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  • Question 1 - A 49-year-old Asian man undergoes a Mantoux test during his immigration screening upon...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old Asian man undergoes a Mantoux test during his immigration screening upon arrival in the United Kingdom. The test comes back positive, but his chest X-ray appears normal, and he is prescribed isoniazid and pyridoxine (vitamin B6). However, he returns to the hospital four weeks later complaining of fever, abdominal pain, and jaundice. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid-induced hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Isoniazid Monotherapy for TB Prevention

      Isoniazid monotherapy is a treatment used to prevent active tuberculosis in individuals who have been exposed to M. tuberculosis. However, it is important to note that isoniazid-induced hepatitis can occur in approximately 1% of patients, with a higher risk in those over the age of 35. The risk of hepatitis is less than 0.3% in patients under 20 years old, but increases to 2-3% in individuals over 50 years old.

      Aside from hepatitis, other side effects of isoniazid therapy include peripheral neuritis, which can be prevented by taking pyridoxine prophylactically. Additionally, a systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)-like syndrome may also occur. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely for any adverse reactions while on isoniazid therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a headache and confusion....

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a headache and confusion. His partner reports that he has been experiencing these symptoms for the past few days, along with a fever and swollen glands in his neck. While waiting to be transferred to the medical ward, he had a seizure. The patient has a history of HIV and was previously hospitalized for severe pneumonia due to non-compliance with his anti-retroviral treatment.

      A CT scan of the head revealed multiple ring-enhancing lesions. The infectious diseases team ordered additional blood tests, which showed abnormal results. The patient's hemoglobin, platelet count, and white blood cell count were all low, while his urea and creatinine levels were high. His CRP level was also elevated, indicating inflammation. Toxoplasmosis serology was positive, but Cryptococcal serology and β-d-Glucan and Galactomannan levels were normal.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine

      Explanation:

      Pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine are the recommended treatment for toxoplasmosis in immunocompromised patients, such as this man with a history of HIV who is non-compliant with treatment. His positive toxoplasmosis serology and the presence of multiple ring-enhancing lesions on CT support this diagnosis. Co-trimoxazole and prednisolone are used for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia, but this is not suspected in this case as there are no chest symptoms. Fluconazole is effective against fungal infections like candidiasis, while amphotericin B is used for cryptococcal infection, which is not the likely diagnosis in this patient as his cryptococcus serology is negative and there are no signs of cerebral oedema or meningeal enhancement on CT.

      Toxoplasmosis: A Protozoan Infection

      Toxoplasmosis is caused by the protozoan Toxoplasma gondii, which enters the body through the gastrointestinal tract, lungs, or broken skin. The disease is commonly found in cats, but other animals like rats can also carry it. The infection is usually asymptomatic, but symptomatic patients may experience fever, malaise, and lymphadenopathy. In rare cases, toxoplasmosis can cause meningoencephalitis and myocarditis. Serology is the preferred diagnostic test, and treatment is only necessary for severe infections or immunosuppressed patients.

      In immunosuppressed patients, toxoplasmosis can cause cerebral toxoplasmosis, which accounts for half of cerebral lesions in HIV patients. Symptoms include headache, confusion, and drowsiness, and CT scans may show single or multiple ring-enhancing lesions with mass effect. Treatment involves pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine for at least six weeks. Immunocompromised patients may also develop chorioretinitis due to toxoplasmosis.

      Congenital toxoplasmosis occurs when the infection is transmitted from mother to fetus through the placenta. It can cause neurological damage, cerebral calcification, hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, ophthalmic damage, retinopathy, and cataracts in the unborn child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old backpacker presents to the Emergency Department with severe fever, left-sided lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old backpacker presents to the Emergency Department with severe fever, left-sided lower abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea over the past 48 hours. He has no significant medical history and does not take any regular medication. He has been staying in hostels over the past few days where cooking and bathroom facilities are shared.

      On examination, his blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, with a postural drop of 20 mmHg on standing, and his pulse is 90 bpm.

