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Question 1
Correct
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Samantha is a 64-year-old woman who presents to you with a new-onset headache that started 3 weeks ago. Samantha's medical history includes type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia, and she has a body mass index of 29 kg/mÂČ.
During your examination, you measure Samantha's blood pressure which is 190/118 mmHg. A repeat reading shows 186/116 mmHg. Upon conducting fundoscopy, you observe evidence of retinal haemorrhage.
What would be the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer: Refer for same-day specialist assessment
Explanation:NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.
To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.
If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.
ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.
Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A new blood test is developed to detect pulmonary embolisms (PEs) in elderly patients with covid-19. A study compares its performance with the current gold standard for diagnosis, CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) scanning. A total of 250 elderly patients with covid-19 undergo CTPA scanning. Amongst those, 50 patients are identified as having PEs on CTPA scans and are subsequently tested using the new blood test. Of these, 40 have a positive test, and 10 have a negative test. Of the 200 covid-19 patients who did not have a PE demonstrated on CTPA scanning, 180 have a negative blood test, and 20 have a positive blood test. What is the sensitivity of the new test based on the given results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 80%
Explanation:To determine the sensitivity of the new blood test for detecting pulmonary embolisms (PEs), we need to calculate the proportion of true positive results among all actual positive cases identified by the CTPA scans.
Definitions
- Sensitivity: The probability that the test correctly identifies patients with the disease (true positives) among all patients who actually have the disease.
Sensitivity=True Positives/(True Positives+False Negatives)
Data from the Study
- Total patients with PE on CTPA (True Condition Positive): 50 patients
- True Positives (TP): Patients with PE who tested positive on the blood test: 40
- False Negatives (FN): Patients with PE who tested negative on the blood test: 10
Calculation of Sensitivity
Using the formula for sensitivity:
Sensitivity=True Positives/(True Positives+False Negatives)
Sensitivity=40/(40+10)
Sensitivity=40/50
Sensitivity=0.8
Sensitivity=0.8Ă100=80%
Conclusion
The sensitivity of the new blood test for detecting pulmonary embolisms in elderly patients with covid-19 is 80%. This means that the test correctly identifies 80% of patients who have a pulmonary embolism, according to the CTPA results.
- Sensitivity: The probability that the test correctly identifies patients with the disease (true positives) among all patients who actually have the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are requested to make a home visit for a palliative care patient who is experiencing difficulties with a cutaneous metastatic lesion. She is an elderly woman with advanced metastatic breast cancer and has developed a fungating deposit in her left groin that has been treated with regular dressings by the district nurses. In recent days, she has been experiencing issues with localized capillary bleeding from the wound that has not responded to local pressure and simple dressings.
What treatments would be suitable in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tranexamic acid 1g TDS orally
Explanation:Treatment Options for Capillary Bleeding
In cases of capillary bleeding, there are several treatment options available. Oral tranexamic acid is one option that can be used to treat this type of bleeding. It is recommended to continue its use for an additional week after the bleeding has stopped. Topical options include gauze soaked in tranexamic acid 100 mg/mL or adrenaline solution 1 mg/mL (1 in 1000), which can be applied directly to the affected area.
It is important to note that intramuscular adrenaline has no role in treating localised capillary bleeding. Topical metronidazole is used in treating malodorous fungating tumours, but it is not effective in stopping bleeding. Oral steroids have numerous effects, but they would not halt bleeding. However, oral vitamin K may be useful when bleeding is due to prolonged clotting in liver disease.
In summary, when dealing with capillary bleeding, it is important to consider the appropriate treatment options and use them accordingly. Oral tranexamic acid and topical solutions such as gauze soaked in tranexamic acid or adrenaline solution can be effective in stopping bleeding, while other options such as intramuscular adrenaline and topical metronidazole are not recommended for this purpose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A parent mentions she has received a letter about her child taking part in the National Child Measurement Program, where all Year 4 & Year 8 children have their Body Mass Index measured. Data is collated nationally, and used to analyse trends and inform the planning of health services. In some areas the children and parents are not routinely informed of their individual results. How might the main purpose of this initiative be described?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Health surveillance
Explanation:Public health is a crucial aspect of the RCGP curriculum, with a focus on promoting health and preventing disease. GPs are required to understand the surveillance systems involved in public health. An example of a health surveillance program in the UK is the National Child Measurement Program, which involves the continuous collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data for public health practice. Health protection involves safeguarding the public against health threats, such as air pollution or infectious diseases. Health promotion aims to empower individuals to improve their health, such as through education on healthy eating or access to smoking cessation services. Screening involves testing a population or subgroup for a disease in its early stages to provide early treatment and improve outcomes. Examples of screening programs in the UK include breast, cervical, and bowel cancer screening. Confidential enquiries are investigations into morbidity and mortality to identify areas for improvement, such as the annual Confidential Enquiry into Maternal and Child Health (CEMACH).
