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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old nurse presents to the emergency department after experiencing a needle-stick injury...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old nurse presents to the emergency department after experiencing a needle-stick injury while caring for a patient in the intensive care unit. The nurse followed correct first aid procedure and was wearing gloves, but the needle had been visibly blood stained and had not been placed in an appropriate sharps bin. The patient who had been the needle-stick donor was being treated for rabies encephalitis, which he had contracted following a dog bite in Pakistan. The nurse is unsure if she has had previous vaccination against rabies. What is the appropriate management of the needle-stick injury to prevent transmission of rabies?

      Your Answer: Rabies immunoglobulin and full course rabies vaccination

      Explanation:

      This is a challenging clinical decision as humans are considered the end-host for the rabies virus, and interhuman transmission is rare. However, the needle-stick injury described could potentially lead to transmission of the virus, making it a possible rabies exposure. The patient’s immunization history is unclear, so rabies immunoglobulin should be administered to provide passive antibodies at the site of exposure. The recommended dose is 20 IU/Kg, administered locally around the wound. Post-exposure vaccination is also necessary, with a four-dose schedule recommended by the WHO (given on days 0, 3, 7, and 14). If the individual has been previously vaccinated, immunoglobulin is not required, and a two-dose vaccination schedule (given on days 0 and 3) should be given.

      Understanding Rabies: A Deadly Viral Disease

      Rabies is a viral disease that causes acute encephalitis and is caused by a bullet-shaped capsid RNA rhabdovirus. The disease is primarily transmitted through dog bites, but it can also be transmitted through bites from bats, raccoons, and skunks. Once the virus enters the body, it travels up the nerve axons towards the central nervous system in a retrograde fashion.

      Rabies is a deadly disease that still kills around 25,000-50,000 people worldwide each year, with the majority of cases occurring in poor rural areas of Africa and Asia. Children are particularly at risk. The disease has several features, including a prodrome of headache, fever, and agitation, hydrophobia, water-provoking muscle spasms, hypersalivation, and Negri bodies, which are cytoplasmic inclusion bodies found in infected neurons.

      In developed countries like the UK, there is considered to be no risk of developing rabies following an animal bite. However, in at-risk countries, it is essential to take immediate action following an animal bite. The wound should be washed, and if an individual is already immunized, then two further doses of vaccine should be given. If not previously immunized, then human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) should be given along with a full course of vaccination. If left untreated, the disease is nearly always fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department some 2 weeks after returning...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department some 2 weeks after returning from her honeymoon in Bali. Since returning she has suffered from intermittent abdominal bloating and diarrhoea and feels she has lost a little weight. Physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 118/82 mmHg, and her pulse is 70 and regular. There is mild abdominal distension and her body mass index is 22 kg/m².

      Investigations:

      Hb 110 g/l Na+ 138 mmol/l
      Platelets 210 * 109/l K+ 4.0 mmol/l
      WBC 11.2 * 109/l Urea 6.9 mmol/l
      Neuts 8.1 * 109/l Creatinine 89 µmol/l
      Lymphs 1.5 * 109/l CRP 82 mg/l
      Albumin 34 g/l

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s recent trip to a tropical region of Africa, along with symptoms of intermittent bloating and diarrhea, and an elevated CRP, the most probable diagnosis is Giardiasis. Typically, empirical treatment involves a course of metronidazole or a single dose of 2g tinidazole. It’s important to note that food intolerances, particularly lactose intolerance, may persist even after the initial infection has been treated.

      It’s unlikely that the patient has listeriosis or campylobacter, so amoxicillin and ciprofloxacin would not be appropriate treatments. Additionally, a wheat-free or lactose-free diet is not necessary at this time, as the patient is likely still dealing with the effects of giardiasis. However, it’s common for patients to experience lactose intolerance symptoms following giardiasis.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a disease caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some people may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In some cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may also occur. To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts is usually done, although stool antigen detection assay and PCR assays are also being developed. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old male presents with a high-grade fever and vomiting for 8 days....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male presents with a high-grade fever and vomiting for 8 days. He recently returned from a jungle safari in Africa with a group of friends and began feeling unwell whilst he was there. During the trip, he spent most of the time camping outdoors. He does not have any history of fits or loss of consciousness, although he has been feeling drowsy and complains of generalised malaise. He also has pain in his ankle and knee joints but they are not swollen. He takes alcohol regularly and smokes cannabis socially.

