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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old man presents to the Neurology clinic for assessment. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the Neurology clinic for assessment. He has a history of migraine with aura and is currently taking topiramate. No other medications are being taken. The following investigations were conducted:

      - Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 3.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 5.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 78 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Venous blood gas:

      - pH 7.29 (7.35 - 7.45)
      - Bicarbonate 16 mmol/L (22 - 29)

      Urinalysis:

      - Glucose 3+
      - Protein 2+
      - Blood negative

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type 4 renal tubular acidosis

      Correct Answer: Type 2 renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is type 2 renal tubular acidosis, which is caused by a defect in the proximal tubular cells. This leads to incomplete reabsorption of protein, glucose, and bicarbonate, resulting in metabolic acidosis with hypokalaemia, proteinuria, and glycosuria. The use of topiramate is likely the cause of this condition.

      Membranous glomerulonephritis is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with nephrotic range proteinuria and is associated with NSAIDs and penicillamine rather than topiramate.

      Type 1 renal tubular acidosis is also an unlikely diagnosis as it affects the distal tubular cells rather than the proximal tubular cells and is not associated with proteinuria and glycosuria.

      Type 3 renal tubular acidosis is rare and typically seen in children or as a result of congenital carbonic anhydrase deficiency, making it an unlikely diagnosis for this patient.

      Renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is a condition that results in hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which is characterized by a normal anion gap. There are three types of RTA, each with its own unique set of causes and complications. Type 1 RTA, also known as distal RTA, is caused by an inability to generate acid urine in the distal tubule, leading to hypokalaemia. This type of RTA can be caused by a variety of factors, including rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, and amphotericin B toxicity. Complications may include nephrocalcinosis and renal stones.

      Type 2 RTA, or proximal RTA, is characterized by a decreased reabsorption of HCO3- in the proximal tubule, which also leads to hypokalaemia. This type of RTA can be caused by a variety of factors, including Wilson’s disease and outdated tetracyclines. Complications may include osteomalacia.

      Type 3 RTA, or mixed RTA, is an extremely rare form of the condition that is caused by carbonic anhydrase II deficiency. This results in hypokalaemia.

      Type 4 RTA, or hyperkalaemic RTA, is caused by a reduction in aldosterone, which leads to a reduction in proximal tubular ammonium excretion. This type of RTA can be caused by hypoaldosteronism and diabetes, and it results in hyperkalaemia.

      Overall, RTA is a complex condition that can have a variety of causes and complications. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause of the condition and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      83.8
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  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his parents. He...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his parents. He has a two day history of general malaise, vomiting and vague abdominal discomfort. Over the past twelve hours he has become increasingly drowsy.

      On examination, he was unresponsive to verbal commands. His temperature was 36.5°C and his blood pressure was 74/48 mmHg. The following investigations were done:

      - Sodium: 121 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium: 6.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 11.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 162 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Glucose: 1.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      - Chloride: 91 mmol/L (95-107)
      - Bicarbonate: 14 mmol/L (20-28)

      After giving emergency treatment, what single investigation would be most valuable in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetracosactrin (Synacthen) test

      Explanation:

      Addisonian Crisis and Diagnosis with Synacthen Test

      The patient is experiencing an Addisonian crisis, which is a life-threatening condition caused by a severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone hormones. To confirm the diagnosis of Addison’s disease, a Synacthen test is performed. This test involves injecting a synthetic hormone called Synacthen, which stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol. Blood samples are taken before and after the injection to measure the levels of cortisol in the blood. If the adrenal glands are functioning properly, the cortisol levels will increase significantly after the injection. However, if the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, the levels will remain low. The Synacthen test is a reliable and accurate way to diagnose Addison’s disease and determine the appropriate treatment plan. It is important to diagnose and treat Addison’s disease promptly to prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      100.5
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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old Muslim man with type II diabetes is currently taking metformin (500mg...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old Muslim man with type II diabetes is currently taking metformin (500mg three times a day) and is planning to fast during Ramadan. He will have a light meal before sunrise (Suhoor) and a large meal at sunset (Iftar). As his endocrinologist, what advice would you give him regarding his metformin intake before the sunset meal?

      Your Answer: Take 1g metformin before the large meal at sunset

      Explanation:

      It is not advisable to discontinue metformin for this patient. However, the total daily dose of metformin should be divided into two: one-third (500mg) to be taken before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds (1g) after sunset (Iftar). If the patient’s blood glucose levels are well-managed with metformin alone, there is no need to switch to a sulphonylurea.

      Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.

      To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.

      Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      110.4
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  • Question 4 - A 67-year-old man presents with severe abdominal pain. He has a history of...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents with severe abdominal pain. He has a history of depression and type 2 diabetes, and takes levemir, sitagliptin, and gliclazide. He denies smoking, alcohol, or illicit drug use, and claims to have been taking all his diabetic medications. On examination, he is overweight with dry mucous membranes and generalised abdominal pain. His blood pressure is 101/76 mmHg, pulse rate is 113 beats per minute, and temperature is 37.8ºC. Investigations reveal elevated levels of creatinine, urea, alkaline phosphatase, alanine transaminase, gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase, amylase, glucose, and positive results for WCC, RBC, and ketones in his urine. What is the likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Drug induced pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The cause of the patient’s raised amylase is most likely pancreatitis, which can be induced by sitagliptin. While a perforated small bowel or diabetic ketoacidosis can also cause elevated amylase levels, the patient’s symptoms and test results make these less likely. Gallstones and biliary obstruction are also unlikely causes, as the patient has no evidence of these conditions. However, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease cannot be ruled out based on the ultrasound scan alone. Both sitagliptin and glucagon like peptide-1 agonists have been associated with pancreatitis and should be discontinued if an episode occurs.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      81.6
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  • Question 5 - What traits are indicative of adult growth hormone (GH) deficiency? ...

    Correct

    • What traits are indicative of adult growth hormone (GH) deficiency?

      Your Answer: Abnormal body composition

      Explanation:

      Growth Hormone Deficiency

      Growth hormone deficiency is a rare condition that affects both children and adults. In children, short stature is often of unknown cause, and only a small percentage of referred patients will have GH deficiency. In adults, GH deficiency is most commonly caused by pituitary surgery or radiotherapy. It can be asymptomatic and may cause altered body composition, which can be treated with recombinant GH. GH deficiency in adults has also been linked to premature mortality.

      Diagnosing GH deficiency requires dynamic function testing, with the insulin tolerance test being the gold standard. A random growth hormone level must be interpreted with caution due to significant diurnal variation. GH release is increased by factors such as deep sleep, fasting, stress, and exercise, while it is inhibited by somatostatin, cortisol, and obesity, among others.

      Overall, GH deficiency and its diagnosis is crucial for proper treatment and management. Further reading and guidelines are available for healthcare professionals to reference.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      830.4
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  • Question 6 - A 19-year-old male with no previous medical history presents to the Emergency Department's...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old male with no previous medical history presents to the Emergency Department's resuscitation room for evaluation. Upon assessment, he is found to be febrile, tachycardic, and hypotensive. A widespread, non-blanching, purple rash is also observed. The diagnosis is meningococcal septicaemia, and appropriate treatment is administered. However, the patient's condition worsens as he develops Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. Which of the following blood test results would be most indicative of his current state?

      Your Answer: Na+ 129 mmol/L, K+ 5.8 mmol/L, Glucose 2.0mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Understanding Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome

      Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is a condition that occurs when the adrenal glands fail due to a previous adrenal haemorrhage caused by a severe bacterial infection. The most common cause of this condition is Neisseria meningitidis, but it can also be caused by other bacteria such as Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli, and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

      The symptoms of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome are similar to those of hypoadrenalism, including lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and weight loss. Other symptoms may include hyperpigmentation, especially in the palmar creases, vitiligo, and loss of pubic hair in women. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, which can lead to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      47.2
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  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old man presents to endocrinology clinic with concerns about gynaecomastia. He had...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents to endocrinology clinic with concerns about gynaecomastia. He had previously seen his GP for this issue, which was initially thought to be related to alcohol excess and possible liver involvement. However, after stopping alcohol and normal liver function tests, this diagnosis was ruled out. The patient has no significant medical history except for a tibial fracture a year ago and a recent diagnosis of migraines. He takes paracetamol for the migraines but finds it ineffective, especially at night. Upon further questioning, he reports difficulty maintaining an erection. On examination, he has gynaecomastia but is otherwise unremarkable. Repeat blood tests in the clinic reveal low morning serum testosterone levels, with normal FSH and LH. What additional investigation would be most helpful in making a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum prolactin

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with symptoms of hypogonadism such as erectile dysfunction and gynaecomastia, along with a new onset of headaches at night, it is likely that they have a prolactinoma. This condition can be detected by high levels of prolactin in the blood. To confirm the diagnosis, an MRI of the pituitary gland should be performed. A CT scan of the brain is unlikely to be helpful in detecting any lesions. A liver biopsy may be necessary if there is unexplained liver failure, and transferrin saturation can be considered if haemochromatosis is suspected. It is important to investigate and treat this condition promptly to prevent further complications.