      Investigations:
      Haemoglobin (Hb) - 142 g/l (normal range: 135–175 g/l)
      White cell count (WCC) - 11.8 × 109/l (normal range: 4–11 × 109/l)
      Platelets (PLT) - 190 × 109/l (normal range: 150–400 × 109/l)
      Sodium (Na+) - 140 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+) - 3.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      Creatinine - 120 µmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l)
      Urea - 9.5 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5–7.8 mmol/l)
      C-reactive protein (CRP) - 180 mg/l (normal range: < 5 mg/l)
      Stool screen: Positive for Campylobacter.

      He is given oral rehydration sachets and expresses his desire to continue his trip. What is the most appropriate additional intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Shigella Infection

      Shigella infection is a common cause of diarrhoea, particularly in developing countries. The following treatment options are available for patients with symptomatic Shigella infection:

      Oral azithromycin is the preferred first-line option for the treatment of Shigella infection. Quinolones were previously used, but their use is now discouraged due to the risk of seizures and tendon rupture.

      Oral metronidazole is the intervention of choice for giardiasis, which presents with symptoms similar to irritable bowel syndrome. However, Shigella infection is not usually treated with metronidazole.

      Oral ciprofloxacin is now reserved for serious or life-threatening illness when other options for treatment are unavailable due to significant adverse effects associated with their use.

      Single-dose intravenous (IV) ceftriaxone is the preferred option for patients who are severely unwell because of Shigella infection. However, oral azithromycin is considered adequate for most cases.

      Given the severity of symptoms and the patient’s activity holiday, antibiotic intervention is warranted to relieve his symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old man has been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia and has undergone...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man has been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia and has undergone a matched sibling allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplant. After one month, he experiences persistent profuse hemoptysis despite platelet support and low-grade fever. What would be the next step in his treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Investigate with imaging of the chest

      Explanation:

      Antifungal Therapy in Haematology Patients

      In haematology patients who are at risk of invasive fungal infections, it is no longer recommended to start empirical therapy with systemic antifungals. The latest guidelines from the British Committee for Standards in Haematology suggest that before initiating antifungal therapy, serological and/or imaging/biopsy should be performed to confirm the presence of a fungal infection. Among these modalities, imaging is the preferred choice as it is less invasive and more readily available.

      In summary, haematology patients who are susceptible to fungal infections should not be given antifungal therapy without first confirming the presence of a fungal infection through serological and/or imaging/biopsy. Imaging is the preferred diagnostic tool due to its non-invasive nature and accessibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 5 - A 44-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-day history of a chesty cough, myalgia, fever, arthralgia, and rigors. He initially thought it was just a cold and did not seek medical attention. However, his symptoms have worsened, and he has become increasingly breathless, only able to walk to the toilet before becoming short of breath. His wife brought him to the hospital out of concern.

      The patient has no significant medical history, takes no regular medications, and has never smoked. On examination, his temperature is 39.2 °C, respiratory rate 32, heart rate 127, blood pressure 107/82, and oxygen saturations 92% on air. A chest X-ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltration. His blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 145g/l, WCC of 13.2 x 10^9/l, and platelets of 378 x 10^9/l. His electrolyte levels are within normal limits, with a sodium of 142 mmol/l, potassium of 4.8 mmol/l, urea of 6.9 mmol/l, and creatinine of 75 mol/l. An Influenza PCR test confirms Influenza B.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start oseltamivir 75 mg orally twice daily for 5 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Influenza B with Pneumonitis

      Influenza B with pneumonitis requires treatment with oseltamivir 75 mg twice daily for 5 days. However, if the patient had no complications, treatment may not be necessary unless the physician deems it necessary. Oseltamivir is the first line therapy for Influenza B, while zanimivir is a second line therapy for Influenza B and first line for Influenza A. These guidelines are based on the PHE guidance on the use of antiviral agents for the treatment and prophylaxis of seasonal influenza. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure proper treatment and management of influenza infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old female presented to the emergency department with a rash. She had...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female presented to the emergency department with a rash. She had a history of taking oral contraceptives but was otherwise healthy. The patient had been exposed to her niece with chickenpox and had developed a widespread, itchy, blistering rash over the past 8 days. She began to feel unwell with a high fever and a painful left calf. The next day, she noticed an area of redness on her lower leg that became increasingly painful and enlarged throughout the day.

