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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old male with a 12-year history of ulcerative colitis (UC) presented with...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male with a 12-year history of ulcerative colitis (UC) presented with right upper quadrant pain and pruritus. He has noticed pale stools recently. He is currently taking sulfasalazine and has had two minor relapses in the past. On examination, he has five spider naevi on the upper trunk, a 5 cm hepatomegaly, and a tippable spleen, but no ascites. Laboratory investigations revealed thrombocytopenia, prolonged prothrombin time, elevated serum bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase, and alkaline phosphatase. Hepatitis B surface antigen was negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Possible Complications of Cirrhosis with Portal Hypertension

      This man is suffering from cirrhosis with portal hypertension, cholestasis, and liver synthetic failure. The most likely diagnosis is primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), which has a strong association with ulcerative colitis. However, there is an increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma with PSC, which could be the reason for his deterioration.

      It is important to note that drug cholestasis and colonic carcinoma would not explain the stigmata of chronic liver disease, such as spiders and splenomegaly. Additionally, primary biliary cirrhosis is uncommon in men and is not associated with ulcerative colitis.

      Overall, this patient’s condition is complex and requires careful monitoring and management to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a four-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a four-week history of increasing frequency of diarrhoea, up to eight times per day. She has noticed blood in her stools over the past few days. She reports a weight loss of 5 kg over the past few months and intermittent night sweats. On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 90 bpm and regular. Abdominal examination reveals mild tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Stool cultures taken by her General Practitioner have been negative. Which investigation would be most helpful in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Flexible sigmoidoscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Steps for Chronic Bloody Diarrhoea: Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a possible diagnosis to exclude in patients with chronic bloody diarrhoea and negative stool cultures. A flexible sigmoidoscopy with biopsy is the most useful step in establishing the diagnosis, as distal disease is always present. Treatment involves oral and rectal corticosteroids and a 5-ASA compound to achieve remission. Other diagnostic steps, such as an abdominal X-ray, barium enema, hydrogen breath test, and ultrasound scan (USS) abdomen, may be useful in certain situations but are not the primary diagnostic tool for ulcerative colitis. An abdominal X-ray is useful in investigating for toxic megacolon in patients with acute severe colitis. A barium enema is contraindicated in patients with acute severe colitis due to the risk of perforation. A hydrogen breath test is useful in confirming bacterial overgrowth syndrome. An USS abdomen is more useful in investigating hepatobiliary disorders, which are complications in patients with inflammatory bowel disease. Ulcerative colitis is an important risk factor for primary sclerosing cholangitis and gallstone disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      104.2
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  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old man visits his GP to inquire about bowel cancer screening after...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man visits his GP to inquire about bowel cancer screening after receiving an invitation by mail. What is the most accurate statement about the screening process according to the National Health Service guidelines?

      Your Answer: Screening is to be offered to all men and women aged 60-74

      Explanation:

      The Genetics of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a degenerative neurological disease that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that only one copy of the faulty gene is needed for an individual to develop the disease. In the case of a heterozygous father and a mother with no copies of the gene, there is a 50% chance that their offspring will inherit the faulty gene and develop the disease.

      Symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically appear in early middle age and include unsteady gait, involuntary movements, behavioral changes, and progressive dementia. The defective gene responsible for the disease is located on chromosome 4, and there is a phenomenon known as genetic anticipation where the disease can manifest earlier in life in subsequent generations.

      Fortunately, genetic screening is now available to identify individuals who carry the faulty gene. This can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and allow for early intervention and treatment. The genetics of Huntington’s disease is crucial for individuals and families affected by the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      80.5
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man comes to the outpatient clinic for follow-up. He was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the outpatient clinic for follow-up. He was diagnosed with ulcerative pancolitis 10 years ago and is currently on Asacol (mesalazine) treatment. A colonoscopy was performed last month, which revealed mild active inflammation throughout the colon and no polyps. He has no significant family history. What is the recommended time interval for his next surveillance colonoscopy?

      Your Answer: 2 years

      Correct Answer: 3 years

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with inflammatory bowel disease have a significantly higher risk of developing colorectal cancer, up to 6 times more than the general population. Therefore, it is recommended that regular colonoscopies are conducted for surveillance purposes. However, these screenings are only initiated 10 years after diagnosis and their frequency is determined by various factors such as previous endoscopic findings, inflammation distribution, family history of colorectal cancer, and other relevant medical history (e.g. PSC).

      In this case, the patient is classified as an intermediate risk due to having pancolitis (inflammation throughout the colon) with mild inflammation detected during previous endoscopy. As a result, the recommended time interval between surveillance investigations is 3 years.