      On examination, he has a fever of 39°C and a pulse of 135 bpm. His blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. He is icteric but does not have any flapping tremors. There is evidence of an enlarged spleen which is palpable 3 finger breadths below the left costal margin. The liver span is normal.

      Lab reports reveal:

      Hb 115 g/l
      Platelets 100 * 109/l
      WBC 9.5 * 109/l
      Reticulocytes 5% (0.2 - 2%)

      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.6 mmol/l
      Urea 5.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 83 µmol/l

      Bilirubin 49 µmol/l
      AST 50 u/l
      ALT 25 u/l
      Glucose 6.0 mmol/l

      CT scan brain: Normal

      CSF examination reveals:

      Appearance Clear
      Protein 0.3 g/L (0.2 0.4 g/L)
      Glucose 5.3 mmol/l
      Lymphocytes 15/mm³
      Neutrophils 10

      What is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Artemether/lumefantrine

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of cerebral malaria is likely based on the patient’s high-grade fever, travel history to an endemic area, splenomegaly, thrombocytopenia, evidence of hemolysis (elevated bilirubin and reticulocytosis), and normal blood leukocyte count. The most appropriate treatment would be a combination of artemether and lumefantrine, which provides effective coverage against Plasmodium falciparum.

      Diagnosis involves examining blood films (thick and thin) for evidence of parasitemia and using the ICT-MP test.

      The CSF findings are non-specific, with only a mild lymphocytosis present, ruling out bacterial or tuberculous meningitis.

      The slightly elevated AST is likely due to the patient’s history of alcohol consumption.

      Understanding Falciparum Malaria and its Complications

      Falciparum malaria is the most common and severe type of malaria. It is characterized by schizonts on a blood film, parasitaemia greater than 2%, hypoglycaemia, acidosis, temperature above 39°C, severe anaemia, and various complications. Complications of falciparum malaria include cerebral malaria, acute renal failure, acute respiratory distress syndrome, hypoglycaemia, and disseminated intravascular coagulation.

      In areas where strains resistant to chloroquine are prevalent, the 2010 WHO guidelines recommend artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs) as first-line therapy for uncomplicated falciparum malaria. Examples of ACTs include artemether plus lumefantrine, artesunate plus amodiaquine, artesunate plus mefloquine, artesunate plus sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine, and dihydroartemisinin plus piperaquine.

      For severe falciparum malaria, a parasite count of more than 2% usually requires parenteral treatment regardless of clinical state. The WHO now recommends intravenous artesunate over intravenous quinine. If the parasite count is greater than 10%, exchange transfusion should be considered. Shock may indicate coexistent bacterial septicaemia, as malaria rarely causes haemodynamic collapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of loose stools. She had recently returned from a trip to Thailand.
      Upon examination, her temperature was 37.1°C, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, and pulse rate 92 bpm. Her abdomen was soft with tenderness in the lower quadrants. No rashes were present.
      Based on the following lab results, what is the most probable cause of her diarrhoea?

      s
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 129 g/l 120 - 160 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 10.2 × 109/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135 - 145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.6 mmol/l 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 98 µmol/l 50 - 120 µmol/l
      Urea 7.8 mmol/l (2.5–7.0) 2.5 - 6.5 mmol/l
      Bilirubin 12.0 µmol/l 1 - 22 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 33 u/l 7 - 55 u/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 85 u/l 30 - 150 u/l
      Gamma glutamyl-transferase (GGT) 28 u/l < 50 u/l

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Travellers’ Diarrhoea

      Travellers’ diarrhoea is a common problem faced by people who travel to different countries. The most common cause of this condition is Escherichia coli, which typically causes a self-limiting watery diarrhoea with little systemic upset. Giardia, a parasite, is another common cause of diarrhoea in returning travellers, but it typically causes steatorrhoea and belching and flatulence, which are not reported in cases of E. coli. Amoebiasis, which typically causes dysentery, is very uncommon and can cause liver dysfunction and abscesses, but this patient has normal liver enzymes. Salmonella typhi causes bloody diarrhoea and is responsible for typhoid fever, which is characterized by high fever, headache, and constipation. Shigella spp. typically cause bloody diarrhoea, which is not seen in this case. Therefore, E. coli is the most likely cause of travellers’ diarrhoea in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 5 - A 29 year-old man comes to his physician complaining of bone pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year-old man comes to his physician complaining of bone pain and a rash. X-rays of his limbs show multiple osteolytic lesions. He was effectively treated for secondary syphilis.

