused by conditions such as herpes zoster ophthalmicus, scleritis, or uveitis. Conjunctivitis, which is characterized by a gritty sensation and ocular discharge, usually affects both eyes.
Subconjunctival haemorrhages occur when blood vessels in the subconjunctival space bleed. These vessels typically supply the conjunctiva or episclera. Trauma is the most common cause, followed by spontaneous idiopathic cases, Valsalva manoeuvres, and several systemic diseases. While subconjunctival haemorrhages can look alarming, they are rarely an indicator of anything serious. They are more common in women than men, and the risk increases with age. Newborns are also more susceptible. The incidence of both traumatic and non-traumatic subconjunctival haemorrhages is 2.6%.
Risk factors for subconjunctival haemorrhages include trauma, contact lens usage, idiopathic causes, Valsalva manoeuvres, hypertension, bleeding disorders, certain drugs, diabetes, arterial disease, and hyperlipidaemia. Symptoms include a red eye, usually unilateral, and mild irritation. Signs include a flat, red patch on the conjunctiva with well-defined edges and normal conjunctiva surrounding it. The patch’s size can vary depending on the size of the bleed and can involve the whole conjunctiva. Traumatic haemorrhages are most common in the temporal region, with the inferior conjunctiva as the next most commonly affected area. Vision should be normal, including acuity, visual fields, and range of eye movements. On examination, the fundus should be normal.
The diagnosis of a subconjunctival haemorrhage is clinical. If there is no obvious traumatic cause, check the patient’s blood pressure. If raised, refer the patient appropriately. If the patient is taking warfarin, check the INR. If raised, refer for appropriate adjustments to the dose to bring the INR back into the target range. If you cannot see the whole border of the haemorrhage, it may be associated with an intracranial bleed or an orbital roof fracture. Further appropriate investigations should then be done, including a full cranial nerve exam looking for neurological signs as well as a CT head, after discussion with a senior. Recurrent or spontaneous, bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages warrant investigations for bleeding disorders or other pathology.
Reassure the patient that subconjunctival haemorrhages are a benign condition that will resolve on their own in 2 to 3 weeks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking emergency contraception. She had unprotected sex 24 hours ago but missed taking her desogestrel pill for the past 24 hours by mistake. She has never used emergency contraception before. Her last menstrual period was 5 days ago, and she has a regular 30-day cycle. She is in good health with no other medical conditions. She declines an intrauterine device and requests ulipristal acetate after discussing her options.
Her blood pressure measures 120/80 mmHg, and her body mass index is 23 kg/m2.
You prescribe ulipristal acetate for her. What advice would you give her regarding restarting her regular contraception?Your Answer: Start desogestrel after 5 days. No additional precautions are required
Correct Answer: Start desogestrel after 5 days. Use additional precautions till desogestrel commenced and for a further 48 hours
Explanation:Women who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for at least 5 days before starting regular hormonal contraception, according to current guidelines. This is because ulipristal acetate may decrease the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Additionally, taking desogestrel hormonal contraception within 5 days of ulipristal acetate can also reduce the efficacy of emergency contraception. It is recommended to use additional precautions until contraceptive cover is re-established, and if desogestrel is being used, this should be after 48 hours. It would be helpful to discuss long-acting reversible contraception options with the patient in this case.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
What is true about jugular venous pulsation (JVP)?
Your Answer: Is paradoxical in constrictive pericarditis
Explanation:Impedance of Ventricular Contraction in Constrictive Pericarditis and Cardiac Tamponade
Both constrictive pericarditis and cardiac tamponade can cause impedance of ventricular contraction, which becomes more severe as the diaphragm descends. This results in an increase in venous pressure during inspiration, known as Kussmaul’s sign.
To assess the jugular venous pressure (JVP), the patient should be lying at a 45-degree angle. Normally, the JVP is not palpable except in severe tricuspid regurgitation, and the pressure is assessed relative to the manubrium sterni. In early left ventricular failure, the JVP may be normal, but as fluid retention increases, the veins become congested, leading to congestive cardiac failure (CCF).
In summary, both constrictive pericarditis and cardiac tamponade can lead to impedance of ventricular contraction and an increase in venous pressure during inspiration, which can be assessed through the JVP. Congestion of the veins can also occur in CCF.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 65-year-old man of Mediterranean origin with chronic kidney disease presents for his annual check-up. His most recent eGFR is 50 mL/min/1.73m2 and his urine albumin creatinine ratio is 42 mg/mmol. He reports feeling well and adhering to the aspirin and atorvastatin prescribed to him last year. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home and provides a week's worth of readings, which indicate an average blood pressure of 143/95 mmHg.