      Colorectal Cancer Risk in Ulcerative Colitis Patients

      Ulcerative colitis patients have a significantly higher risk of developing colorectal cancer compared to the general population. The risk is mainly related to chronic inflammation, and studies report varying rates. Unfortunately, patients with ulcerative colitis often experience delayed diagnosis, leading to a worse prognosis. Lesions may also be multifocal, further increasing the risk of cancer.

      Several factors increase the risk of colorectal cancer in ulcerative colitis patients, including disease duration of more than 10 years, pancolitis, onset before 15 years old, unremitting disease, and poor compliance to treatment. To manage this risk, colonoscopy surveillance is recommended, and the frequency of surveillance depends on the patient’s risk stratification.

      Patients with lower risk require a colonoscopy every five years, while those with intermediate risk require a colonoscopy every three years. Patients with higher risk require a colonoscopy every year. The risk stratification is based on factors such as the extent of colitis, the severity of active endoscopic/histological inflammation, the presence of post-inflammatory polyps, and family history of colorectal cancer. Primary sclerosing cholangitis or a family history of colorectal cancer in first-degree relatives aged less than 50 years also increase the risk of cancer. By following these guidelines, ulcerative colitis patients can receive appropriate surveillance and management to reduce their risk of developing colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      34.4
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old female presents to the emergency department with jaundice. She denies any...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female presents to the emergency department with jaundice. She denies any alcohol consumption and reports no recent travel or abdominal pain. Upon examination, the patient is afebrile and has palpable tender hepatomegaly. The sclerae are icteric, but there are no signs of chronic liver disease. Initial liver function tests show:

      - Bilirubin: 141 µmol/l
      - ALP: 208 u/l
      - ALT: 635 u/l
      - Albumin: 36 g/l
      - INR: 1.2

      Further questioning reveals that the patient takes regular thyroxine following a thyroidectomy but no other medications. An ultrasound and viral hepatitis screen show:

      - HBsAg: Negative
      - HBcAb: Negative
      - Hep C Ab: Negative
      - Ultrasound: Smooth hepatomegaly

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum AMA titres will often be raised

      Correct Answer: Liver biopsy will show an interface hepatitis

      Explanation:

      At the age of 10, the patient was diagnosed with EBV hepatitis, which was characterized by lymphocytosis. However, there were no indications of infectious mononucleosis in their medical history.

      Autoimmune hepatitis is a condition that affects young females and has an unknown cause. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, hypergammaglobulinaemia, and HLA B8, DR3. There are three types of autoimmune hepatitis, which are classified based on the types of circulating antibodies present. Type I affects both adults and children and is characterized by the presence of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA). Type II affects children only and is characterized by the presence of anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1 antibodies (LKM1). Type III affects adults in middle-age and is characterized by the presence of soluble liver-kidney antigen.

      The symptoms of autoimmune hepatitis may include signs of chronic liver disease, acute hepatitis (which only 25% of patients present with), amenorrhoea (which is common), the presence of ANA/SMA/LKM1 antibodies, raised IgG levels, and liver biopsy showing inflammation extending beyond the limiting plate ‘piecemeal necrosis’ and bridging necrosis. The management of autoimmune hepatitis involves the use of steroids and other immunosuppressants such as azathioprine. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      77.6
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  • Question 6 - A 48-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic with complaints of polyuria and...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic with complaints of polyuria and polydipsia for the past two months. He recently returned from a holiday in Portugal where his urine tested positive for glucose at his GP's office. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications, although he did request a trial of sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. On examination, he appears tanned and healthy, with a palpable liver edge and small testes. His lab results show a high transferrin saturation and glucose in his urine. Which diagnostic test would be most helpful in determining his condition?

      Your Answer: Genetic analysis for C282Y and H63D mutations

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. It is prevalent in Europeans, and two mutations of the HFE gene (C282Y and H63D) are responsible for over 90% of cases. The disease is also linked to HLA-A3 and HLA-B14.

      The condition causes an excessive accumulation of iron in the body, leading to various symptoms such as tanned skin, impotence, and diabetes. The patient’s iron levels are elevated, and transferrin saturation is high.

      Haemochromatosis is a serious condition that can lead to organ damage if left untreated. Early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the symptoms and prevent complications. It is important to be aware of the genetic risk factors and to undergo regular screening if there is a family history of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      142.1
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  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old female undergraduate student presented to the gastroenterology clinic with a three-year...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female undergraduate student presented to the gastroenterology clinic with a three-year history of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and complaints of constipation. Despite trying dietary advice and various laxatives, including senna and sodium docusate in full doses and a trial of macrogol, there has been no improvement. The patient reports that the issue mainly occurs during exam periods. She had an appendectomy five years ago with no complications. Blood tests revealed:

      - Hb: 120 g/L
      - Platelets: 310* 10^9/L
      - WBC: 8* 10^9/L
      - Na+: 140 mmol/L
      - K+: 4.4 mmol/L
      - Urea: 6.5 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 100 µmol/L

