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Question 1
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A 30-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe right flank pain that radiates to her groin. She was recently referred to the rheumatology department by her GP for investigation of joint pains, dry eyes, and dry mouth. She is not taking any regular medication.
Upon examination, her blood pressure is 132/68 mmHg, and abdominal examination reveals right flank tenderness. The following blood test results were obtained:
- Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 2.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 3.6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 70 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Bicarbonate 9 mmol/L (22 - 28)
- Chloride 116 mmol/L (95 - 105)
- Calcium 2.3 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
- Phosphate 1.1 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Distal renal tubular acidosis
Explanation:Renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is a condition that results in hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which is characterized by a normal anion gap. There are three types of RTA, each with its own unique set of causes and complications. Type 1 RTA, also known as distal RTA, is caused by an inability to generate acid urine in the distal tubule, leading to hypokalaemia. This type of RTA can be caused by a variety of factors, including rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, and amphotericin B toxicity. Complications may include nephrocalcinosis and renal stones.
Type 2 RTA, or proximal RTA, is characterized by a decreased reabsorption of HCO3- in the proximal tubule, which also leads to hypokalaemia. This type of RTA can be caused by a variety of factors, including Wilson’s disease and outdated tetracyclines. Complications may include osteomalacia.
Type 3 RTA, or mixed RTA, is an extremely rare form of the condition that is caused by carbonic anhydrase II deficiency. This results in hypokalaemia.
Type 4 RTA, or hyperkalaemic RTA, is caused by a reduction in aldosterone, which leads to a reduction in proximal tubular ammonium excretion. This type of RTA can be caused by hypoaldosteronism and diabetes, and it results in hyperkalaemia.
Overall, RTA is a complex condition that can have a variety of causes and complications. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause of the condition and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents with a two year history of secondary amenorrhoea and a six year history of facial hirsutism.
Examination reveals normal female secondary sexual characteristics with mild facial hair and hair extending up to the umbilicus and tops of thighs.
Investigations reveal:
Oestradiol concentration 65 pmol/L (130-450)
LH 3.2 mU/L (3-10)
FSH 3.5 mU/L (3-10)
Prolactin 320 mU/L (<450)
Testosterone 3.4 pmol/L (<3)
Which investigation from the following list may provide useful diagnostic information?Your Answer: Sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG) concentration
Correct Answer: 17 hydroxyprogesterone (17 OHP) concentration
Explanation:Diagnosis of Hypogonadotrophic Hypogonadism
This patient presents with hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, hirsutism, and a slightly elevated testosterone level. The possible causes of this condition include non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) and Cushing’s syndrome. To diagnose non-classical CAH, a 17-OHP concentration above 33 nmol/L is required. On the other hand, a urine free cortisol test can provide useful information for diagnosing Cushing’s syndrome.
This is not a case of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) or primary ovarian problem since the patient’s LH and FSH levels are normal, and oestradiol levels are low, indicating hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. In contrast, PCOS is characterized by normal oestradiol levels. Pregnancy is also ruled out since high oestradiol and prolactin levels are expected in this condition. An ovarian testosterone-secreting tumor is also unlikely since it would result in much higher testosterone levels.
Further investigation revealed that the patient has non-classical CAH, which is most commonly caused by a defect in 21 hydroxylase. This condition can present at birth with salt wasting syndrome and ambiguous genitalia, during childhood with precocious puberty, or in adulthood with primary or secondary amenorrhoea and hirsutism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old nursing student presents with frequent episodes of fainting. One of these occurred during a clinical placement in the Emergency Department while a patient was experiencing a heart attack. Blood glucose at the time was noted to be 1.6 mmol/l. All other blood tests were normal.
