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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and dry eyes that have been bothering her for a few months. She also reports having a significantly dry mouth, which sometimes makes it difficult for her to eat. She has no notable medical history.
During the examination, the doctor observes mild redness in the eyes and a dry tongue. Suspecting a particular diagnosis, the doctor orders an initial blood test:
Antinuclear antibodies 1:1600 (<1:280)
What is the most conclusive test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: Schirmer's test
Correct Answer: Salivary gland biopsy
Explanation:Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome
Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The condition is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with Sjogren’s syndrome have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely than the general population.
The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, as well as check for the presence of rheumatoid factor, ANA, anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and anti-La (SSB) antibodies.
Management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears, as well as medications like pilocarpine to stimulate saliva production. It is important for patients with Sjogren’s syndrome to receive regular medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 68-year-old Caucasian patient with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis has been receiving monthly i.v. cyclophosphamide and oral prednisolone for six months, resulting in well-controlled vasculitis. The next step is to start him on azathioprine. All his blood tests, including full blood count, urea electrolytes, creatinine, and liver function tests, are normal. What screening test should be done before initiating azathioprine therapy?
Your Answer: Blood for thiopurine methyltransferase
Explanation:Importance of Checking TPMT Levels Before Starting Azathioprine
Prior to initiating treatment with azathioprine, it is crucial to check the patient’s blood for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) levels. Azathioprine is metabolized into 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) in the body, which can either be converted into inactive 6-methyl mercaptopurine or methylated into active compounds by TPMT. In Caucasians, 89% of individuals have normal or high levels of TPMT, while 11% have low levels and 0.3% are deficient in TPMT. Administering azathioprine to those who are TPMT deficiency can lead to severe side effects such as myelosuppression.
Patients with normal or high levels of TPMT can safely begin treatment with azathioprine. However, those with low levels of TPMT should be closely monitored and given low doses of azathioprine under expert supervision. Therefore, it is essential to check TPMT levels before starting azathioprine to ensure the safety and efficacy of the treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and has difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She also has constant pain in her arms, shoulders, and jaw when chewing. She has lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, she has tenderness with reduced mobility in the proximal muscles of her arms and legs. Her investigations reveal a low Hb, high WCC, and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal Arteritis: Symptoms and Treatment
Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arteritis is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms. It may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as muscle pain and stiffness, or arteritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. Systemic features like fever, malaise, and weight loss may also be present. Weakness is not a typical feature, but it may be apparent due to pain or stiffness with weight loss. The ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is usually very high in this condition.
Temporal arteritis is a serious complication of this condition that can result in blindness. It is important to note that temporal arteritis is a vasculitis that affects medium and large-sized arteries throughout the body, not just the temporal artery. The superficial temporal artery supplies the orbit of the eye and is a branch of the external carotid artery, while the ophthalmic artery supplies the majority of the blood to the eye itself and is a branch of the internal carotid artery. Inflammation and narrowing of the temporal artery can cause blindness.
If temporal arteritis is suspected, it must be treated with high-dose steroids. This condition is a reminder that prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 22-year-old male presents with a 5-day history of joint pain in both his ankles, left 3rd metacarpal-phalangeal (MCP) joint and right elbow; blood in his urine and a new rash on his forehead, which particularly bothers him. He also complains of chest pain of non-specific nature, onset about one week ago.
On examination, you note bilateral swollen MCP joints, a hyperpigmented, raised erythematous rash on his forehead. Neurological examination reveals a mild distal tremor at rest and activity, with bilateral Kayser Fleischer rings. He was diagnosed with Wilson's disease aged 20 years old and has no other past medical history.
He is currently a research assistant and lives alone. His medications include ibuprofen as required, penicillamine started on diagnosis 2 years ago and he states he has been buying zinc supplements over the counter after reading in a journal that it may be helpful for his condition. Urine dip demonstrates 3+ blood, 1+ protein, no leucocytes or nitrites.
Which blood test is most likely to be diagnostic of his most recent admission?Your Answer: Anti-histone antibody
Explanation:Double-stranded DNA antibody (dsDNA) inhibitor
Drug-induced lupus is a condition that differs from systemic lupus erythematosus in that it does not typically involve renal or nervous system complications. This condition can be resolved by discontinuing the medication that caused it. Symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint and muscle pain, skin rashes (such as a malar rash), and pleurisy. Patients with this condition will test positive for ANA, but negative for dsDNA. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith are only present in around 5%. The most common causes of drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine, while less common causes include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
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A 50-year-old female presents with severe lower back pain. She reports that the pain began a few months ago and has progressively worsened. She has also been experiencing weight loss, fevers, and rigors. Upon examination, there is severe tenderness upon palpation over the L4 vertebrae, but no associated neurological signs are present.