What recommendations would you make for this patient?Your Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor
Explanation:For patients with chronic kidney disease, the urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) is an important measure of protein loss in the urine. If the ACR is 30 or more, the first line of treatment should be an ACE inhibitor, as it can reduce proteinuria and provide renal protection beyond its use as an antihypertensive. However, if the ACR is less than 30, current NICE guidelines on hypertension should be followed for treatment.
In the case of this patient, an ACE inhibitor should be considered as the first line of treatment since their ACR is greater than 30. Thiazide-like diuretics are a suitable alternative to calcium channel blockers for non-diabetic patients with hypertension and can be used as a second line option. Beta blockers are not a first line option for blood pressure control in non-diabetic patients and are only recommended as a step 4 treatment for hypertension.
If there is doubt about the validity of the patient’s home readings or if they prefer lifestyle management, monitoring without medication changes may be a viable option. However, tight blood pressure control is essential to slow the rate of deterioration of chronic kidney disease and reduce cardiovascular risk.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
The parents of a 5-year-old child are worried about his bed wetting, as he has been dry at night for the past two years. What should they do?
Your Answer: Suggest a pre-bed routine and avoid drinks before going to bed
Correct Answer: Reassure that bedwetting would be expected at this age
Explanation:Possible revised version:
Possible Causes of Bedwetting in Children
Bed wetting, or nocturnal enuresis, is a common problem among young children, especially those under the age of 6. However, if a child has been dry at night for a while and suddenly starts wetting the bed again, it may indicate an underlying issue that needs to be addressed. Some possible causes of bed wetting in children include psychological effects, urinary tract infections, and diabetes.
Psychological effects are the most common cause of bedwetting in children who have already achieved nighttime dryness. Stress, anxiety, fear, and other emotional factors can disrupt the normal control of the bladder and lead to involuntary urination during sleep. Children who experience major life changes, such as moving to a new home, starting school, or dealing with family conflicts, may be more prone to bed wetting.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are another possible cause of bedwetting in children. UTIs can irritate the bladder and cause frequent urination, urgency, and pain or discomfort during urination. Children with UTIs may also have other symptoms, such as fever, abdominal pain, or foul-smelling urine. UTIs can be diagnosed with a urine test and treated with antibiotics.
Diabetes, especially type 1 diabetes, can also cause bed wetting in children. This is because high blood sugar levels can increase urine production and make it harder for the kidneys to concentrate urine at night. Children with diabetes may also have other symptoms, such as excessive thirst, hunger, fatigue, and weight loss. Diabetes can be diagnosed with a blood test and managed with insulin therapy and other measures.
In summary, bed wetting in children who have been dry for a while may indicate a psychological, urinary, or metabolic problem that requires medical attention. Parents should talk to their child’s doctor if bed wetting persists or is accompanied by other symptoms. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most cases of bed wetting can be resolved or managed effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old girl comes to your clinic after her mother notices a lump in her abdomen while getting her dressed. During the examination, you find a mass in her left upper quadrant. You collect a urine sample, which shows positive results for blood on dipstick testing. Other than that, she appears to be healthy.
What is the probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: Splenomegaly
Correct Answer: Wilms’ tumour
Explanation:Distinguishing Childhood Abdominal Malignancies: Wilms’ Tumour, Hodgkin’s Lymphoma, and More
Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is the most common abdominal malignancy in children. It arises from undifferentiated mesodermal cells and typically presents as an asymptomatic abdominal mass in children under five years old. However, it can also occur in adults. Other symptoms may include abdominal pain, haematuria, urinary infection, hypertension, or pyrexia. With treatment, over 90% of children with Wilms’ tumour survive into adulthood.
Hodgkin’s lymphoma, on the other hand, is a rare malignancy in children. It typically presents with lymphadenopathy, most commonly in the cervical region, but hepatosplenomegaly may also occur.
Constipation, hepatoblastoma, and splenomegaly are not likely diagnoses in this scenario. Constipated children typically have infrequent stools and a palpable faecal mass in the lower left abdomen. Hepatoblastoma is a rare malignancy that presents with a mass on the right side of the abdomen, and splenomegaly is not typically associated with haematuria.