      What is the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Add tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)

      Correct Answer: Add linaclotide

      Explanation:

      The latest updates in NICE guidelines recommend the use of linaclotide as the next course of action for patients with IBS who experience stubborn constipation despite taking multiple laxatives at appropriate doses. Linaclotide is a guanylate cyclase-C receptor agonist that enhances intestinal fluid secretion and transit while reducing visceral pain. NICE does not recommend lactulose for IBS patients. If linaclotide proves ineffective, the next step is to add a TCA or SSRI.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      99.2
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  • Question 8 - A 46-year-old man with a history of alcoholic cirrhosis presents to the acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man with a history of alcoholic cirrhosis presents to the acute medical unit complaining of upper abdominal pain that worsens after meals. He denies any changes in bowel habits or the presence of dark, sticky, or foul-smelling stools. An oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) is scheduled, and the results are as follows:

      - Oesophagus: Grade 1 varices with no evidence of recent or active bleeding
      - Stomach: Moderate non-haemorrhagic gastritis
      - Duodenum: Unremarkable

      The patient has no prior history of oesophageal varices. What is the most appropriate management plan for his condition?

      Your Answer: Propranolol 40mg BD and titrate up as tolerated

      Correct Answer: Repeat OGD in 1 year

      Explanation:

      For patients diagnosed with cirrhosis, the recommended approach for managing varices is as follows: if no varices are present, a rescope should be scheduled in 2-3 years; if grade 1 varices are present, a rescope should be scheduled in 1 year; and if grade 2 or 3 varices or signs of bleeding are present, a non-cardio selective beta blocker should be administered. Based on the patient’s reported symptoms, it appears that they are experiencing gastritis and there is no indication of bleeding during the OGD exam. Therefore, it is likely that the patient has non-bleeding grade 1 varices and should schedule a rescope in 1 year.

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.

      To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      46.3
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man visits his primary care physician with a 4-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his primary care physician with a 4-week history of occasional rectal bleeding. He has noticed blood on the toilet paper a few times while wiping. He is concerned because his father was diagnosed with colon cancer at the age of 60. The patient has no significant medical history but reports chronic constipation since his early 20s.

      Upon examination, the patient has a soft and non-tender abdomen. There is no active bleeding or pain during digital rectal examination.

      What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Faecal calprotectin testing

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and discharge

      Explanation:

      Management of Rectal Bleeding in Young Adults

      Rectal bleeding in young adults is commonly caused by haemorrhoids or anal fissures. In the absence of pain and a history of constipation, haemorrhoids are the likely cause. Targeted screening is recommended for certain groups, including those with inherited conditions, a strong family history of colorectal cancer, ulcerative colitis or Crohn’s disease, and those who have had polyps or colorectal cancer in the past.

      For patients with intermediate-risk of disease, faecal occult blood screening is recommended at intervals of one to three years. Faecal calprotectin is a sensitive marker for gastrointestinal inflammation, but is not indicated in this patient who is relatively well with constipation.

      If bleeding persists despite conservative management, colonoscopy can be considered to investigate alternative causes of bleeding. Referral to General Surgeons is indicated if there are concerns of an acute surgical cause of rectal bleeding, but in a young woman with minor bleeding and no other systemic symptoms, these differentials seem unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      81.2
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman with a long history of Crohn's disease presents at the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman with a long history of Crohn's disease presents at the clinic for follow-up. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has been taking 100mg BD of azathioprine to manage her Crohn's disease, which is stable at the moment. Her bowel movements are normal, with a formed motion, and she goes 2-3 times a day. Upon clinical examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no palpable masses, and bowel sounds are normal.

      Hb 110 g/l Na+ 139 mmol/l
      Platelets 180 * 109/l K+ 4.0 mmol/l
      WBC 6.7 * 109/l Urea 7 mmol/l
      Neuts 3.2 * 109/l Creatinine 80 µmol/l
      Lymphs 1.4 * 109/l CRP 10 mg/l
      Eosin 0.7 * 109/l

      What is the most appropriate management plan for her Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer: Continue azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Extensive data has been gathered on the use of azathioprine in pregnant women with underlying inflammatory bowel disease, arthritis, or skin disease. Although this data comes from registries and is not as reliable as a randomized controlled trial, it does not indicate a significant increase in the risk of birth defects associated with azathioprine use. Therefore, the BGS recommends continuing to use azathioprine.

      Methotrexate is known to cause birth defects and should not be used during pregnancy. Long-term use of corticosteroids during pregnancy is also not recommended due to adverse effects such as weight gain and reduced bone mineral density. However, corticosteroids may still be used to manage flare-ups while on azathioprine. It is not advisable to stop all immunosuppressants as this could worsen Crohn’s disease.

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.

      Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      94.6
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Gastroenterology And Hepatology (5/10) 50%
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