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Question 1
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerns about excessive hair growth and acne. She reports irregular periods and occasional use of oral contraceptives.
During the physical exam, her BMI is 30 and her blood pressure is slightly elevated at 140/88 mmHg. She has mild hair thinning on the front of her scalp, increased hair growth on her upper lip and chin, and hair growth around her nipples and lower abdomen.
Further testing reveals an increased LH/FSH ratio and a testosterone level of 4.5 nmol/l (normal range: 1-2.5 nmol/l). Which of the following tests is most likely to confirm the diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound scan
Explanation:Investigations for Amenorrhea: Understanding the Different Tests
Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods, can be caused by a variety of factors. To determine the underlying cause, several investigations may be necessary. Here are some of the tests that may be ordered and what they can reveal:
Transvaginal ultrasound scan: This test is useful for diagnosing polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), which is a common cause of amenorrhea. The presence of 12 or more follicular cysts in both ovaries measuring 2 to 9 mm and increased ovarian stroma is sufficient to make the diagnosis.
Pituitary MRI: This test is used if a pituitary adenoma is suspected as a cause of amenorrhea. In that case, however, FSH and LH would be suppressed.
17-OH progesterone levels: This test is used as screening for congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH), which can cause amenorrhea in some cases.
Adrenal ultrasound scan: This test is used to detect adrenal tumors, which can cause hormonal imbalances that lead to amenorrhea.
Karyotyping: This test is performed when a genetic cause for primary ovarian insufficiency is suspected, such as fragile X mutation.
Understanding what each test can reveal can help healthcare providers determine the most appropriate course of treatment for their patients with amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy of Greek origin presents to the Endocrinology Clinic with delayed growth and development. He has beta-thalassaemia and requires regular blood transfusions to maintain his haemoglobin (Hb) in the range of 90-100 g/l. Blood tests are ordered and the results are as follows:
Haemoglobin (Hb): 95 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
White cell count (WCC): 7.1 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
Platelets (PLT): 174 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
Sodium (Na+): 130 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
Potassium (K+): 5.3 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
Creatinine (Cr): 90 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
Free T4: 6.5 nmol/l (normal range: 11-22 pmol/l)
9 am cortisol: 52 nmol (normal range: 140-500 nmol/l)
Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1): 2.5 nmol/l (normal range: 9.3-56 nmol/l)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): 0.2 U/l (normal range: 1-25 U/l)
What is the most appropriate replacement therapy to initiate in this case?Your Answer: Hydrocortisone
Explanation:Treatment Priorities for Pituitary Dysfunction
Patients with pituitary dysfunction require hormone replacement therapy to manage their symptoms. In cases of pan-hypopituitarism, corticosteroid replacement with hydrocortisone is essential to avoid adrenal crisis. Sex hormone replacement with oestrogen is important for bone health, while growth hormone replacement can address fatigue and muscle loss. Thyroxine replacement is also necessary but should be started after hydrocortisone to prevent adrenal crisis. Fludrocortisone is only needed for patients with adrenal insufficiency and blood pressure control issues. Prioritizing hormone replacement therapy can help manage symptoms and prevent complications in patients with pituitary dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of increasing fatigue over the past few weeks. She is now unable to leave her house due to exhaustion, has significant nausea, and has not been able to eat for the past 48 hours. The patient has a history of Hashimoto's thyroiditis and type 1 diabetes, for which she takes thyroxine and insulin. On examination, her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, with a postural drop of 20 mmHg on standing, and her pulse is 90 bpm and regular. Laboratory investigations reveal low haemoglobin, low sodium, high potassium, and high creatinine levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome Type 2 (APS ll)
Explanation:Autoimmune Polyglandular Syndrome: Types and Differential Diagnosis
Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome (APS) is a rare disorder characterized by the malfunction of multiple endocrine glands due to autoimmune-mediated damage. There are three types of APS, each with a distinct set of symptoms and glandular involvement.
APS Type 1 is characterized by chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis, hypoparathyroidism, and autoimmune adrenal insufficiency. APS Type 2 is the most common form and presents with Addison’s disease along with autoimmune thyroid disease and/or type 1 diabetes mellitus. APS Type 3 is associated with autoimmune thyroiditis, in conjunction with diabetes mellitus, pernicious anemia, or vitiligo.
In this case, the patient’s symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of Addison’s disease, which is a hallmark of APS Type 2. Pituitary failure, renal tubular acidosis Type IV, and other autoimmune disorders such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can be ruled out based on the patient’s clinical presentation and laboratory findings.