The following blood results were obtained:
- Hb: 105 g/l
- Platelets: 542 * 109/l
- WBC: 20.2 * 109/l
- Neuts: 15.4 * 109/l
- Lymphs: 2.2 * 109/l
- Na+: 140 mmol/l
- K+: 3.8 mmol/l
- Urea: 8.5 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 92 µmol/l
- CRP: 288 mg/l
What diagnostic test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: MRI
Explanation:Discitis patients should undergo a whole spine MRI as it is the most sensitive diagnostic test. MRI is preferred due to its high sensitivity and specificity, and can differentiate between different types of infections and neoplastic processes. While bone and WBC scans are more sensitive than plain film and CT, they lack specificity. Prior to starting antibiotics, a CT guided biopsy should be performed unless there is a positive blood culture that matches the clinical presentation or the patient is unstable/septic.
Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Discitis is a condition that occurs when there is an infection in the intervertebral disc space. This can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral infections like TB or be aseptic in nature.
Symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, there may also be neurological symptoms like changing lower limb neurology if an epidural abscess develops. To diagnose discitis, imaging tests like MRI are used, and a CT guided biopsy may be required to guide antimicrobial treatment.
The standard treatment for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism causing the infection through a positive culture. Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess, which can be life-threatening.
It is important to assess the patient for endocarditis, as discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, implying that the patient has had a bacteraemia and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 57-year-old male presents with gradual onset bilateral tinnitus over the past 3 months, along with worsening hearing, intermittent headache, and increasing lower limb edema. He denies diplopia, vertigo, dysphagia, or dysarthria, as well as any urinary symptoms or weight loss. The patient has a past medical history of hypertension and insulin-dependent diabetes, and reports a family history of prostate carcinoma with both his father and uncle previously undergoing resections. On examination, cranial nerves are unremarkable except for bilateral hearing loss, and there is no limb weakness but significant spinal kyphosis. Heart sounds I and II are heard with no added sounds, and bibasal crackles are auscultated. His abdomen is soft and non-tender. Initial serum markers show platelets at 264 * 109/l, WBC at 9 * 109/l, and Neuts at 5.4 * 109/l, with Na+ at 142 mmol/l, K+ at 4.3 mmol/l, urea at 7.8 mmol/l, creatinine at 90 µmol/l, bilirubin at 6 µmol/l, ALP at 902 u/l, and ALT at 28 u/l, and CRP at 16 mg/l. Parathyroid hormone and vitamin D are within normal range. What other biochemical marker will be abnormal?
Your Answer: C-telopeptide (CTx)
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting around 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities.
Several factors can predispose an individual to Paget’s disease, including increasing age, male sex, living in northern latitudes, and having a family history of the condition. Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. In untreated cases, patients may experience bowing of the tibia or bossing of the skull.
To diagnose Paget’s disease, doctors may perform blood tests to check for elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), a marker of bone turnover. Other markers of bone turnover, such as procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and urinary hydroxyproline, may also be measured. X-rays and bone scintigraphy can help identify areas of active bone lesions.
Treatment for Paget’s disease is typically reserved for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fractures, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, such as oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are commonly used to manage the condition. Calcitonin may also be used in some cases. Complications of Paget’s disease can include deafness, bone sarcoma, fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 32-year-old female intravenous drug user presents to the Emergency Department with a purplish rash on her arms and feet that has been progressively worsening for the past 2 weeks. The rash is not painful or itchy. Upon examination, she appears to be in mild distress and has mild jaundice. Her heart and lungs are normal, but there is tenderness in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen, and her liver edge is palpable 4 cm below the right costal margin. The skin examination reveals palpable purpura on both arms and her left foot, and her right lower limb has erythematous nodules and livedo reticularis. The CNS examination shows decreased strength in plantar flexion and decreased sensation in the left foot. Laboratory results show that she is HIV negative and hepatitis B surface antigen positive. Urine microscopy reveals the presence of red blood cells and protein, but no white blood cells. What is the most likely cause of her rash?