In summary, distinguishing between childhood abdominal malignancies such as Wilms’ tumour and Hodgkin’s lymphoma requires careful consideration of the presenting symptoms and physical examination findings.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis (UC) comes to you with deteriorating symptoms. You believe he is experiencing a UC flare-up but doesn't need to be hospitalized based on clinical indications. He is presently taking suboptimal oral mesalazine once a day. He has no IBD care plan in place but has been diagnosed with severe disease.
What is the best course of action for managing his UC flare-up?Your Answer: Start a tapering course of oral prednisolone
Correct Answer: Start oral budesonide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis Flares
Oral or rectal mesalazine (or rectal steroids) are the recommended first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) flares. The dose of oral mesalazine can be increased up to 4.8g daily for the treatment of flares. It is important to review the patient’s response to treatment after 2 weeks, or sooner if deterioration occurs.
While oral steroids are a potential treatment for UC flare-ups, they are not considered first-line treatments. Alternatives to oral steroids are preferred where possible. Immunosuppressants such as azathioprine and mercaptopurine may be considered by secondary care.
If a patient requires more than 2 courses of steroids in 12 months or is unable to reduce their oral steroid use below 15 mg prednisolone per day, escalation of IBD therapy may be necessary. It is important to inform the patient’s IBD team that a flare has occurred.
The IBD toolkit developed with the RCGP provides helpful advice on flare management. To ensure effective treatment of UC flares, it is important to follow these guidelines and work closely with the patient’s healthcare team.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
You run a pediatric clinic in an area which has a high South Asian Muslim population. Currently you operate clinic hours from 9 am-5 pm from Monday to Friday, with an extra clinic on a Saturday morning. The clinic manager comes to see you with a proposal to stop the clinic on a Thursday afternoon to allow for staff training.
Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations before changing the clinic hours?Your Answer: A formal impact assessment of the proposed surgery timing change is essential
Correct Answer: You should meet informally to consider possible impact on ethnic and religious groups of your change
Explanation:Importance of Considering Equality and Diversity in Policy Changes
By law, it is mandatory to consider equality and diversity issues before implementing any changes in practice policy. For instance, if consulting time is removed from Thursday afternoons and reallocated to Fridays, it could significantly disadvantage Muslim patients who observe Friday as a holy day. Therefore, the NHS guide to equality and diversity recommends conducting a formal impact assessment of the change to ensure that it doesn’t discriminate against any group.
While the fifth option may seem like a reasonable first step, it doesn’t fully meet the obligations of ensuring equality and diversity. It is crucial to take into account the needs and preferences of all patients, regardless of their race, religion, gender, or any other characteristic. By doing so, healthcare providers can ensure that their policies and practices are inclusive and accessible to everyone.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
During the past month, have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed, or hopeless?
A 55-year-old man is attending the diabetic clinic. You are aware that people with a chronic physical health problem such as diabetes are more likely to suffer from depression. You wish to screen for this.
Select from the list the most suitable question to ask him.Your Answer: Have you had feelings of worthlessness?
Correct Answer: Have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?
Explanation:Screening for Depression: Two Questions Recommended by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends two questions for screening depression: Have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things? and Have you been feeling down, depressed or hopeless? These questions relate to the past month and have a sensitivity of 96% and a specificity of 57%. While useful for screening, they are not sufficient for diagnosis.
Screening for depression is particularly important for those with a history of depression, significant physical illness, or other mental health problems like dementia. Depression and dementia can have similar symptoms, making screening crucial. Other high-risk groups include women in the puerperium, alcoholics and drug abusers, socially isolated individuals (especially the elderly), people in stressful situations, and those with unexplained symptoms.
If a patient answers yes to the screening questions, further questions about worthlessness, concentration, and thoughts of death should follow. Early detection and treatment of depression can improve outcomes and quality of life for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about hair loss that she believes began after giving birth to her second child 10 months ago. She reports being in good health and not taking any medications. During your examination, you observe areas of hair loss on the back of her head. The skin appears normal, and you notice a few short, broken hairs at the edges of two of the patches. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Trichotillomania
Correct Answer: Alopecia areata
Explanation:Understanding Alopecia Areata
Alopecia areata is a condition that is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response, resulting in localized hair loss that is well-defined and demarcated. This condition is characterized by the presence of small, broken hairs that resemble exclamation marks at the edge of the hair loss. While hair regrowth occurs in about 50% of patients within a year, it eventually occurs in 80-90% of patients. In many cases, a careful explanation of the condition is sufficient for patients. However, there are several treatment options available, including topical or intralesional corticosteroids, topical minoxidil, phototherapy, dithranol, contact immunotherapy, and wigs. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for alopecia areata to effectively manage this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Sophie, a 25-year-old female, attends the GP surgery on a Wednesday afternoon at 14:00 after having had an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse the preceding Saturday night at 23:00. She is not currently using any contraception.