In conclusion, APS should be considered in patients with multiple endocrine gland dysfunction, and a thorough differential diagnosis should be performed to determine the specific type of APS and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man has been admitted with hypercalcaemia due to metastatic prostate cancer. CT scans have confirmed multiple bony, sclerotic metastases in the lumbar spine and pelvis. IV fluids have been administered since admission, and the patient has received IV pamidronate 60 mg three days ago and IV denosumab 120 mg yesterday. The adjusted calcium levels have been monitored and are as follows:
Day 1: 3.32 mmol/L
Day 2: 3.26 mmol/L
Day 3: 3.24 mmol/L
Today: 3.16 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
The patient's renal function today is as follows:
Na+: 126 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
K+: 3.7 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
Bicarbonate: 23 mmol/L (normal range: 22-29)
Urea: 8.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
Creatinine: 132 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcitonin
Explanation:If treatment with fluids and pamidronate is unsuccessful, subcutaneous calcitonin may be used to manage refractory hypercalcaemia of malignancy.
Calcitonin is effective when used in combination with hydration, bisphosphonates, and/or denosumab, all of which have been administered to the patient in question. Its mechanism of action involves increasing renal calcium excretion and reducing bone resorption.
Denosumab is also commonly used in malignancy-associated hypercalcaemia and can be used in emergency situations. However, since the patient received a dose of denosumab the day before, administering another dose would not be appropriate.
Administering another dose of pamidronate would also be inappropriate since the last dose was given three days ago. Bisphosphonates take several days to take effect, and their maximum effect may not be seen until the seventh day.
While loop diuretics can be used to manage hypercalcaemia, thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide should be avoided as they can worsen hypercalcaemia.
Steroids such as prednisolone are not effective in managing hypercalcaemia unless it is associated with sarcoidosis.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia can be managed through various methods. The first step is to rehydrate the patient with normal saline, usually at a rate of 3-4 litres per day. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates can be administered. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximum effect seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option that can be used for quicker effect than bisphosphonates. In cases of sarcoidosis, steroids may also be used. However, loop diuretics such as furosemide should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion. They are typically reserved for patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates, calcitonin, or steroids in certain cases. Loop diuretics may also be used, but with caution. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department.
She has been experiencing increasing fatigue for the past few months and is now suffering from persistent vomiting. She has lost 6 kg over three months.
During examination, her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 70 and regular. She appears tanned and has a BMI of 21.
Investigations reveal the following results:
- Haemoglobin: 122 g/L (115-160)
- White cell count: 8.2 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 222 ×109/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 130 mmol/L (135-146)
- Potassium: 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 132 µmol/L (79-118)
Which of the following treatments is most likely to be effective?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV hydrocortisone
Explanation:Adrenal Insufficiency as the Likely Cause of Hyponatraemia, Weight Loss, and Skin Pigmentation
Hyponatraemia, weight loss, and skin pigmentation are symptoms that suggest a diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency. The initial management for this condition is steroid replacement. The most probable cause of this condition is autoimmune adrenal failure. Serum potassium levels may not be elevated due to gastrointestinal loss caused by vomiting.
Fluid restriction and demeclocycline are not appropriate treatments for this condition as it is unlikely that the hyponatraemia is related to syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Vasopressin is a treatment for cranial diabetes insipidus, which is not the case for this patient. While the patient may require IV fluids due to dehydration, normal saline is not the primary treatment.
In summary, adrenal insufficiency is the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms. Steroid replacement is the initial management, and other treatments such as fluid restriction and demeclocycline are not appropriate. Vasopressin is not a suitable treatment for this condition, and normal saline is not the primary treatment for dehydration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents with a two year history of secondary amenorrhoea and a six year history of facial hirsutism.
Examination reveals normal female secondary sexual characteristics with mild facial hair and hair extending up to the umbilicus and tops of thighs.
Investigations reveal:
Oestradiol concentration 65 pmol/L (130-450)
LH 3.2 mU/L (3-10)
FSH 3.5 mU/L (3-10)
Prolactin 320 mU/L (<450)
Testosterone 3.4 pmol/L (<3)
Which investigation from the following list may provide useful diagnostic information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 17 hydroxyprogesterone (17 OHP) concentration
Explanation:Diagnosis of Hypogonadotrophic Hypogonadism
This patient presents with hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, hirsutism, and a slightly elevated testosterone level. The possible causes of this condition include non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) and Cushing’s syndrome. To diagnose non-classical CAH, a 17-OHP concentration above 33 nmol/L is required. On the other hand, a urine free cortisol test can provide useful information for diagnosing Cushing’s syndrome.
This is not a case of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) or primary ovarian problem since the patient’s LH and FSH levels are normal, and oestradiol levels are low, indicating hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. In contrast, PCOS is characterized by normal oestradiol levels. Pregnancy is also ruled out since high oestradiol and prolactin levels are expected in this condition. An ovarian testosterone-secreting tumor is also unlikely since it would result in much higher testosterone levels.
