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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman with idiopathic Raynaud's presents to the clinic with concerns about painful, 'blue' fingers and early signs of ulceration. Despite trying various over-the-counter medications, heating techniques, and calcium channel blockers, she has not experienced any improvement. The patient also has a history of hypertension and is currently taking Losartan.
During the examination, the patient exhibits prominent acrocyanosis with areas of skin discoloration and moderate digital ulceration. There are no signs of sclerodactyly or telangiectasia. Her blood pressure measures 105/60 mmHg.
What medication options are available to alleviate this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Diltiazem
Correct Answer: Epoprostenol
Explanation:Epoprostenol, along with other prostaglandins, is a viable treatment option for Raynaud’s phenomenon. In cases where vasodilation needs to be optimized but the patient cannot tolerate calcium channel blockers, sildenafil is typically the first choice. However, since it is not available in this case and the patient has digital ulcers, the appropriate course of action would be to administer epoprostenol intravenously.
Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.
If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man has completed treatment for community-acquired pneumonia and is awaiting a package of care before discharge. He has a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, type 2 diabetes, and advanced chronic kidney disease. The patient complains of severe pain in his left foot, which is swollen, erythematous, and hot to touch. His latest blood results show elevated creatinine levels. What would be the most appropriate treatment to commence given his likely diagnosis and co-morbidities?
Your Answer: Colchicine
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:In cases where NSAIDs and colchicine cannot be used for gout treatment due to contraindications or intolerance, the next option is to administer steroids. The patient is currently experiencing an acute gout attack, which typically affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Although NICE recommends NSAIDs and colchicine as the primary treatment for acute gout, they are not suitable for this patient due to their severe chronic kidney disease. Therefore, oral steroids like prednisolone should be considered as an alternative.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 57-year-old man with acute polyarticular gout was prescribed colchicine (500 mcg b.d). After two weeks, he was also prescribed allopurinol (300 mg/day) while continuing the colchicine. He was also taking aspirin, omeprazole, furosemide, and insulin. However, he later developed a widespread non-blanching purpuric rash, fever, and malaise and went to see his GP. The following are the results of his recent blood tests:
- Haemoglobin: 121 g/L (130 - 180)
- WBC: 11.9 ×109/L (4-11)
- Neutrophils: 6.1 ×109/L (1.5-7.0)
- Lymphocytes: 2.1 ×109/L (1.5-4.0)
- Eosinophils: 3.0 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
- Platelets: 480 ×109/L (150-400)
- AST: 185 IU/L (1-31)
- ALT: 220 IU/L (5-35)
- Bilirubin: 34 μmol/L (1-22)
- Alkaline phosphatase: 85 IU/L (45-105)
- Urea, electrolytes and creatinine: normal
What is the recommended next step in managing his condition?Your Answer: Discontinue allopurinol
Explanation:Allopurinol can cause hypersensitivity syndrome (AHS) in 0.1-0.4% of patients, which can be severe and even fatal. Risk factors include renal impairment, thiazide diuretic use, and recent initiation of allopurinol. AHS is caused by the toxic effects of oxypurinol or T cell activation. Patients with AHS should not be rechallenged with the drug. Other side effects of allopurinol include itchy rashes, gastrointestinal dysfunction, and deranged liver function tests. Allopurinol can also increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and cause a rash when prescribed with amoxicillin or ampicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male falls while walking his dog. He experiences severe left hip pain and his left leg is shortened and externally rotated. He is rushed to the Emergency Department where an X-ray confirms a left-sided intracapsular neck of femur fracture. The patient undergoes surgery the next day. What measures should be taken to manage his bone health and reduce the risk of future fragility fractures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start alendronate, no imaging required
Explanation:For patients aged 75 years and above who have experienced a fragility fracture, it is recommended to start alendronate as first-line therapy without waiting for a DEXA scan to confirm the diagnosis of osteoporosis. However, for patients under 75 years, a DEXA scan is necessary before prescribing alendronate. The severity of osteoporosis is best assessed through a DEXA scan rather than an MRI scan, which may be useful in cases where underlying malignancy is suspected. It is important to note that vitamin D and calcium replacement alone are not sufficient treatments for osteoporosis and cannot prevent further fragility fractures.
Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.
For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.