Upon examination immediately after an episode, her blood pressure was 120/80 mmHg, pulse was 90/min and regular, and she was clammy and cold. Blood taken at the time confirmed a venous blood glucose of 1.3 mmol/l, C-peptide level was low-normal, and insulin levels were significantly elevated.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?Your Answer: Insulin misuse
Explanation:Insulin misuse, insulinoma, sulphonylurea misuse, alcohol misuse, and retroperitoneal sarcoma are potential causes of hypoglycaemia with elevated insulin and normal or low C-peptide. In cases of suspected insulin misuse, healthcare professionals seeking attention may intentionally inject insulin to induce hypoglycaemia. Insulinoma, a rare neuroendocrine tumour, can produce excessive insulin and C-peptide, and is typically diagnosed by inducing hypoglycaemia with supervised fasting and exercise. Sulphonylurea misuse, which can also cause hypoglycaemia, may be detected by measuring levels of these drugs in urine. Alcohol misuse can lead to hypoglycaemia after binge drinking, but is unlikely to be the cause in a hospital worker. Finally, retroperitoneal sarcoma, a rare type of cancer, can produce insulin-like growth factor 2 (IGF-2) and cause hypoglycaemia. Measuring insulin, glucose, and C-peptide levels at the time of a hypoglycaemic episode can help distinguish these different causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is urgently referred to the endocrinology consultant from a Dose Adjustment For Normal Eating (DAFNE) course. The nurse in the course was concerned as the patient, who is in his mid-30s, has experienced three episodes of hypoglycaemia in the past nine months, requiring assistance from his wife to increase his blood glucose levels. He follows a basal bolus regimen of long acting insulin once a night and short acting insulin three times a day, and works in a restaurant. He is an ex-smoker and drinks very little alcohol. Besides adjusting the insulin dose, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Advise the patient to always carry a snack when driving
Correct Answer: Advise the patient to inform the DVLA and to not drive
Explanation:If a patient with diabetes has experienced two hypoglycaemic episodes that required assistance, they must surrender their driving licence. Severe hypoglycaemia, which requires help to correct, is a cause for concern for the DVLA. If a patient experiences two or more episodes of severe hypoglycaemia, they must inform the DVLA and refrain from driving.
Patients who take insulin must have their driving licence assessed annually. This assessment requires the submission of three months’ worth of blood glucose readings. Patients are advised to check their blood glucose levels before driving and to keep a snack in their vehicle at all times, not just during hypoglycaemic episodes.
Patients should be encouraged to inform the DVLA themselves rather than breaching patient confidentiality. However, if a patient repeatedly fails to do so, the doctor should inform the DVLA after informing the patient of their intentions.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male patient visits the endocrine clinic for evaluation. He reports experiencing excessive urination multiple times a day for as long as he can remember. His GP prescribed him indomethacin to reduce his urine output, but it has not been effective. The patient's older sister also suffers from a similar condition, but only during pregnancy. During the examination, his blood pressure is 122/82 mmHg, with a postural drop of 15 mmHg, and his pulse is regular at 80/min. The following are the results of his investigations:
Hb: 145 g/l (135-180)
WCC: 5.1x10(9)/l (3.8-10.8)
PLT: 221x10(9)/l (150-450)
Na: 147 mmol/l (135-145)
K: 5.1 mmol/l (3.5-5.5)
Bicarbonate: 27 mmol/l (18-28)
Cr: 125 micromol/l (60-110)
Glucose: 5.1 mmol/l (<7)
What additional intervention is most likely to benefit this patient?Your Answer: Exogenous ADH
Correct Answer: Sildenafil
Explanation:Treatment for Congenital Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
Congenital x-linked nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a condition that causes excessive urination due to the kidneys’ inability to respond to antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Sildenafil, a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, has been found to significantly reduce urine output in patients with this condition. While NSAIDs and thiazide diuretics may also be helpful, congenital nephrogenic DI is generally unresponsive to exogenous ADH.
Reducing salt and protein intake may also help reduce polyuria, but this may significantly impact the patient’s diet and the effect may only be modest. Thiazides are more effective than loop diuretics in reducing urine output in congenital nephrogenic DI. Therefore, sildenafil and thiazides are the most effective treatments for this condition.