Your Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Skin Lesions, Proteinuria, and Neurological Symptoms
Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a possible diagnosis for a patient presenting with erythematous nodules, livedo reticularis, mononeuritis multiplex, and kidney involvement. This condition is often associated with hepatitis B infection, which can be confirmed by the presence of hepatitis B surface antigen. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, which typically presents with bruising, petechiae, and epistaxis, is less likely to explain the proteinuria and is more commonly seen in children. Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP) can cause a purpuric rash in the lower extremities and buttocks, as well as renal involvement, but it does not typically present with mononeuritis multiplex. Kaposi’s sarcoma is unlikely without HIV and would not explain the neurological symptoms. Impaired coagulation secondary to liver cirrhosis is an unlikely diagnosis in the absence of chronic liver disease and would not account for the neurological symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the medical unit with an acutely swollen and hot joint. The swelling is localized to the first metatarsophalangeal joint (MTPJ) and is causing him significant discomfort. He reports having experienced this problem before and having it successfully treated, but the medication used caused him to have severe diarrhea.
Upon examination, the first MTPJ is swollen, red, and extremely tender to the touch. There is limited mobility, and walking causes severe pain.
The patient's medical history includes chronic kidney disease, gout, osteoarthritis, and angina.
Blood tests taken upon admission reveal:
- Hb 140 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
- Platelets 300* 109/L (150-400)
- WBC 10.4* 109/L (4.0-11.0)
- Na+ 138 mmol/L (135-145)
- K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Urea 14 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine 230 µmol/L (55-120)
- CRP 32 mg/L (<5)
Based on the symptoms and medical history, the suspected diagnosis is an acute gout flare. What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: IM steroid
Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone
Explanation:If NSAIDs and colchicine cannot be used due to contraindications or intolerance, the next option for treating gout is a steroid. In this particular case, the most suitable treatment for the patient would be oral prednisolone as he has gout affecting a small joint and has relative contraindications to NSAIDs and colchicine due to asthma, previous intolerance of colchicine, and renal disease. Febuxostat is not a suitable choice as it is a medication used for gout prophylaxis. Another option for treatment would be a steroid injection directly into the affected joint, but not an intramuscular steroid injection.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman presents with a dry cough, recurrent sinusitis, and weight loss over the past few weeks. Despite multiple courses of antibiotics, her symptoms have not improved. On admission, she has a temperature of 37°C, pedal edema, and a blood pressure of 178/98 mm Hg. A urine dipstick reveals 3+ blood and 3+ protein. She also has bloody nasal discharge. Recent tests show elevated levels of ESR, CRP, and creatinine, as well as a positive ANCA (cytoplasmic pattern) and anti-proteinase 3 antibody. CXR, ultrasound abdomen and pelvis are normal.
What is the next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide - IV
Correct Answer: Renal biopsy
Explanation:Treatment for Generalised Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
This patient has been diagnosed with active generalised Granulomatosis with polyangiitis based on clinical and serological evidence. To confirm the diagnosis and guide treatment, a renal biopsy should be performed before starting any long-term treatment. Azathioprine or methotrexate are not effective in inducing remission for this patient. The recommended pharmacotherapy for her includes IV methylprednisolone (1 gm/day for three days) and cyclophosphamide. If necessary, IV methylprednisolone can be started before the renal biopsy.
Overall, it is important to accurately diagnose and treat generalised Granulomatosis with polyangiitis to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
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A 40-year-old woman presented with symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon and skin tightness. Upon examination, she had sclerodactyly, skin thickening up to the shoulders, and bi-basal crepitations. A HRCT chest revealed ground glass changes, and she was prescribed monthly IV cyclophosphamide (1 gm/month) for six months, along with oral prednisolone (10 mg/day). However, over the course of a few weeks, she began to feel unwell, experiencing exertional shortness of breath and pedal edema. She also had a raised JVP, hypertension, and bi-basal crepitations. Recent tests showed a decline in her health, with a drop in Hb levels, an increase in MCV, and a decrease in platelets. Her blood pressure had also risen significantly, and her urine dipstick showed the presence of protein and blood. Given these symptoms, what is the most likely cause of her worsening renal function?
Your Answer: Scleroderma renal crisis
Explanation:Scleroderma and Renal Crisis
Scleroderma is a rare autoimmune disease that affects the skin and internal organs. In some cases, it can lead to a condition called scleroderma renal crisis (SRC), which occurs in up to 10% of cases. SRC is characterized by rapid onset renal failure, malignant hypertension, micro-angiopathic haemolytic anaemia with schistocytes, and symptoms of fluid overload.
Patients with diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis and pulmonary fibrosis are at a higher risk of developing SRC. Other risk factors include recent onset scleroderma (less than three years), corticosteroid use (prednisolone more than 15 mg/day), and involvement of other systems. The underlying pathology of SRC is vasospasm, and treatment involves starting ACE inhibitors.
It is important to note that scleroderma does not typically associate with interstitial nephritis, glomerulonephritis, and acute tubular necrosis. Early recognition and treatment of SRC is crucial to prevent irreversible kidney damage and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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