Her last menstrual period was 12 days prior to the episode and she has not had any previous episodes of unprotected sexual intercourse. She has a regular period every 30 days. She has never been pregnant. Her PMH includes Migraines and Eczema. DH - sumatriptan prn, emollients. She has no known drug allergies. She is requesting emergency contraception and wishes to have ongoing contraception.
Which is the single most appropriate management from the options below?Your Answer: She should be offered levonelle (levonorgestrel) at a standard dose and quick started on the combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: She should be offered ellaone (ulipristal acetate) and quick started on the combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Emergency Contraception for Naomi
Naomi has presented more than 72 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI), making Levonelle ineffective. Additionally, she is taking a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) which can reduce the effectiveness of ulipristal acetate. Therefore, the most appropriate management for her is the emergency intrauterine device (IUD), which is the most effective emergency contraceptive and provides ongoing contraceptive cover. It is important to note that progesterone-containing contraception should be delayed until after 5/7 after ellaone (ulipristal acetate) to reduce the risk of it being less effective as an emergency contraceptive.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
An 81-year-old widow presents to you with complaints of recurrent pains throughout her body every morning, which often leave her bedridden for a few hours. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found, and there is no evidence of arthritis. Blood tests, including a full blood count, renal profile, liver function tests, ESR, and bone profile, have all been unremarkable. She reports having trouble sleeping since her husband passed away 2 years ago. What would be the most suitable treatment option for her?
Your Answer: Haloperidol
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Physical symptoms are a common manifestation of depression, especially in older patients who may not directly express their mood difficulties. Therefore, it is important to investigate a patient’s mood when they present with unexplained symptoms. Although regular paracetamol may have a placebo effect, it cannot address the underlying issue. Antipsychotics like haloperidol are not suitable in this scenario. Gabapentin is unlikely to be effective unless the patient has neuropathic pain. While zopiclone may improve sleep, it is not a long-term solution and cannot address the root cause of the problem.
Understanding Depression in Older Adults
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects people of all ages, including older adults. However, older patients are less likely to report feelings of depressed mood, which can make it difficult for healthcare professionals to identify and manage the condition. Instead, older adults may present with physical complaints, such as hypochondriasis, agitation, and insomnia.
To manage depression in older adults, healthcare professionals typically prescribe selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) as a first-line treatment. This is because the adverse side-effect profile of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) can be more problematic in older adults. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the unique challenges associated with managing depression in older adults and to work closely with patients to develop an individualized treatment plan that addresses their specific needs and concerns. By doing so, healthcare professionals can help older adults manage their depression and improve their overall quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old businessman has noticed a constricting discomfort in his throat, left shoulder and arm for the past few weeks when he exercises at the gym. He stops exercising and it goes away within five minutes. He has taken glyceryl trinitrate and finds it relieves the pain. His blood pressure is 158/94 mmHg and examination of the cardiovascular system and upper limbs is normal. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day.
Which of the following investigations is most appropriate to confirm this patient's most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Exercise electrocardiogram
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) coronary angiography
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Stable Angina: CT Coronary Angiography, Non-Invasive Functional Imaging, ECG, Endoscopy, and Exercise ECG
Stable angina is suspected when a patient experiences constricting discomfort in the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms during physical exertion, which is relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate within five minutes. A typical angina diagnosis can be confirmed through a computed tomography (CT) coronary angiography, which should be offered if the patient exhibits typical or atypical angina or if the ECG shows ST-T changes or Q waves. Non-invasive functional imaging is recommended if the CT coronary angiography is not diagnostic or if the coronary artery disease is of uncertain functional significance. While ECG changes may suggest coronary artery disease, a normal ECG doesn’t confirm or exclude a diagnosis of stable angina. Endoscopy is used to investigate gastro-oesophageal causes of chest pain, but exercise-induced chest pain is more likely to be cardiac in nature. Exercise electrocardiograms are no longer recommended to diagnose or exclude stable angina in patients without known coronary artery disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 61-year-old man with no previous history of note complains of dribbling and a lopsided smile. On examination, he has lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy.