      What test is expected to stay positive in this patient even after treatment?

      Your Answer: Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)

      Correct Answer: Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TPPA)

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is a disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum, which cannot be cultured. The disease has periods of latency and affects the entire body. Therefore, serologic techniques are crucial for diagnosis and monitoring treatment. The Treponema pallidum particle agglutination assay (TPPA test) is an indirect agglutination assay that detects and measures antibodies against Treponema pallidum. However, a positive result for IgG antibodies does not indicate whether the infection is recent or past, and these antibodies can remain elevated even after successful antimicrobial treatment.

      Syphilis Diagnosis: Serological Tests and Testing Algorithms

      Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum, a bacteria that cannot be grown on artificial media. Therefore, diagnosis is based on clinical features, serology, and microscopic examination of infected tissue. Serological tests for syphilis can be divided into non-treponemal tests and treponemal-specific tests. Non-treponemal tests are not specific for syphilis and may result in false positives. They assess the quantity of antibodies being produced and become negative after treatment. Examples of non-treponemal tests include rapid plasma reagin (RPR) and Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL). On the other hand, treponemal-specific tests are specific for syphilis but are generally more complex and expensive. Examples of treponemal-specific tests include TP-EIA and TPHA.

      Testing algorithms for syphilis typically involve a combination of a non-treponemal test with a treponemal-specific test. A positive non-treponemal test and positive treponemal test are consistent with an active syphilis infection. A positive non-treponemal test and negative treponemal test are consistent with a false-positive syphilis result, which may be due to pregnancy, SLE, tuberculosis, leprosy, malaria, or HIV. A negative non-treponemal test and positive treponemal test are consistent with successfully treated syphilis. It is important to note that the testing algorithms for syphilis are complicated and require careful interpretation by a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation. She has a history of unprotected sexual intercourse with multiple partners and has been advised to use protection, particularly during drug use. On physical examination, she has a painless ulcer with raised edges on the labia majora, and there is mild swelling of the nearby lymph nodes.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      When presented with a patient exhibiting painless ulcer formation, the diagnosis of primary syphilis should be considered. The usual investigation of choice for primary syphilis is EIA IgM, and treatment options include a single IM dose of Benzylpenicillin, a 2-week course of Doxycycline, or a single oral dose of Azithromycin. It is important to note that the course of the disease is similar in patients with early HIV compared to those who are HIV negative. Other potential diagnoses, such as lymphogranuloma venereum, chlamydia trachomatis, herpes simplex, and trichomoniasis, should also be considered and ruled out based on their associated symptoms and characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old man was referred by his doctor for investigation of his 6-month...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man was referred by his doctor for investigation of his 6-month history of lower limb peripheral neuropathy. Upon examination, he had a mixed sensory-motor peripheral neuropathy affecting his feet and a positive Romberg's test. He had scarring on his lower legs from childhood sores when he lived in Jamaica, but has been living in the UK for 40 years. His investigations revealed a positive Treponemal EIA and Treponema pallidum particle agglutination, but a negative Rapid plasma reagin (RPR). What is the most likely explanation for his syphilis serology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yaws

      Explanation:

      The patient’s positive results for EIA and TPPA tests, along with a history of leg sores during childhood and Jamaican background, suggest a possible diagnosis of yaws. This disease is caused by a bacterium related to the one causing syphilis and can lead to skin lesions and scarring. While the patient’s peripheral neuropathy is likely due to poorly controlled diabetes, a lumbar puncture should be performed to rule out neurosyphilis. The possibility of a false positive is less likely due to the presence of two positive results. The patient’s clinical history does not suggest prior syphilis infection or systemic lupus erythematosus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of intermittent fever and flu-like symptoms. She complains of general malaise and myalgia. There is no significant medical history and she has otherwise been healthy, having recently returned from a hiking vacation. She has no known allergies.

      Upon examination, she appears fatigued. She has a heart rate of 98 bpm and blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. The rest of her vital signs are normal. On her right arm, there is a circular lesion with a red center and a pale ring around it. There is no evidence of crusting or bleeding and the rest of her skin and mucosa are unaffected.