      Upon examination, the patient appeared ill. She had healed chickenpox scars and scabs on her lower limbs and torso. There was a diffuse, tender, and swollen rash extending from her mid-calf to her ankle. Although she had normal joint mobility, her movements were limited by pain.

      The patient's vital signs were as follows:
      - Temperature: 39.7ºC
      - Respiratory rate: 24/min
      - Blood pressure: 91/55 mmHg
      - Heart rate: 112 bpm
      - Oxygen saturations: 98% on room air

      Her blood test results were:
      - Hemoglobin: 109 g/L (normal range: 115 - 160)
      - White blood cell count: 20 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
      - C-reactive protein: 208 mg/L (normal range: < 5)

      The patient was given intravenous fluids, analgesia, and broad-spectrum antibiotics. Her IV morphine was increased to control her pain. The next day, she remained tachycardic and tachypneic. The area of erythema had extended proximally to 2 cm below her knee, and a small area of dark purple-black discoloration was present at the distal aspect of the rash.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical debridement

      Explanation:

      Prompt and definitive action is crucial in the treatment of necrotising fasciitis, as any delay can heighten the risk of fatality. Although IV aciclovir is necessary in addressing acute varicella infection, the primary focus should be on eliminating the source of the bacterial infection. While chickenpox may have contributed to the patient’s condition, it is not the root cause of their deteriorating health or necrotic skin. While MRI can provide confirmation of the extent of necrotising fasciitis, it may impede surgical debridement. Given the patient’s critical condition, immediate and decisive management is imperative.

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox.

      One common complication of chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old man is in the process of being weaned off ventilatory support...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is in the process of being weaned off ventilatory support after spending two weeks in the intensive care unit with single organ failure. However, his blood pressure has suddenly dropped to 80/40 mmHg over the last four hours, and he is experiencing a sinus tachycardia of 120 beats per minute. Additionally, his oxygen saturation has decreased to 86% on FiO2 0.6, and he has become confused. His peripheries are cool, and air entry is reduced at the right base. To make matters worse, his temperature is only 34.6°C. What should be the first course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform blood cultures

      Explanation:

      Management of Septic Shock

      Septic shock is a medical emergency that requires early and aggressive therapy with broad-spectrum empirical antibiotics. While a pulmonary embolus may account for some of the symptoms, a gradual deterioration with a systemic inflammatory response (SIRS) response is more indicative of sepsis. The Sequential Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA) score in the ICU is a useful tool in screening for patients likely to have sepsis.

      Fluid resuscitation should be the first priority, although vasopressors may be necessary. If a pulmonary embolus is suspected, an x-ray should be done first, followed by an echocardiogram if necessary. Blood cultures, antibiotics, fluid, oxygen, lactate, and accurate urine output measurement are higher priorities. If the patient is still intubated or has a tracheostomy, a non-directed bronchial lavage may help diagnose the offending pathogen, but the patient may need to be stabilized first.

      Before initiating inotropes, fluid resuscitation should occur. Lung ultrasound and focused intensive care ultrasound are ideal in this scenario to determine the cause of shock. Lung ultrasound can demonstrate collapse and consolidation of the right base and guide fluid resuscitation before inotropes are initiated. A transthoracic echocardiogram may help exclude a massive pulmonary embolus, but this diagnosis is less likely.

      In summary, septic shock requires prompt and aggressive management with broad-spectrum antibiotics and fluid resuscitation. The SOFA score is a useful tool in screening for sepsis, and lung ultrasound can help guide fluid resuscitation before inotropes are initiated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 8 - A 65 year old male who is a malnourished alcoholic presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old male who is a malnourished alcoholic presents with a chronic cough for the past 6 weeks associated with a low grade fever. The cough is productive of purulent sputum.

      Six months previously he had been diagnosed with early stage non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, which had responded well to chemotherapy (doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, and prednisolone).