Select the single correct statement regarding his management.Your Answer: He should be admitted under the on-call physicians for consideration of thrombolysis
Correct Answer: He should be prescribed high-dose prednisolone
Explanation:Facial Nerve Palsy: Causes, Treatment, and Prognosis
Facial nerve palsy, also known as Bell’s palsy, is a condition that affects the muscles of the face and can cause drooping, weakness, or paralysis. Lower motor neurone (LMN) facial nerve palsy is the most common type and has a good prognosis, with most cases resolving spontaneously within three weeks. While the cause is often unknown, it is believed to be related to a viral infection. Treatment with high-dose prednisolone has been shown to improve outcomes, with up to half of patients who do not spontaneously recover achieving full resolution with steroids.
Upper motor neurone palsies, on the other hand, are associated with preservation of frowning and should be urgently referred for imaging and possible thrombolysis if a stroke is suspected. In an upper motor neurone lesion, the upper facial muscles are partially spared, allowing the patient to wrinkle their forehead.
It is important to carefully examine the ear in cases of LMN palsy, as it may be a sign of zoster or middle ear infection (Ramsay-Hunt syndrome). In these cases, a combination of prednisolone and acyclovir is typically given.
Overall, while facial nerve palsy can be a concerning condition, the prognosis is generally good for LMN palsy and prompt treatment can improve outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man contacts the General Practitioner out of hours service for advice. He had a renal transplant five months ago. His family had a viral illness last week, which they managed with self-care and over the counter medications. He now complains of feeling unwell for the past three days. He reports feeling tired, with a fever and a headache and a mild sore throat. He can eat and drink and he has no rash.
You suspect that he may be experiencing an acute renal transplant rejection.
Which of the following signs or symptom would you most expect to see?Your Answer: Lower limb swelling
Explanation:Symptoms of Acute Renal Transplant Rejection
Acute renal transplant rejection can occur after a kidney transplant and is characterized by reduced urine output, leading to oliguria and water retention. This can result in swelling of the limbs or abdomen and face. Malaise and fatigue are common symptoms, but they are also present in upper respiratory tract infections. Fever may also be present, but it is a nonspecific symptom found in many infections. Polyuria, or excessive urine output, is not typically seen in acute renal transplant rejection. Headache is a nonspecific symptom and may be present in both acute infections and graft rejection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 55-year-old man playing squash suddenly experiences a snap in his right lower calf, causing acute severe pain. He develops localised swelling and bruising behind the ankle and is unable to stand on his toes on that side. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Achilles tendon rupture
Explanation:Distinguishing Achilles Tendon Rupture from Other Lower Leg Injuries
Achilles tendon rupture is a common injury that can be easily misdiagnosed as other lower leg injuries. The hallmark of Achilles tendon rupture is a sudden onset of pain followed by a dull ache. A palpable defect in the Achilles tendon may be present on examination, but bruising can mask the defect. Active plantar flexion is weak or absent, and Thompson’s test can confirm a complete tendon rupture. Treatment options include surgical repair or non-surgical approaches such as casting or splinting.
It is important to differentiate Achilles tendon rupture from other lower leg injuries such as Achilles tendinopathy, deep vein thrombosis, retrocalcaneal bursitis, and rupture of a Baker’s cyst. Achilles tendinopathy is a chronic overuse injury with gradual onset of pain and tenderness between 2-6 cm above the calcaneal insertion. Deep vein thrombosis presents with limb pain and tenderness along the deep veins, unilateral calf or leg swelling, and pitting edema. Retrocalcaneal bursitis causes pain on the back of the heel and swelling medial or lateral to the tendon. Rupture of a Baker’s cyst can mimic deep vein thrombosis with pain and swelling of the calf, but may also cause bruising below the medial malleolus of the ankle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of intense pain radiating through her left sciatic nerve, which is not being managed by her current pain medication. The pain is so severe that it is disrupting her sleep. She has recently been diagnosed with spinal metastases from a primary breast cancer. She has been prescribed 20 mg oral morphine sulphate twice daily for her back pain. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Add naproxen 500 mg twice a day
Correct Answer: Add 10 mg amitriptyline at night and increase the dose if tolerated after three to seven days
Explanation:Managing Pain in Palliative Care: Medication Recommendations
When it comes to managing pain in palliative care, there are several medication options available. For neuropathic pain, amitriptyline is recommended as a starting dose of 10-25 mg at night, with the option to increase after three to seven days. Tricyclic antidepressants can also be used alongside standard analgesics for mixed pain.