Further investigation revealed that the patient has non-classical CAH, which is most commonly caused by a defect in 21 hydroxylase. This condition can present at birth with salt wasting syndrome and ambiguous genitalia, during childhood with precocious puberty, or in adulthood with primary or secondary amenorrhoea and hirsutism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with a six-month history of weight loss, anorexia, and fatigue. Her diabetes was previously well controlled with insulin, but she has noticed a decrease in insulin requirement and has experienced hypoglycemic attacks. She has also lost approximately 7 Kg in weight and has been amenorrheic for the last three months. On examination, she is thin with a pulse rate of 70 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg with a postural drop. Which investigation is most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Short synacthen test
Explanation:A female with type 1 diabetes has developed Addisons disease, which explains her hypoglycaemic attacks, decreased insulin requirement, fatigue, and weight loss. This is a feature of Schmidt’s disease, a type 2 autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome. The diagnosis is confirmed through the short synacthen test. It is important to treat with hydrocortisone before replacing thyroxine to avoid Addisonian crisis. The patient also has hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, indicated by low T4, raised TSH, high calcium, low FSH, low LH, and low oestradiol.
Understanding Addisonian Crisis and Its Management
Addisonian crisis is a medical emergency that occurs when the adrenal glands suddenly stop functioning properly. This can be caused by various factors such as sepsis, surgery, adrenal haemorrhage, or steroid withdrawal. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as severe weakness, low blood pressure, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances.
To manage Addisonian crisis, immediate medical attention is required. The first step is to administer hydrocortisone, either intravenously or intramuscularly, at a dose of 100 mg. This should be followed by the infusion of normal saline or dextrose if the patient is hypoglycaemic. Hydrocortisone should be continued every 6 hours until the patient is stable. Fludrocortisone is not required as high cortisol levels exert weak mineralocorticoid action.
After 24 hours, oral replacement therapy may begin and gradually reduced to maintenance over 3-4 days. It is important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels and blood pressure during this time. With prompt and appropriate management, most patients with Addisonian crisis can recover fully.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman comes to the Medical Outpatient Clinic seeking advice. She has been taking atenolol for hypertension for the past two years. During her visit, she asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT) as she suspects she may be going through menopause due to hot flashes, mood swings, and missed periods for the past six months. She has no history of thromboembolism, stroke, or breast cancer, but is concerned about the conflicting information she has read in the media regarding the risks of HRT, particularly in relation to deep venous thrombosis (DVT) and heart disease. What is the correct statement regarding combined oestrogen-progestin therapy for HRT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been found to increase the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in women by 2-4 times, according to the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) clinical trial. The trial was stopped 3 years early due to the increased dangers associated with HRT, particularly in older and obese women. However, thinner and younger women still had a higher risk of DVT when taking HRT compared to those taking a placebo. On the other hand, HRT has been found to have no effect on the risk of DVT and does not reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, according to the Heart and Oestrogen/Progestin Replacement Study (HERS). The WHO also found that HRT can increase the risk of ischaemic stroke due to an increased risk of blood clotting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman is admitted to the acute medical unit due to concerns of exposure to the chickenpox virus. Her GP referred her after she had contact with her grandson who currently has a generalised vesicular rash. The patient has a medical history of heart failure and giant cell arteritis and is currently taking prednisolone, ramipril, and bisoprolol, with a dosage of 40mg for the past two weeks. What is the appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check Varicella Zoster antibodies
Explanation:Patients who have been taking prednisolone at a dosage of 40 mg or higher for a duration of 7 days or longer, or at a dosage of 20 mg or higher for a duration of 14 days or longer, are considered to have compromised immune systems.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhoea.
She is accompanied by her mother who explains that she has also lost approximately 10 kg of weight over the last year and has occasional episodes of diarrhoea. She has recently become a vegetarian and tends to favour wheat snacks and bread.
Her progress at school has been excellent, she plays the piano in the school orchestra and she regularly goes jogging several times a day. She has a younger brother who is well and her mother and maternal aunt have a past history of hyperthyroidism. Her parents divorced about two years ago and she sees her father infrequently. She takes no medication.
On examination she is thin with a BMI of 16.6 kg/m2 and appears phenotypically female. She has normal breast development with no galactorrhoea to expression, has absence of axillary and scanty pubic hair.
Investigations reveal the following:
Plasma oestradiol 70 pmol/L (130-550)
LH 3.5 mU/L (2-10)
FSH 4.0 mU/L (2-10)
17 Hydroxyprogesterone 5.2 nmol/L (3-15)
Free T4 12.4 pmol/L (10-22)
TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5)
Prolactin 520 mU/L (50-500)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa
This patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. The low BMI, excessive exercise, and amenorrhoea due to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism are all common features of this eating disorder. Additionally, the mild hyperprolactinaemia seen in this patient is often observed in individuals with anorexia and is unlikely to be caused by a microprolactinoma at this level. It is important to note that pregnancy would typically result in elevated oestradiol concentrations, which is not the case for this patient. Based on the endocrine abnormalities, it is unlikely that this patient has coeliac disease. Overall, the combination of symptoms and laboratory findings strongly suggest a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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