Understanding Health Promotion and Surveillance
Health promotion refers to the process of empowering individuals to take control of their health and improve it. This is achieved through various means such as education, awareness campaigns, and access to healthcare services. The World Health Organisation defines health promotion as a continuous process that enables people to increase their control over their health.
On the other hand, health surveillance is the systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data. This data is used to plan, implement, and evaluate public health practices. Health surveillance is crucial in identifying health trends and patterns, which can help in the prevention and control of diseases. An example of health surveillance is the National Child Measurement Program, which collects data on childhood obesity.
In summary, health promotion and surveillance are essential components of public health. Health promotion empowers individuals to take control of their health, while health surveillance provides valuable data that can be used to plan and implement effective public health interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man is undergoing treatment for ulcerative colitis and experiences pancytopenia. What is the probable reason for this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Drugs and Pancytopenia in Ulcerative Colitis: Understanding the Risks
Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects millions of people worldwide. While there is no cure for the condition, various drugs can help manage symptoms and induce remission. However, some of these drugs can also cause bone marrow suppression, leading to a condition called pancytopenia.
Azathioprine, methotrexate, ciclosporin, infliximab, and mesalazine are some of the drugs commonly used in ulcerative colitis that can cause bone marrow suppression. Patients taking these drugs should be monitored regularly for symptoms of bleeding or infection, and blood counts should be undertaken.
Anti-diarrhoeal drugs like codeine phosphate, co-phenotrope, and loperamide may help control symptoms, but they do not cause pancytopenia. Mebeverine may provide symptomatic relief from colic, but it doesn’t cause pancytopenia either.
While metronidazole may be helpful in people with Crohn’s disease, it is generally not considered useful for those with ulcerative colitis. Pancytopenia has been reported with metronidazole. Prednisolone, on the other hand, can be used to induce remission in ulcerative colitis without causing pancytopenia.
It is essential to note that other drugs, such as chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, septrin, gold, penicillamine, indometacin, diclofenac, naproxen, piroxicam, phenytoin, carbamazepine, carbimazole, thiouracil, dosulepin, phenothiazines, chlorpropamide, and chloroquine, have also been reported to cause pancytopenia. Therefore, patients with ulcerative colitis should be aware of the risks associated with these drugs and report any symptoms immediately to their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman has liver metastases from a colorectal cancer. She complains of nausea, which comes in waves, and experiences vomiting before going for chemotherapy but finds this less troublesome after chemotherapy. She also finds the nausea less troublesome when she is distracted.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anxiety
Explanation:Assessing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Possible Causes and Treatment Options
When assessing nausea and vomiting in palliative care, it is important to seek a reversible cause. If none is found, a specific diagnosis should be made. One possible cause is anxiety, which can present with nausea in waves and anticipatory vomiting that may be relieved by distraction. Benzodiazepines or levomepromazine can be used for medication. Other causes include gastric stasis, gastric outflow obstruction, small stomach syndrome, oesophageal blockage, bowel obstruction, raised intracranial pressure, movement-related nausea, vestibular issues, drugs, metabolic issues, and carcinomatosis. It is important to consider all possible causes and choose appropriate treatment options accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic as she has been advised by secondary care to seek prophylactic antibiotics. Her brother, with whom she shares a home, has been hospitalized with symptoms of meningococcal meningitis. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin or rifampicin are the recommended antibiotics for prophylaxis in close contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis, particularly those living in the same household. It is important to administer the prophylactic antibiotics as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours. Amoxicillin is not used for prophylaxis in close contacts, but may be used in combination with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone to treat bacterial meningitis in hospitalized patients over 50 years old. Benzylpenicillin and cefotaxime are not used as prophylactic treatments for close contacts, but are used to treat suspected cases of meningococcal meningitis.