Liquid oral morphine can be added as needed, with a starting dose of 5 ml and no more than a dose every two hours. If the patient requires further morphine, titrating the dose with liquid morphine is recommended.
While non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents like naproxen can be used for pain management, they are not first-line for neuropathic pain. Sedating benzodiazepines like diazepam are not recommended for neuropathic pain, but may be used for sleeping problems or anxiety.
Overall, a combination of medication options may be necessary to effectively manage pain in palliative care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old male patient presents with recurrent urinary symptoms, reporting bothersome hesitancy and nocturia. He is currently taking finasteride.
PSA levels over the past two months have been within normal range for his age, measuring at 3.2 and 3.3 ng/ml. Upon physical examination, including a digital rectal exam, no abnormalities were detected.
What is the appropriate course of action at this juncture?Your Answer: Refer for consideration of trans-rectal ultrasound guided biopsies
Correct Answer: Stop the finasteride and repeat the PSA in six weeks
Explanation:Importance of Checking for Prostate Cancer in Patients on Finasteride
Whilst other possibilities should not be disregarded, it is crucial to prioritize checking for prostate cancer in patients taking Finasteride. It is important to note that PSA values may be significantly reduced by up to 50% in patients taking 5-ARIs such as Finasteride, which can bring abnormal prostates into the normal range in terms of PSA values. Additionally, any increase in PSA levels should be a cause for concern, even if the absolute value is within the normal range, when a patient is taking Finasteride. It is essential to double the PSA readings of patients on Finasteride, which means that the corrected values for this patient are 6.2 and 6.0 ng/ml. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize checking for prostate cancer in patients taking Finasteride to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 61-year-old man presented to his GP with wasting and weakness of the muscles in his left hand.
He had noticed severely impaired hand grip and had noticed problems with writing. He had also developed a tingling sensation over the palm of his hand extending up the forearm.
On examination he appeared alert and orientated. Fundoscopy and cranial nerve examination were all normal and neck movements were full.
On examination of the upper limb, there was significant wasting over the left thenar eminence and fasciculations with a small burn over the left thumb. No other fasciculations could be detected in the proximal limb or other hand. Tone appeared normal and reflexes were intact. There was weakness of thumb abduction and opposition, with loss of pinprick and light touch sensation over the thumb, index and middle finger.
On examination of the lower limb, no abnormalities could be found.
Given the above history and clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Motor neurone disease
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve palsy
Explanation:Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition that occurs when there is pressure on the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. This can result in severe wasting of the muscles in the thenar eminence, abductor pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis, as well as the lateral two lumbricals. Nerve conduction studies can confirm denervation and absent sensory potentials within the median nerve territory.
It is important to note that CTS is not indicative of motor neurone disease, which presents with a combination of upper and lower motor neurone abnormalities without sensory disturbance. Syringomyelia within the cervical cord would cause lower motor neurone signs at the level of the syrinx, with dissociated pain and temperature loss and upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Thoracic inlet syndrome affecting C8, T1 of the brachial plexus would cause additional weakness of hand muscles. An ulnar nerve palsy would cause weakness of small muscles of the hand with preserved thenar muscle function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man presents with a complaint of right leg pain that has been bothering him for two years. He denies any history of falls or injury. The patient has a past medical history of heart failure and currently takes inhaled bronchodilators and inhaled corticosteroids for obstructive airway disease. On examination, he appears to be a healthy elderly man with mild tenderness in his right leg only. Routine blood tests reveal normal serum calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D levels, but a significantly elevated alkaline phosphatase level.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Correct Answer: Bisphosphonates
Explanation:Treatment Options for Paget’s Disease: Bisphosphonates, Calcium and Vitamin D, Co-codamol, NSAIDs, and Prednisolone
Paget’s disease is a condition that requires treatment to control pain and reduce disease progression and complications. The drug of choice for this condition is oral or intravenous bisphosphonates, which reduce bone turnover and improve bone pain, promoting the healing of osteolytic lesions and the restoration of normal bone histology. However, some progression may still occur, and monitoring of serum alkaline phosphatase is necessary to assess treatment effectiveness and disease activity. Patients must be kept under review due to the risk of osteosarcoma, which is suggested by increased bone pain that is poorly responsive to treatment, local swelling, and sometimes a pathological fracture.