For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with SLE (positive for antinuclear antibody [1:6400] and anti-dsDNA antibody) presents with a few months of feeling generally unwell, tiredness, malar rash, and marked pedal edema. She denies any history of breathlessness.
During examination, her blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg, and her urine shows 4+ protein and 2+ hematuria. She has normal heart sounds, but reduced breath sounds at both lung bases. Blood tests reveal a creatinine level of 147, and a renal biopsy shows widespread deposition of IgG within the glomeruli.
What is the most likely cause of these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
Explanation:The renal manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) are highly variable and difficult to classify. Lupus nephritis affects a third of patients early in the disease, but is frequently unrecognised until nephritic and/or nephrotic syndrome with renal failure occur. Histologically, a number of different types of renal disease are recognised in SLE, with immune-complex mediated glomerular disease being the most common. The up to date International Society of Nephrology/Renal Pathology Society 2003 classification divides these into six different patterns. Treatment with immunosuppressive therapy is required in cases of diffuse glomerulonephritis to prevent progression to end-stage renal failure. A biopsy is indicated in those patients with abnormal urinalysis and/or reduced renal function to provide a histological classification as well as information regarding activity, chronicity and prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman comes to her primary care physician complaining of right shoulder pain and stiffness for the past three days. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently taking metformin and gliclazide. She is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol. Her profession is a screenwriter.
During the examination, the patient displays restricted active and passive movements of the right shoulder, with external rotation being the most affected. No crepitus is observed.
What is the most effective way to confirm the diagnosis, considering the probable cause of the patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical examination
Explanation:The diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis can be made through clinical examination alone, without the need for imaging or arthroscopy.
When a patient presents with shoulder stiffness and pain, a clinical examination can reveal limited movement both on active and passive movement, which is indicative of adhesive capsulitis. This condition is often confused with rotator cuff disorders or osteoarthritis, but these can be ruled out based on the specific symptoms. While rotator cuff disorders primarily affect active movement, osteoarthritis may cause pain on active and passive movement, but the joint can still be moved through its range of motion on passive movement, unlike in adhesive capsulitis.
Arthroscopy is an invasive procedure that allows direct visualization of anatomic structures and is typically used to diagnose many shoulder disorders. However, it is not necessary for the diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis.
MRI can be used to diagnose a wide variety of shoulder disorders, including adhesive capsulitis, but its use is limited by cost. Given that adhesive capsulitis can be diagnosed clinically, the use of MRI is not necessary in this case.
Ultrasound is typically used to diagnose pathology associated with rotator cuff disorders, but it is unlikely to be useful in diagnosing adhesive capsulitis.
Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is a common cause of shoulder pain that is more prevalent in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not fully understood. It is associated with diabetes mellitus, with up to 20% of diabetics experiencing an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over a few days and affect external rotation more than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. Bilateral frozen shoulder occurs in up to 20% of patients, and the episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.
The diagnosis of frozen shoulder is usually made based on clinical presentation, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. There is no single intervention that has been proven to improve long-term outcomes. Treatment options include nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids. It is important to note that the management of frozen shoulder should be tailored to the individual patient, and a multidisciplinary approach may be necessary for optimal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has been experiencing painful swelling in his right knee and difficulty walking for the past three days. He has also had two instances of severe pain and swelling in his right big toe within the last year. A knee aspiration revealed the presence of leukocytes but no organisms on Gram stain, as well as negatively birefringent crystals on polarised light microscopy. Recent blood tests showed normal renal function, but a raised serum urate level of 452 µmol/L (210-415 µmol/L). What is the next step in managing his condition in the long term, once the current episode of acute synovitis has subsided?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allopurinol
Explanation:The British Society of Rheumatology guidelines recommend maintaining plasma urate below 300 µmol/L in gout management, with drug therapy (such as allopurinol) indicated in certain cases. Febuxostat is recommended only for patients intolerant of allopurinol. Lifestyle advice is also important. In managing an acute episode of gout, anti-inflammatory medication should be started immediately, affected joints should be rested, and corticosteroids can be used in refractory disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of right elbow pain that has been bothering him for the past 2 days and worsens with movement. He reports no stiffness or involvement of other joints. The patient has no significant medical history and is typically healthy, regularly participating in sports.
During the physical examination, the physician notes tenderness over the right elbow, particularly on the lateral side. There are no skin changes or effusion present.