When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman is discovered to have the subsequent blood tests:
TSH 0.05 mu/l
Free T4 19 pmol/l (range 9-25 pmol/l)
Free T3 7 pmol/l (range 3-9 pmol/l)
What are the potential outcomes if no treatment is given?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supraventricular arrhythmias and osteoporosis
Explanation:Understanding Subclinical Hyperthyroidism
Subclinical hyperthyroidism is a condition that is becoming more recognized in the medical field. It is characterized by normal levels of free thyroxine and triiodothyronine, but with a thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) that falls below the normal range, usually less than 0.1 mu/l. The condition is often caused by a multinodular goitre, particularly in elderly females, or excessive thyroxine intake.
It is important to recognize subclinical hyperthyroidism because it can have negative effects on the cardiovascular system, such as atrial fibrillation, and on bone metabolism, leading to osteoporosis. It can also impact quality of life and increase the likelihood of dementia.
Management of subclinical hyperthyroidism involves monitoring TSH levels, as they may revert to normal on their own. If levels remain persistently low, a therapeutic trial of low-dose antithyroid agents for approximately six months may be recommended to induce remission. It is important to address subclinical hyperthyroidism to prevent potential complications and improve overall health.
Overall, understanding subclinical hyperthyroidism and its potential effects is crucial for proper management and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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At what age can the term 'Old age' be included on a death certificate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 80 years
Explanation:The cause of death cannot be certified as ‘Old age’ unless the deceased was at least 80 years old.
Death Certification in the UK
There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.
When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.
Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old individual visits the doctor complaining of vomiting and explosive diarrhoea that started 24 hours ago. Upon further inquiry, the patient denies any blood in their stool and has not traveled abroad recently. The patient mentions consuming rice that was kept warm in a rice cooker for multiple days. What is the probable causative agent responsible for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus
Explanation:It is probable that this young man is suffering from toxigenic food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus, which is known to occur after consuming reheated rice. The spores of Bacillus cereus germinate in cooked rice and produce toxins if the cooked product is not adequately chilled. While S. aureus can also cause toxigenic food poisoning, the specific history of this case makes it less likely to be the underlying organism. Norwalk virus, on the other hand, can cause severe diarrhea and vomiting, but it is not associated with any particular food items. Bacterial food poisoning caused by Campylobacter and Shigella typically involves a longer history of bloody diarrhea.
Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.
Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes presents with worsening neuropathic pain in his legs despite being on amitriptyline hydrochloride. His HbA1c is 82 mmol/mol. What would be the next step in managing his painful diabetic neuropathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to a different neuropathic pain drug
Explanation:Neuropathic pain drugs are typically prescribed as a single therapy, and if they are not effective, they should be switched rather than combined with other drugs. However, it is common to see patients taking a combination of neuropathic agents. The 2013 NICE guidelines advise against prescribing more than one neuropathic pain drug at the same time, such as amitriptyline and gabapentin or pregabalin if there has been little response to amitriptyline. Capsaicin cream can be used as an alternative to oral preparations if they are not desired or tolerated. If the pain is severe or significantly affects the patient’s quality of life, a referral to a pain clinic should be considered. In cases where initial treatments have failed and the patient is awaiting referral, a short course of tramadol may be considered. It is incorrect to titrate amitriptyline if the patient has not responded to two months of treatment, as further titration is unlikely to be beneficial.
Understanding Neuropathic Pain
Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and doesn’t respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.
In 2013, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance on the management of neuropathic pain. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment doesn’t work, patients may be switched to one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, they should be switched rather than added to.
Tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that the guidance may vary for specific conditions. For example, carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia
Explanation:Metabolic conditions are typically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with the exception of inherited ataxias. On the other hand, structural conditions are often inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, although there are exceptions such as Gilbert’s syndrome and hyperlipidemia type II.
Autosomal recessive conditions are often referred to as metabolic conditions, while autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural. However, there are notable exceptions to this rule. For example, some metabolic conditions like Hunter’s and G6PD are X-linked recessive, while some structural conditions like ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia are autosomal recessive.
Autosomal recessive conditions occur when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. Some examples of autosomal recessive conditions include albinism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, and Wilson’s disease. These conditions can affect various systems in the body, including metabolism, blood, and the nervous system. It is important to note that some conditions, such as Gilbert’s syndrome, are still a matter of debate and may be listed as autosomal dominant in some textbooks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old patient presents to your clinic complaining of toe pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 days. He reports that his toe is swollen and red, and he has never experienced this before. A friend suggested that he may be suffering from gout and he has come to ask if you can prescribe him with something stronger than paracetamol.