While calcium and vitamin D may be necessary to correct any deficiencies before commencing bisphosphonate treatment, they are not the primary treatment options for Paget’s disease. Pain relief may be achieved with paracetamol (or co-codamol) and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). However, prednisolone is not used in this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
You see a pediatric patient with a suspected fungal skin infection but the appearance is atypical and so you want to send skin samples for fungal microscopy and culture.
Which of the following forms part of best practice with regards the sample?Your Answer: The sample should be refrigerated prior to being transported to the laboratory
Correct Answer: The patient should be informed that microscopy and culture results should be available within 1-2 days
Explanation:Obtaining Skin Samples for Fungal Microscopy and Culture
To obtain skin samples for fungal microscopy and culture, it is recommended to scrape the skin from the advancing edge of the lesion(s) using a blunt scalpel blade. This area typically provides a higher yield of dermatophyte. It is important to obtain at least 5 mm2 of skin flakes, which should be placed into folded dark paper and secured with a paperclip. Alternatively, commercially available packs can be used.
The sample should be kept at room temperature as dermatophytes are inhibited at low temperatures. Microscopy results typically take 1-2 days, while culture results take 2-3 weeks. By following these steps, accurate and timely results can be obtained for the diagnosis and treatment of fungal infections.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man has a 25-year history of ulcerative colitis. He has had courses of prednisolone for exacerbations in the past but has never persisted with prophylactic medication. He has not had a hospital review for many years. He has now had a change in bowel habit for six months, with increasing diarrhoea.
Which of the following is the single most important management step for this patient?Your Answer: Urgent colonoscopy
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Subacute Change in Bowel Habit and Ulcerative Colitis
Patients with ulcerative colitis have an increased risk of developing colonic adenocarcinoma, which starts 8-10 years after the onset of the disease. Surveillance colonoscopy is recommended every 1-2 years to assess for dysplasia. In a patient with a long-standing disease and a new change in bowel habit, there should be a high index of suspicion for malignancy, especially if routine surveillance has been missed.
An abdominal plain X-ray may be useful in acute presentations of ulcerative colitis, but it is not the best choice for subacute changes in bowel habit. Oral mesalazine may reduce the risk of developing colorectal cancer, but it doesn’t address the red flags in this case.
Oral prednisolone may be prescribed to see if there is any resolution of symptoms, but the priority is an urgent colonoscopy to rule out a new diagnosis of colorectal cancer.
Stool microscopy and culture are unlikely to be helpful in this case, as there is no acute-onset diarrhea or recent foreign travel.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of persistent blockage of his right nostril, accompanied by sneezing and rhinorrhea, six weeks after recovering from a cold. Upon examination, a large polyp is observed in the right nostril, while the left nostril appears normal. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Routine referral to ENT
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ENT
Explanation:Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The most common features of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. However, if a patient experiences unilateral symptoms or bleeding, further investigation is always necessary.
If a patient is suspected of having nasal polyps, they should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination. Treatment typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. With proper management, most patients with nasal polyps can experience relief from their symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
An 88-year-old female patient of yours has multiple medical problems.
She takes aspirin, paracetamol, bisoprolol, ramipril, codeine, omeprazole and nifedipine. She says she tries to remember to take her tablets but she doesn't attend for repeat prescriptions as often as she should. When compliant, she is stable and well.
Which one of the following regarding this lady's treatment is correct?Your Answer: You should prescribe no more than 3 separate medications to people of this age
Correct Answer: You should give 'once daily' regimens where possible
Explanation:Factors to Consider in Drug Treatments for MRCGP Exam
For the MRCGP exam, it is important to have a good understanding of the factors associated with drug treatments. This includes knowledge of drug metabolism, absorption, and excretion. Candidates should also be aware of multiple prescribing, non-compliance by patients, and iatrogenic disease.
In this scenario, it is important to consider the patient’s medication regimen and the possibility of non-compliance. While it may be premature to talk about stopping medications, it is recommended to give ‘once daily’ regimens where possible. Admitting the patient to residential care solely for medication compliance is extreme and likely unnecessary.
To further enhance knowledge on medication compliance, the BMJ offers evidence and tips on the use of medication compliance aids. Additionally, the ABC of monitoring drug therapy provides a comprehensive guide on patient compliance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman is experiencing a range of symptoms such as headaches and tingling sensations on her skin. She is worried that she might be suffering from multiple sclerosis. What is the typical way that multiple sclerosis presents itself?