Which additional finding on examination would most strongly suggest the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pain on resisted wrist extension
Explanation:This patient’s symptoms suggest lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow), as they report experiencing pain on the lateral side of the elbow during activities that involve wrist extension. This is a common symptom of this condition, as the lateral epicondyle is where the extensor muscles of the wrist attach. Pain on resisted finger abduction, forearm extension, and forearm flexion would not be indicative of lateral epicondylitis, as these movements involve different muscle groups that are not typically affected by this condition.
Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis
Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that usually occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged between 45 and 55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The condition is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle, which is worsened by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended.
Episodes of lateral epicondylitis usually last between six months and two years, with patients experiencing acute pain for six to twelve weeks. To manage the condition, patients are advised to avoid muscle overload, take simple analgesia, undergo steroid injection, or receive physiotherapy. With proper management, patients can recover from lateral epicondylitis and return to their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing up of small amounts of blood over the past one week. She also complains of frequent nosebleeds and headaches over the past two months. She feels generally lethargic and has lost a stone in weight.
She is noted to have a purpuric rash over her feet. Chest expansion moderate and on auscultation there are inspiratory crackles at the left lung base.
Investigations show:
Haemoglobin 100 g/L (115-165)
White cell count 19.9 ×109/L (4-11)
Platelets 540 ×109/L (150-400)
Plasma sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144)
Plasma potassium 5.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Plasma urea 30.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Plasma creatinine 760 µmol/L (60-110)
Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
Plasma bicarbonate 8 mmol/L (20-28)
Plasma calcium 2.23 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
Plasma phosphate 1.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Plasma albumin 33 g/L (37-49)
Bilirubin 8 µmol/L (1-22)
Plasma alkaline phosphatase 380 U/L (45-105)
Plasma aspartate transaminase 65 U/L (1-31)
Arterial blood gases on air:
pH 7.2 (7.36-7.44)
pCO2 4.0 kPa (4.7-6.0)
pO2 9.5 kPa (11.3-12.6)
ECG Sinus tachycardia
Chest x ray Shadow in left lower lobe
Urinalysis:
Blood +++
Protein ++
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Explanation:Acid-Base Disorders and Differential Diagnosis of Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
In cases of metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, the primary issue is a decrease in bicarbonate levels and pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory decrease in pCO2. On the other hand, respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation is characterized by an increase in pCO2 and a decrease in pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory increase in bicarbonate levels.
When nosebleeds are present, the diagnosis of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is more likely than microscopic polyarteritis due to upper respiratory tract involvement. Goodpasture’s disease is less likely because it does not cause a rash. In particular, 95% of patients with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis develop antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cytoplasmic pattern) or cANCAs, with proteinase-3 being the major c-ANCA antigen. Conversely, perinuclear or p-ANCAs are directed against myeloperoxidase, are non-specific, and are detected in various autoimmune disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the medical unit with an acutely swollen and hot joint. The swelling is localized to the first metatarsophalangeal joint (MTPJ) and is causing him significant discomfort. He reports having experienced this problem before and having it successfully treated, but the medication used caused him to have severe diarrhea.
Upon examination, the first MTPJ is swollen, red, and extremely tender to the touch. There is limited mobility, and walking causes severe pain.
The patient's medical history includes chronic kidney disease, gout, osteoarthritis, and angina.
Blood tests taken upon admission reveal:
- Hb 140 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
- Platelets 300* 109/L (150-400)
- WBC 10.4* 109/L (4.0-11.0)
- Na+ 138 mmol/L (135-145)
- K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Urea 14 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine 230 µmol/L (55-120)
- CRP 32 mg/L (<5)
Based on the symptoms and medical history, the suspected diagnosis is an acute gout flare. What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone
Explanation:If NSAIDs and colchicine cannot be used due to contraindications or intolerance, the next option for treating gout is a steroid. In this particular case, the most suitable treatment for the patient would be oral prednisolone as he has gout affecting a small joint and has relative contraindications to NSAIDs and colchicine due to asthma, previous intolerance of colchicine, and renal disease. Febuxostat is not a suitable choice as it is a medication used for gout prophylaxis. Another option for treatment would be a steroid injection directly into the affected joint, but not an intramuscular steroid injection.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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