The patient's medical history includes hypercholesterolaemia and atrial fibrillation, and he currently takes atorvastatin and amiodarone. He is also intolerant to opioids. Based on this information, what medication would you safely recommend for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Gout
Gout is a painful condition that can be effectively treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory tablets or colchicine. However, it is important to consider the patient’s medical history and current medications before choosing a treatment option.
Piroxicam, while effective, has a high risk of gastro-intestinal side effects and should not be the first choice. Codeine, an opioid, should be avoided if the patient is intolerant to this class of drugs. Allopurinol is typically used as prophylaxis rather than for acute attacks.
Colchicine is a good choice for treating gout, but patients on statins have an increased risk of myopathy when given colchicine, and patients on amiodarone have a possible increased risk of colchicine toxicity. Therefore, it is important to consider these factors before prescribing colchicine.
Prednisolone is not a first-line option for uncomplicated cases of acute gout. Overall, the choice of treatment for gout should be individualized based on the patient’s medical history and current medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You encounter a 45-year-old man who complains of a painful mouth. He reveals that he has been experiencing a mouth ulcer for about 3 weeks. It started as a small painless sore but has now grown in size and is causing him discomfort. Despite trying various mouthwashes, he has not found any relief. He is in good health and has no other symptoms. Although he is not overly concerned about the ulcer, he would like you to prescribe something to help it heal.
Upon examination, you notice a 4mm ulcer in his oral cavity, surrounded by a white plaque. There is no lymphadenopathy.
How would you approach the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently (for an appointment within 2 weeks) to ENT
Explanation:If a person has had a mouth ulcer for more than three weeks, it is important to refer them to secondary care urgently. In cases where there is unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck, a suspected cancer pathway referral should be considered for an appointment within two weeks. This is also true for patients with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity, or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia, who should be urgently referred for assessment for possible oral cancer by a dentist within two weeks. In this particular case, the patient with a solitary ulcer for more than three weeks should be seen by an ENT specialist within two weeks.
Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.
Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.
Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient has recently obtained her driver's license. She is an insulin dependent diabetic and plans to embark on a lengthy road trip. She comprehends the significance of hypoglycemia symptoms and frequent blood sugar monitoring. She has been instructed to keep fast-acting carbohydrates with her at all times while driving but seeks guidance on when to pull over and consume a snack after checking her blood glucose levels.
At what blood glucose level should she have a snack?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 mmol/litre
Explanation:Practical Management of Insulin in AKT Exam
Questions about the practical management of insulin are common in the AKT exam, but have been poorly answered in previous exams. Therefore, it is likely to be a recurrent theme. To ensure that you are adequately prepared, we have extracted the learning points from the reference sources used by examiners.
The guidance suggests that drivers should ensure that their blood glucose is above 5 mmol/litre when driving, but they should stop driving if it drops below 4 mmol/litre. If the blood glucose drops below 5 mmol/litre, they are advised to take a snack. Therefore, it is important to clarify which threshold applies when answering questions related to this topic.
Learning points that may be tested include the advice about testing frequency, thresholds for driving, thresholds for taking a snack or stopping driving, and when the journey can be safely resumed. Don’t worry, we have questions that will test you on all of these learning points.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl has not been attending school.
Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest school refusal rather than truancy.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting on the way to school
Explanation:Understanding School Refusal: Symptoms, Causes, and Consequences
School refusal is a common problem affecting 1-5% of school-aged children, with similar rates in both boys and girls. It typically occurs in children aged 5, 6, 10, and 11, and may be triggered by stressful events at home or school, or after a holiday or illness. Symptoms include fear, panic, crying, temper tantrums, threats of self-harm, and somatic complaints such as dizziness, headaches, and nausea.
Short-term consequences of school refusal include poor academic performance, family difficulties, and problems with peer relationships. Long-term consequences may include academic underachievement, employment difficulties, and increased risk for psychiatric illness. Children with school refusal may suffer from significant emotional distress, particularly anxiety and depression.
School avoidance may serve different functions depending on the child, such as avoidance of specific fears, escape from aversive social situations, separation anxiety, or attention-seeking behaviors. It is important to address school refusal early on, as the longer the child stays out of school, the more difficult it is to return.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, causes, and consequences of school refusal can help parents and caregivers provide appropriate support and intervention for their child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female visits her general practitioner with concerns about hair loss on her scalp. Which of the following conditions is the least probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation:Hypertrichosis can be caused by Porphyria cutanea tarda.
