00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - You are seeing a patient in the HIV Outpatients Clinic who was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a patient in the HIV Outpatients Clinic who was diagnosed HIV-positive 6 weeks ago at the age of 60 and has a CD4 count of 12 × 106/l. He is planning to go mountain trekking in the Himalayas for the next three weeks and wants to reduce his risk of catching a range of infections. However, he developed a rash and derangement of his liver function tests when he was previously given prophylactic co-trimoxazole. Despite your advice that he needs to be more immunocompetent before he goes, he is determined to go on the trip as it was organised months ago and is for charity. He would like some information about vaccinations and wants to know which ones are safe for HIV-positive patients. What group of vaccines would you recommend for him, both routine and for travelling purposes?

      Your Answer: Flu vaccine

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Recommendations for HIV-Positive Individuals

      Individuals with HIV can safely receive non-replicating vaccines, such as whole inactivated, polysaccharide, conjugated, and subunit vaccines. Live replicating vaccines were previously contraindicated, but some are now recommended after immune restoration with antiretroviral therapy, including MMR, varicella-zoster virus, and yellow fever, with a CD4 count >200 advised. Hepatitis A and B vaccines are routinely recommended for all HIV-positive patients, especially for travelers. Pneumovax and flu vaccines are also recommended. However, live vaccines such as BCG and Ty21a typhoid are contraindicated for HIV-positive individuals. Mumps, which is part of the MMR vaccine, is also not recommended for those with low CD4 counts. It is important to check vaccination requirements for entry into different countries and ensure that inactivated polio vaccine is used if required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      76
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old male with a long history of intravenous drug use presents with...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male with a long history of intravenous drug use presents with fevers, rigors, and back pain. Upon admission, three sets of blood cultures are taken and grow positive for gram-positive cocci in clusters, indicating a possible Staphylococcus aureus bacteraemia. The patient is started on intravenous vancomycin, but half an hour into the infusion, he develops flushing and erythema over his neck, face, and trunk. Despite denying significant distress or discomfort, his vital signs are monitored and recorded as blood pressure 125/70 mmHg, heart rate 85/min, temperature of 36.8ºC, respiratory rate of 18/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stopping the vancomycin infusion until symptoms resolve and then re-starting a slower rate

      Explanation:

      Red man syndrome is a well-known side effect of rapid intravenous infusion of vancomycin. It is a separate condition from anaphylaxis caused by vancomycin use and is characterized by symptoms such as redness, itching, and a burning sensation, primarily in the upper body (including the face, neck, and upper chest). In severe cases, chest pain and low blood pressure may also occur.

      The underlying cause of red man syndrome is believed to be the activation of mast cells by vancomycin, which leads to the release of histamine.

      To manage red man syndrome, the infusion of vancomycin should be stopped immediately, and then restarted at a slower rate once symptoms have subsided. In more severe cases, antihistamines may be given, and intravenous fluids may be necessary if low blood pressure is present.

      Vancomycin is an antibiotic that is effective in treating infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, especially those that are resistant to methicillin, such as Staphylococcus aureus. Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting the formation of the bacterial cell wall by binding to D-Ala-D-Ala moieties, which prevents the polymerization of peptidoglycans. However, bacteria can develop resistance to vancomycin by altering the terminal amino acid residues of the NAM/NAG-peptide subunits, which are the sites where the antibiotic binds.

      Despite its effectiveness, vancomycin can cause adverse effects such as nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and thrombophlebitis. Rapid infusion of vancomycin can also lead to a condition called red man syndrome, which is characterized by flushing and itching of the skin. Therefore, it is important to use vancomycin only when necessary and under the guidance of a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      104.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 34-year-old gay man presented to the hospital complaining of dyspnoea, dry cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old gay man presented to the hospital complaining of dyspnoea, dry cough and fever that had been progressively worsening over the past four weeks. Upon examination, his chest x-ray revealed bilateral diffuse airspace shadowing and bronchial washings showed the presence of Pneumocystis jirovecii. His CD4 T-lymphocyte count was found to be 88 cells/mm3 and he had a history of rash with co-trimoxazole. Treatment for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia was initiated with trimethoprim and dapsone, which resulted in improvement within 24 hours. However, five days later, he became increasingly breathless and cyanosed, with oxygen saturations measured at 85% by pulse oxymetry and a PaO2 of 12.1 kPa (11.3-12.6). What is the most appropriate immediate course of action?