      She is prescribed an antimicrobial medication. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics and their Mechanisms of Action for Lyme Disease Treatment

      Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness that can be treated with antibiotics. The most effective treatment is doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S subunit of ribosomes. Aminoglycosides also have a similar mechanism of action. Metronidazole damages bacterial DNA, but it is not used in the treatment of Lyme disease. Penicillin antibiotics disrupt cell membrane function by binding to and inhibiting proteins in the bacterial cell wall, but they are not used as first-line treatment for Lyme disease. Macrolides, such as erythromycin, clindamycin, and linezolid, block the 50S subunit of ribosomes, while quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, inhibit DNA synthesis by binding to the enzyme DNA gyrase. Understanding the mechanisms of action of antibiotics can help in selecting the appropriate treatment for Lyme disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 9 - A 52-year-old businessman who frequently travels to the Gambia and is usually diligent...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old businessman who frequently travels to the Gambia and is usually diligent with his malaria prophylaxis presents with general malaise and relapsing/remitting fevers occurring every third day. He returned from the Gambia a week ago and did not take his malaria prophylaxis as he has never contracted the disease before. He has no significant medical history and takes no regular medication. The thick and thin films reveal malarial parasites, which are confirmed as Plasmodium vivax by the Malaria Reference Laboratory. What is the most appropriate management in accordance with current UK guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chloroquine and primaquine

      Explanation:

      Non-Falciparum Malaria: Causes, Features, and Treatment

      Non-falciparum malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi. Plasmodium vivax is commonly found in Central America and the Indian Subcontinent, while Plasmodium ovale is typically found in Africa. Plasmodium malariae is associated with nephrotic syndrome. Plasmodium knowlesi is found predominantly in South East Asia.

      The general features of non-falciparum malaria include fever, headache, and splenomegaly. Cyclical fever every 48 hours is associated with Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, while Plasmodium malariae is associated with cyclical fever every 72 hours. Ovale and vivax malaria have a hypnozoite stage and may relapse following treatment.

      In areas known to be chloroquine-sensitive, the World Health Organization recommends either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine for treatment. In areas known to be chloroquine-resistant, an ACT should be used. However, ACTs should be avoided in pregnant women. Patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old male was brought to the emergency department from a nursing home...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male was brought to the emergency department from a nursing home due to a gradual decrease in his level of consciousness over the past few days. According to his caregiver, he had been experiencing a burning sensation while urinating accompanied by a low-grade fever for the last week. The following were the results of his blood tests:

      Na+ 132 mmol/l
      K+ 3.8 mmol/l
      Urea 12 mmol/l
      Creatinine 135 µmol/l

      The urine dipstick revealed an increase in leukocytes and nitrites. The urine culture showed the presence of extended-spectrum B-lactamase (ESBL) - producing Escherichia coli.

      What is the recommended first-line treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meropenem

      Explanation:

      The emergence of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria, particularly ESBL, due to the frequent use of B-lactam antibiotics for urinary tract infections, has become a major challenge in treatment. Carbapenems such as imipenem, meropenem, ertapenem, and doripenem are still the first line of defense against these strains. However, the administration of these antibiotics may contribute to the development of further resistance. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid prescribing antibiotics unless there are clear clinical indications of a urinary tract infection.

      Escherichia coli: A Common Gut Commensal with Various Disease Manifestations

      Escherichia coli is a type of Gram-negative rod that is commonly found in the gut as a normal commensal. It is a facultative anaerobe and can ferment lactose. However, E. coli infections can lead to various diseases in humans, including diarrhoeal illnesses, urinary tract infections (UTIs), and neonatal meningitis. The classification of E. coli is based on the antigens that can trigger an immune response. These antigens include the lipopolysaccharide layer (O), capsule (K), and flagellin (H). For instance, neonatal meningitis caused by E. coli is usually due to a serotype that contains the capsular antigen K-1.

      One particular strain of E. coli, O157:H7, is associated with severe, haemorrhagic, watery diarrhoea. It has a high mortality rate and can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome. This strain is often transmitted through contaminated ground beef. Despite being a common gut commensal, E. coli can cause various diseases that can be life-threatening. Therefore, proper hygiene and food safety practices are essential in preventing E. coli infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (3/5) 60%
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