Types of Alopecia and Their Causes
Alopecia, or hair loss, can be categorized into two types: scarring and non-scarring. Scarring alopecia occurs when the hair follicle is destroyed, while non-scarring alopecia is characterized by the preservation of the hair follicle.
Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. On the other hand, non-scarring alopecia can be attributed to male-pattern baldness, certain drugs like cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune disorders like alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period like surgery, and trichotillomania.
It is important to identify the type of alopecia and its underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, scarring may develop in untreated tinea capitis if a kerion develops. Understanding the different types and causes of alopecia can help individuals take necessary steps to prevent or manage hair loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and dizziness in her arms and legs for the past three days. She has a medical history of chronic pain, depression, and schizophrenia. When you inquire about her medications and drug use, she seems hesitant to provide a clear response.
What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SSRI discontinuation syndrome
Explanation:SSRI discontinuation syndrome can cause symptoms such as dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety when SSRIs are suddenly stopped or reduced. It is possible that the woman in question has decided to stop taking her antidepressants. On the other hand, alcohol withdrawal typically results in anxiety, tremors, and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare reaction that can occur with antipsychotic use and may cause fever, confusion, and muscle rigidity. Opiate withdrawal may cause anxiety, sweating, and gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea and vomiting.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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John is a 85-year-old man with advanced metastatic prostate cancer who you have been managing in the community with palliative care who has died today. You fill out the death certificate. In which of the following circumstances would you be required to refer the case to the coroner?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If the person who died was not visited by a medical practitioner during their final illness
Explanation:A death should be referred to the coroner if the person who died was not visited by a medical practitioner during their final illness, if the cause of death is unknown, if the death was violent or unnatural, if the death was sudden and unexplained, if a medical certificate is not available, if the person who died wasn’t seen by the doctor who signed the medical certificate within 28 days before death or after they died, if the death occurred during an operation or before the person came out of anaesthetic, or if the medical certificate suggests the death may have been caused by an industrial disease or industrial poisoning.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to the psychiatrist who recommended an increase in her lithium dose for better symptom control. Her renal function is stable and you prescribe the recommended higher dose of lithium. When should her levels be rechecked?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In 1 week
Explanation:Lithium levels should be monitored weekly after a change in dose until they become stable. This means that after an increase in lithium dose, the levels should be checked again after one week, and then weekly until they stabilize. The ideal time to check lithium levels is 12 hours after the dose is taken. Waiting for a month after a dose adjustment is too long, while checking after three days is too soon. Once the levels become stable, they can be checked every three months for the first year. After a year, low-risk patients can have their lithium testing reduced to every six months, according to the BNF. However, NICE guidance recommends that three-monthly testing should continue indefinitely. Additionally, patients on lithium should have their thyroid function tests monitored every six months.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.
Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.
Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed with congenital long QT syndrome after an ECG was done for palpitations.
What medication should she avoid in the future?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:The use of macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin, erythromycin, and azithromycin may lead to the prolongation of the QTc interval. This can be particularly dangerous for patients with congenital long QT syndrome as it may trigger torsades de pointes. However, medications such as bisoprolol and digoxin can actually shorten the QTc interval and are therefore safe to use. Amoxicillin and cyclizine, on the other hand, do not have any known effects on the QTc interval.
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 12-month-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. The parent is questioned about the child's developmental milestones.
Which of the following is this child most likely to be able to achieve by its current age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Finger feed
Explanation:Developmental Milestones for Infants: Typical Achievements by 14-21 Months
Infants develop at different rates, but most achieve certain skills by certain ages. By 14 months, most infants can finger feed themselves. By 19 months, they can use a spoon and fork, as well as run. By 20 months, they can take off clothes with help, and by 21 months, they can walk up steps. These milestones are important markers of typical development for infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl is brought to see you by her parents.
The school had spoken to them because despite good educational progress they had noticed that she spends a lot of time on her own and doesn't really make friends with the other children or engage in group activities. She has quite restricted interests both at home and at school. The parents report that she has 'always been like this' and that at home she likes to read and write a lot but other than that doesn't really engage and play with other children.
During the consultation the child seems to have appropriate language skills and be of normal intelligence but doesn't engage fully with your attempts at conversation and play, and avoids eye contact with you.