      On examination his temperature is 37.8ºC, blood pressure 140/80 mmHg, and his pulse is 96/minute and regular. Auscultation of the chest reveals absence of breath sounds over the left middle lung field. Chest x-ray confirms left upper lobar consolidation.

      The following investigations were ordered:

      Hb 12 g/dl
      Platelets 180 * 10^9/l
      WBC 7 * 10^9/l
      MCV 85 fl
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 µmol/l
      Urea 5 mmol/l
      CRP 50 mg/l

      Sputum stains partially acid fast bacilli with branching rods

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole + amikacin + ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Nocardia is a type of Gram-positive rod-shaped bacteria that can cause pneumonia and brain abscesses, particularly in individuals with weakened immune systems. This bacteria is similar to Actinomyces in that it forms fungus-like branched networks of hyphae-like filaments. However, Nocardia is not anaerobic like Actinomyces. The disease caused by Nocardia is often chronic and progressive, and can be difficult to treat. It is important for individuals with weakened immune systems to take precautions to avoid exposure to this bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman known to be HIV positive presents with a 4-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman known to be HIV positive presents with a 4-day history of worsening shortness of breath, high fevers and a cough producing green phlegm. Her last CD4 count 3 months ago was 200 × 106/l and she has not started any treatment, despite being advised to do so on multiple occasions.

      Upon examination, her O2 saturation is 92% on breathing room air, temperature 39.2°C, pulse 118 beats/min, and crackles are audible in both midzones. A chest X-ray reveals diffuse interstitial shadowing bilaterally. Arterial blood gas (on air) shows p(O2) 10.2 kPa, p(CO2) 3.8 kPa, bicarbonate 23 mmol/l, and O2 saturation 91%.

      What is the most appropriate initial course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin and clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a HIV-Positive Patient with Respiratory Infection

      When treating a HIV-positive patient with respiratory infection, it is important to consider the patient’s history and symptoms to determine the appropriate course of treatment. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest a community-acquired pneumonia, which can be treated with amoxicillin and clarithromycin according to NICE guidelines.

      If the patient is diagnosed with Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP), clindamycin and primaquine would be the second-line treatment if the patient cannot tolerate co-trimoxazole. IV co-trimoxazole would be the first-line treatment for PCP, but it is not the most likely diagnosis in this case.

      Liposomal amphotericin is used to treat severe fungal infections or leishmaniasis, which is not the most likely diagnosis for this patient. Metronidazole would be used to treat an intra-abdominal cause of infection rather than a respiratory infection.

      It is important to consider the patient’s CD4 count and susceptibility to opportunistic infections when determining the appropriate treatment for a HIV-positive patient with respiratory infection. Voriconazole can be used for invasive aspergillosis, which is a potential risk for patients with low CD4 counts. However, in this case, the clinical picture is more consistent with an atypical chest infection rather than PCP or invasive aspergillosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old male patient complains of jaundice. Upon liver screening, it is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male patient complains of jaundice. Upon liver screening, it is found that he does not have HBs antigen or anti-HBs antibody. What other test can be done to confirm that his hepatitis is caused by hepatitis B virus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-HBc antibody

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B Markers

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are several markers that can be used to diagnose and monitor the progression of the disease. One of these markers is the hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg), which is found inside infected cells. Another marker is the anti-HBc antibody, which is present throughout the infection. In acute infections, anti-HBc of the IgM class is present and persists between the disappearance of HBsAg and the appearance of anti-HBs. In patients recovering from acute infection, anti-HBc of the IgG class is present along with anti-HBs, while in those with chronic infection, it is present with HBsAg.

      Isolated anti-HBc can signify three possibilities: the patient is in the period of acute hepatitis B, anti-HBs has fallen to undetectable levels following recovery from acute hepatitis B, or chronic HBV infection where the HBsAg titre has fallen to undetectable levels. Another marker is the HBe antigen, which indicates replication and infectivity. HBe Ag to anti-HBe antibody seroconversion usually occurs early in acute infection, but it can be delayed for many years in patients with chronic hepatitis B infection. Finally, the ALT may be normal in an inactive carrier state. these markers is crucial for the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
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