      Hypogonadism in men can be caused by primary factors such as diseases of the testes, childhood mumps, or secondary factors such as diseases of the hypothalamus or pituitary, Klinefelter syndrome, and Kallmann syndrome. Additionally, testosterone levels in men tend to decrease with age.

      When men experience testosterone deficiency, they may notice a variety of changes in their bodies. These changes can include a loss of libido, erectile dysfunction, lethargy, decreased muscle mass and strength, reduced facial hair growth, and impaired glucose tolerance. It is important for men to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if they suspect they may be experiencing hypogonadism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      143.8
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  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old woman with a history of Grave's disease is seen on the...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman with a history of Grave's disease is seen on the medical floor 24 hours after parathyroidectomy. She is experiencing episodes of carpopedal spasm and tingling sensations around her mouth and hands. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, and her pulse is 90 beats per minute. Her serum calcium level is measured at 1.9 mmol/l.

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Intravenous calcium

      Explanation:

      One liter of normal saline or 5% solution is used to dilute calcium gluconate.

      Understanding Hypocalcaemia: Causes and Management

      Hypocalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. The majority of cases can be diagnosed by combining the clinical history with parathyroid hormone levels. The causes of hypocalcaemia include vitamin D deficiency, chronic kidney disease, hypoparathyroidism, pseudohypoparathyroidism, rhabdomyolysis, magnesium deficiency, massive blood transfusion, and acute pancreatitis. It is important to note that contamination of blood samples with EDTA may also lead to falsely low calcium levels.

      Severe hypocalcaemia can lead to carpopedal spasm, tetany, seizures, or prolonged QT interval, and requires immediate IV calcium replacement. The preferred method is with intravenous calcium gluconate, administered as 10 ml of 10% solution over 10 minutes. It is important to monitor the patient’s ECG during this process. Intravenous calcium chloride is not recommended as it is more likely to cause local irritation. Further management of hypocalcaemia depends on the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old nurse presents after collapsing on a night shift. His blood glucose...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old nurse presents after collapsing on a night shift. His blood glucose is measured at being 1.4 mmol/l. His blood pressure at the time was noted to be 115/82 mmHg. He has no palpitations and had not bitten his tongue or become incontinent during the episodes. He was shaken afterwards, although did not have memory loss and stated he had not tripped over anything. He also said he has had five of these episodes over the last two weeks.

      Blood tests are sent off and unremarkable except for a low-normal C-peptide level and markedly raised insulin level.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for the multiple episodes of collapse in this 26-year-old nurse?

      Your Answer: Sulphonylurea misuse

      Correct Answer: Insulin misuse

      Explanation:

      If hyperinsulinaemia is present without an increase in C-peptide levels, it may indicate insulin misuse. On the other hand, if hyperinsulinaemia is accompanied by elevated C-peptide levels, it may suggest the abuse of sulphonylurea. To eliminate this possibility, it may be necessary to test for the presence of commonly used sulphonylureas in urine.

      Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.

      Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old male has been referred to the endocrine clinic due to low...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male has been referred to the endocrine clinic due to low libido and difficulty in forming sexual relationships. Upon examination, he is found to be tall, with a height of 6 feet 3 inches. His blood pressure is 122/82 mmHg, pulse is regular at 70 beats per minute, and his BMI is 21. He has a long arm span and sparse secondary sexual hair, with small testes measuring less than 5 ml bilaterally. The concern is his long-term risk of osteoporosis.

      What would be the proposed management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Testosterone

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis in Klinefelter’s Syndrome

      Individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome may experience osteoporosis due to testosterone deficiency. Testosterone replacement therapy is the most effective initial management option for this condition. While treatments such as alendronate, calcium and vitamin D, denosumab, and teriparatide are commonly used for patients at high risk of osteoporosis, they may not address the primary defect causing osteoporosis in Klinefelter’s syndrome. Therefore, testosterone replacement therapy should be considered as the first-line treatment for individuals with this condition. Adequate management of osteoporosis in Klinefelter’s syndrome can significantly reduce the risk of fractures and improve overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      52.9
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Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine (8/10) 80%
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