What is the likely underlying problem?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asperger's syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Asperger’s Syndrome
Asperger’s Syndrome is a type of autism that affects social interaction, behavior patterns, and interests. However, unlike other forms of autism, individuals with Asperger’s have normal or even above-average language and intelligence skills. This condition is characterized by impaired social skills, repetitive behavior, and restricted interests.
On the other hand, Childhood Disintegrative Disorder is a rare condition that affects less than 5 in 10,000 children. It is characterized by the sudden loss of acquired skills in motor, language, and social development between the ages of 3 and 4. The cause of this disorder is still unknown.
A mood disorder is not likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms, given their age and general features. Meanwhile, Rett’s Syndrome is an X-linked disorder that primarily affects females. It typically occurs between 6 and 18 months of age and is characterized by developmental regression, loss of motor skills, and loss of social and language skills. Other symptoms such as spasticity and seizures may also develop, leading to significant disability.
In summary, understanding the differences between Asperger’s Syndrome and other developmental disorders is crucial in providing appropriate support and interventions for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old man presents with back pain that is most severe in his lumbosacral spine. He has a past medical history of prostate cancer but has been managing well and is able to walk his dog daily without difficulty. During the physical examination, there is no tenderness over the back, but there is significant weakness in his right leg, specifically in knee extension. This is a new development. What steps should be taken next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to hospital immediately
Explanation:Spinal Cord Compression: A Serious Condition
Spinal cord compression is a serious condition that needs immediate attention. It occurs when there is pressure on the spinal cord, which can lead to irreversible loss of power and bladder or bowel function. This condition is often seen in patients with a history of cancer and back pain and weakness.
Symptoms and signs of spinal cord compression include radicular pain, limb weakness, difficulty in walking, sensory loss, and bladder or bowel dysfunction. Any delay in diagnosis and treatment can result in permanent damage to the spinal cord. An MRI scan is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old British man with a history of asthma comes to the clinic with a painless lymph node in his groin that has been enlarged for the past three months. He denies any other symptoms except for a generalised itch which he attributes to a recent change in laundry detergent. He has not observed any rash.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymphoma
Explanation:If you notice an enlarged lymph node that cannot be explained, it is important to consider the possibility of lymphoma. It is important to ask about other symptoms such as fever, night sweats, shortness of breath, itching, and weight loss. It is rare for alcohol to cause lymph node pain.
There are no significant risk factors or symptoms suggestive of TB in the patient’s history. It is also unlikely that the presentation is due to syphilis, as secondary syphilis typically presents with a non-itchy rash. The rapid deterioration seen in acute lymphocytic leukemia is not consistent with the patient’s presentation.
Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Risk Factors
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life. There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus.
The most common symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes. This is usually painless, non-tender, and asymmetrical, and is most commonly seen in the neck, followed by the axillary and inguinal regions. In some cases, alcohol-induced lymph node pain may be present, but this is seen in less than 10% of patients. Other symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever (Pel-Ebstein). A mediastinal mass may also be present, which can cause symptoms such as coughing. In some cases, Hodgkin’s lymphoma may be found incidentally on a chest x-ray.
When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia may be present, which can be caused by factors such as hypersplenism, bone marrow replacement by HL, or Coombs-positive haemolytic anaemia. Eosinophilia may also be present, which is caused by the production of cytokines such as IL-5. LDH levels may also be raised.
In summary, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life and is associated with risk factors such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include lymphadenopathy, weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever. When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia, eosinophilia, and raised LDH levels may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old sewage worker complains of feeling unwell and having a fever for the past week. What symptom would be the least indicative of a diagnosis of leptospirosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Productive cough
Explanation:Leptospirosis can lead to pulmonary complications, particularly in cases of severe and advanced disease. These complications may include acute respiratory distress syndrome or pulmonary haemorrhage. The RCGP Curriculum for 2019 includes zoonotic diseases such as brucellosis and leptospirosis in its Knowledge and Skills guide.