In summary, congenital nephrogenic DI is a condition that causes excessive urination due to the kidneys’ inability to respond to ADH. Sildenafil and thiazides are the most effective treatments for this condition, while reducing salt and protein intake may also be helpful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman comes to the Medical Outpatient Clinic seeking advice. She has been taking atenolol for hypertension for the past two years. During her visit, she asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT) as she suspects she may be going through menopause due to hot flashes, mood swings, and missed periods for the past six months. She has no history of thromboembolism, stroke, or breast cancer, but is concerned about the conflicting information she has read in the media regarding the risks of HRT, particularly in relation to deep venous thrombosis (DVT) and heart disease. What is the correct statement regarding combined oestrogen-progestin therapy for HRT?
Your Answer: Increased risk of DVT in women on HRT
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been found to increase the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in women by 2-4 times, according to the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) clinical trial. The trial was stopped 3 years early due to the increased dangers associated with HRT, particularly in older and obese women. However, thinner and younger women still had a higher risk of DVT when taking HRT compared to those taking a placebo. On the other hand, HRT has been found to have no effect on the risk of DVT and does not reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, according to the Heart and Oestrogen/Progestin Replacement Study (HERS). The WHO also found that HRT can increase the risk of ischaemic stroke due to an increased risk of blood clotting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male presents with 48 hours of general malaise. 20 years ago, he underwent a resection of a pituitary mass and has since been compliant on desmopressin, levothyroxine and hydrocortisone, up until his last dose earlier in the morning. He has no other past medical history. His wife reports the patient to have had reduced oral intake for the past 2 days while he has been unwell. He has no reported head injuries, rigors or pyrexia.
On examination, his GCS is E3 V2 M5. He is cool peripherally and a temperature demonstrates 33.4 degrees under his tongue. His spot blood glucose is 2.2 mmol/l. His blood pressure is 86/50 mmhg heart rate 110/min and sinus rhythm. Blood tests demonstrate a sodium of 158 mmol/l and potassium of 4.2 mmol/l. What is your first action(s)?Your Answer: Administer IV liothyronine
Correct Answer: Administer IV hydrocortisone
Explanation:If a patient with a history of long-term steroid use suddenly experiences hypotension, hypothermia, and hypoglycemia, it is important to treat them for an Addisonian crisis. It is important to note that while textbooks often mention hyponatremia and hyperkalemia as the classic biochemical presentation, this may not always be the case in real-life situations. While the patient may also have thyroid deficiency, it is not the most immediate concern and thyroid function tests or intravenous free T3 should not be the first treatment option. Additionally, a random cortisol test may not be useful in interpreting the situation if the patient has recently taken hydrocortisone outside of the hospital.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is usually given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Fludrocortisone is also included in the treatment regimen. Patient education is crucial in managing Addison’s disease. Patients should be reminded not to miss glucocorticoid doses, and they may consider wearing Medic Alert bracelets and steroid cards. Additionally, patients should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis. It is also important to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness.
During an intercurrent illness, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose remains the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios for managing intercurrent illness. These guidelines can be found on the CKS link for more information. Proper management of Addison’s disease is essential to ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment and care they need to manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old female presents to the medical outpatient department with a progressive loss of libido. She attributes this to persistent diarrhoea, which she has noted over the last 6 months. She has also lost 14kg of weight and feels fatigued. She has noticed that her eyes have become grossly protuberant and she has double vision on looking towards either the right or left. She also experiences painful watering of her eyes.
On examination she has a marked tremor in both hands, her heart rate is irregularly irregular and she has marked exophthalmos. There is an audible bruit on auscultation of the thyroid gland.