Your Answer: Motor neuropathy
Correct Answer: Optic neuritis
Explanation:Features of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that can present with nonspecific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis is based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.
MS can affect various parts of the body, leading to different symptoms. Visual symptoms include optic neuritis, optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome. Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms may include ataxia and tremor. Other symptoms may include urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration.
It is important to note that MS symptoms can vary greatly between individuals and may change over time. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their symptoms and receive appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A parent brings her 6-year-old daughter to the clinic with concerns about her health since starting first grade. The child has developed various new symptoms, and the parent suspects a food allergy as the symptoms improve during breaks from school. Which of the following symptoms would suggest a non-IgE-mediated allergy rather than an IgE-mediated allergy?
Your Answer: Lip swelling
Correct Answer: Atopic eczema
Explanation:A non-IgE mediated food allergy is indicated by the presence of atopic eczema.
Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized as either IgE-mediated or non-IgE-mediated. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, as well as gastrointestinal and respiratory symptoms. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms such as gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, and abdominal pain. If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to suspected foods and co-allergens should be offered. If the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced, with consultation from a dietitian for nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man has terminal metastatic prostate cancer. His General Practitioner visits him in the care home because he is no longer taking medication by mouth. He is bed-bound and in and out of consciousness. He appears comfortable, but his carers report that he has been intermittently in pain, particularly around personal care. He has a ‘just-in-case box’ of medications available but has not required anything for symptom control yet.
Which of the following medication regimens is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Syringe driver containing morphine
Correct Answer: Stat dose of subcutaneous morphine
Explanation:Managing Palliative Care Symptoms with Subcutaneous Medications
To support anticipatory prescribing and access to palliative care medications for patients in the dying phase, ‘just-in-case’ boxes are produced in many areas. These boxes include subcutaneous medication for pain, nausea/vomiting, secretions, and agitation, along with syringes and water for injection. Proactive management of symptom control for patients is a key component of the Gold Standards Framework.
When a patient experiences symptoms for the first time, giving subcutaneous stat doses over 24 hours is useful to assess their needs and guide the amount required in a subsequent continuous syringe driver. This approach is particularly helpful for opioid-naïve patients with intermittent pain, as it allows for a period of assessment to guide a starting dose.
While a buprenorphine patch may be useful earlier in the course of illness, it has a relatively slow onset of action and is difficult to titrate to match rapidly changing pain. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like diclofenac are unlikely to be used for a sudden increase in pain or breakthrough pain that may occur in the last days of life.
Levomepromazine is a common choice of antiemetic for end-of-life care and will likely be in the patient’s ‘just-in-case’ box. However, it is not the treatment of choice for pain. Overall, subcutaneous medications are an important tool for managing palliative care symptoms and improving the quality of life for patients in the dying phase.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old man presents with recurrent back pain. He has a history of disc prolapse due to his previous manual labor job. The patient reports that he experienced sudden lower back pain while bending over to pick something up.
During the examination, the patient showed reduced sensation on the posterolateral aspect of his left leg and lateral foot. The straight leg raise test resulted in pain in his thigh, buttock, and calf region. Additionally, there was weakness on plantar flexion with reduced ankle reflexes.
What type of root compression has this patient experienced?Your Answer: L1-2 nerve root compression
Correct Answer: S1 nerve root compression
Explanation:The observed symptoms suggest the presence of a spinal disc prolapse, which is causing sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. L5 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, S1 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. The first-line treatment is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia (e.g., duloxetine). If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Samantha is a 70 year old woman who is attending hospital for chemotherapy for breast cancer. She is struggling with the cost of transportation to and from the hospital and is currently receiving pensioners credit. What advice would you give to Samantha?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eligible to claim travel refund from hospital
Explanation:He can claim a refund for his travel expenses from the hospital.
Travel Refund for Hospital Visits
If you are required to attend a hospital for treatment, you may be eligible for a refund for your travel expenses. The criteria for eligibility include receiving Income Support, the guarantee element of Pension Credit, income-based Jobseekers Allowance, income-related Employment and Support Allowance, Universal Credit, or having a valid NHS tax exemption certificate. Additionally, if you receive a valid war pension and are being treated for your war disability, you may also be eligible. If you require someone to travel with you for medical reasons, their travel costs may also be covered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)