Leptospirosis: A Tropical Disease with Early and Late Phases
Leptospirosis is a disease caused by the bacterium Leptospira interrogans, which is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often associated with certain occupations such as sewage workers, farmers, and vets, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases: an early phase characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever, and a later immune phase that can lead to more severe symptoms such as acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, but treatment typically involves high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 94-year-old woman is receiving visits from district nurses. She has recently developed a grade 2 pressure ulcer on her left buttock which is causing her discomfort. Upon examination, her temperature is 36.5ÂșC, there are no indications of cellulitis, and there is no discharge. The skin surrounding the ulcer is red but not hot to the touch.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient based on her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wound dressing, Analgesia, Nutritional assessment
Explanation:When treating pressure ulcers, antibiotics should only be used if there are signs of infection, rather than being routinely prescribed. This is important to consider for an elderly patient with a grade 2 pressure ulcer on their right buttock. Management of pressure ulcers should include wound dressings, appropriate pain relief, and a nutritional assessment. NICE recommends that all patients with pressure ulcers receive a nutritional assessment from a healthcare professional with the necessary skills. Antibiotics should only be used in cases where there is evidence of systemic sepsis, spreading cellulitis, or underlying osteomyelitis. As this patient has a normal temperature and no signs of infection in the wound, oral or IV antibiotics are not necessary.
Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management
Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.
The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.
To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the correct option for measuring blood pressure using either an automated machine or a manual method?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients should rest for 5 minutes before the measurement is taken
Explanation:Guidelines for Measuring Blood Pressure
When measuring blood pressure, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure accurate readings. The patient should be seated for at least five minutes, in a relaxed state without moving or speaking. Blood pressure should be recorded three times, initially testing in both arms. If there is a sustained difference of more than 20 mmHg, use the arm with the higher reading for subsequent measurements. The arm must be supported at the level of the heart.
If the blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg or higher, up to three readings should be taken, and the lower of the last two recorded as the blood pressure. It is important to note that automated devices may not measure blood pressure accurately if there is pulse irregularity, such as atrial fibrillation. In such cases, blood pressure should be measured manually using direct auscultation over the brachial artery. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure accurate blood pressure readings for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher presents with lower back pain. She had a similar episode a year ago and took paracetamol and diazepam. The pain eventually subsided but has now returned. She reports feeling pain mainly on the lower right side for the past two weeks, which worsens with movement and lifting heavy objects. She denies any muscle spasms, urinary or bowel symptoms, or perianal paresthesia. Paracetamol has not provided relief. On examination, there is no tenderness in the spine, and she has a reasonable range of motion, but experiences pain at the extremes of motion. Power and sensation in her lower legs are normal.
What is the recommended management plan for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise ibuprofen
Explanation:Managing Mechanical Back Pain with Anti-Inflammatory Medication
When a patient presents with mechanical back pain, it is important to rule out any red flags before considering treatment options. Once it has been established that there are no serious underlying conditions, the WHO pain ladder recommends starting with paracetamol and then moving on to anti-inflammatory medication if necessary. Since most back pain is inflammatory in nature, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are often the most effective option.
It is important to note that not all NSAIDs are created equal. Piroxicam, for example, is associated with a higher risk of gastrointestinal events, while ibuprofen has a lower risk. When prescribing NSAIDs for back pain, it is important to take into account the patient’s individual risk factors, including age and any pre-existing medical conditions.
It is also worth noting that tramadol, which was previously a common treatment for back pain, is now a controlled drug and is not typically recommended for this purpose. Amitriptyline may be used for nerve-related sciatica symptoms, but is not typically used as a first-line treatment for mechanical back pain.
In summary, when managing mechanical back pain, it is important to consider the potential benefits and risks of different treatment options. NSAIDs are often the most effective option, but it is important to choose the right medication and to take into account the patient’s individual risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet which feel as though he is walking on pebbles. He has been generally very well and the only thing that he can recall was that he returned from holiday in Corfu about 3 weeks ago and had a diarrhoeal illness whilst there.
He takes no medication but admits to taking ecstasy infrequently.
On examination he has some painful limitation of movement at the sacroiliac joints and has painful soreness over the soles of the feet on deep palpation.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Sacroiliitis and Plantar Fasciitis
Sacroiliitis is a condition that affects the sacroiliac joint, which connects the spine to the pelvis. It causes inflammation and pain in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. It causes pain in the heel and arch of the foot.
After experiencing a diarrhoeal illness, the most likely diagnosis for these conditions is reactive arthritis. This is a type of arthritis that occurs as a reaction to an infection in another part of the body, such as the gut. It can cause joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, as well as other symptoms like fever and fatigue.
It is important to note that reactive arthritis is less likely to be associated with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) in this case, as the individual only experienced one acute episode of diarrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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