Her laboratory investigations reveal:
Hb 130 g/l
MCV 77 fl
MCH 29 pg
WBC 7.4 * 109/l
Plt 430 * 109/l
TSH 0.03 mU/l (0.4 3.6 mU/l)
Total T4 302 nmol/l (68 174 nmol/l)
CT scan of the orbits reveals taut optic nerves and retro-orbital oedema.
What is the most appropriate management for her eye condition?Your Answer: Treatment with IV methylprednisolone
Explanation:Systemic steroids are the treatment of choice for ophthalmopathy associated with Graves disease. Treatment of the underlying thyrotoxicosis is important but will not directly improve the eye disease. Radioactive iodine therapy should not be the initial treatment option as it may worsen the ophthalmopathy. Hypothyroidism induced by treatment should also be avoided.
Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.
Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.
Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male presents with difficulty sleeping, weight loss, and anxiety. He has been taking combined cyclical oestrogen/progesterone hormone replacement therapy for the past two years. On examination, he has a body mass index of 25 kg/m2, a pulse of 100 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg. No goitre is palpable, and eye movements are normal. Weakness of the proximal musculature of the shoulder and hip girdles is noted. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable splenic tip.
Initial investigations reveal the following:
- Serum total thyroxine 260 nmol/L (60-140)
- Plasma TSH <0.1 mU/L (0.4-5.0)
- Serum alkaline phosphatase 190 U/L (45-105)
- Serum gamma glutamyl transferase 28 U/L (4-35)
The patient's GP prescribes carbimazole 10 mg tds and propranolol 120 mg BD. At the six-week review, the patient appears clinically euthyroid. Repeat investigations show:
- Free thyroxine 190 nmol/L
- Plasma TSH 2.5 mU/L
- Serum alkaline phosphatase 170 U/L
- Serum gamma glutamyl transferase 35 U/L
The dose of carbimazole is decreased to 20 mg daily. After one year, the GP decides to refer the patient to endocrine outpatients. Two weeks before the appointment, the patient had a chest infection treated with erythromycin. His blood test results show:
- Serum thyroxine 85 nmol/L
- Plasma TSH 11.2 mU/L
- Serum alkaline phosphatase 100 U/L
What would be the most appropriate next investigation?Your Answer: Full blood count
Correct Answer: Serum free thyroxine
Explanation:Importance of Serum Free Thyroxine in Evaluating Hypothyroidism in Patients on HRT
The patient’s recent thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) test results indicate hypothyroidism, but her serum total thyroxine levels are within the normal range. However, it is important to note that the patient is currently receiving oestrogen/progesterone hormone replacement therapy (HRT).
Thyroxine is primarily bound to thyroxine binding globulin in the bloodstream. Oestrogen therapy is known to increase the levels of thyroxine binding globulin in the serum. Therefore, the total serum thyroxine levels may not accurately reflect the patient’s thyroid function in this case.
To confirm whether the patient is truly hypothyroid or not, it is crucial to measure the serum free thyroxine levels. This test measures the amount of unbound thyroxine in the bloodstream and is not affected by changes in thyroxine binding globulin levels. Therefore, it provides a more accurate assessment of the patient’s thyroid function, especially in patients on HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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You assess a 75-year-old male in the endocrine clinic who has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism for the past 20 years. He also has a medical history of dyslipidemia and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient is currently taking levothyroxine 125 mcg daily, atorvastatin 20 mg daily, budesonide/formoterol inhaler 2 puffs BD, and salbutamol inhaler PRN. The latest thyroid function tests reveal:
TSH 0.4 mIU/l
FT4 29 pmol/l
Based on these results, you decide to decrease the dose of levothyroxine. What is the potential danger of over-replacement with levothyroxine?Your Answer: Osteoporosis
Explanation:Over-replacing thyroxine can lead to a higher risk of osteoporosis and atrial fibrillation. Weight gain is a symptom of untreated hypothyroidism, but cognitive impairment is not a known negative effect of thyroxine. While levothyroxine may cause slight increases in liver enzymes, there have been no instances of liver failure reported.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25 mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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