      Your Answer: Start prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Stop dapsone

      Explanation:

      Methaemoglobinaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition where an abnormally large proportion of iron in haem is oxidised to the ferric state, leading to impaired oxygen transport and anaemic hypoxia. This condition can be caused by certain drugs, including phenacetin, sulphonamides, dapsone, primaquine, lidocaine, procaine, and benzocaine. Patients with methaemoglobinaemia appear cyanosed, but the cyanosis does not clear when oxygen is administered.

      The clinical features of methaemoglobinaemia depend on the levels of MetHb in the blood. Discolouration of blood and appearance of cyanosis manifest when MetHb levels reach 15-20%. Dyspnoea, lethargy, dizziness, and headaches are associated with levels between 20-45%. MetHb levels above 45% are usually associated with impaired consciousness, while levels above 55% can cause seizures, coma, and cardiac arrhythmias. The lethal concentration for adults is considered to be more than 70%.

      Assessments of oxygenation give conflicting results in patients with methaemoglobinaemia. Standard pulse oximeters give spuriously low readings in the presence of excess methaemoglobin, and oxygen saturations measured by blood gas analysers will also be low and are accompanied by a high PaO. Therefore, the patient’s cyanosis is attributed to hypoxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      73.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are requested to assess a 75-year-old woman who is currently admitted to...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a 75-year-old woman who is currently admitted to an orthopaedic ward. The patient was admitted three weeks ago with a transtrochanteric fracture of her left hip and was readmitted two days ago due to increased pain in the hip and a fever. A joint aspiration confirmed an infection in the hip prosthesis, which was surgically excised, and the patient was started on intravenous clindamycin. This morning, the orthopaedic team noticed that the patient's level of consciousness has decreased, and she has been experiencing profuse diarrhea since yesterday. The patient has no significant medical history except for osteoporosis, and she was fully conscious until yesterday. On examination, the patient appears frail, drowsy, and apathetic with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12/15. She is clinically dehydrated, and her heart sounds are normal, with a weak, thready pulse of over 100 beats per minute. The ward's blood pressure monitor records her blood pressure as 75/50, and her temperature is 35.7°C. What is the likely cause of the patient's decreased level of consciousness?

      Your Answer: Septic shock

      Explanation:

      Features of Septic Shock in a Patient

      The patient exhibits several signs of septic shock, including a focus of infection, diarrhea, decreased level of consciousness, tachycardia, and hypothermia. It is unlikely that the patient has pseudomembranous colitis after only two days of taking clindamycin. Additionally, a sudden event such as a stroke is less likely given the overnight deterioration without focal symptoms. Depressive stupor is a diagnosis of exclusion once other causes have been ruled out. It is important to note that dehydration is not expected to be the cause of the patient’s tachycardia and hypotension, especially with adequate nursing care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      160.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old previously healthy man is involved in a motor vehicle accident and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old previously healthy man is involved in a motor vehicle accident and thrown off his motorcycle, resulting in multiple profusely bleeding lacerations on his extremities. He is rushed to the emergency department with the help of blue lights. Upon arrival, he receives 2 units of cross-matched blood, which causes no reaction in the blood bank. However, ten minutes after the transfusion, the patient experiences severe urticaria. What syndrome could be contributing to the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Selective IgA deficiency

      Explanation:

      Overview of Primary Immunodeficiency Disorders

      Primary immunodeficiency disorders are conditions that affect the immune system’s ability to fight off infections and diseases. These disorders can be classified based on which component of the immune system is affected. Neutrophil disorders, for example, are caused by a lack of NADPH oxidase, which reduces the ability of phagocytes to produce reactive oxygen species. This leads to recurrent pneumonias and abscesses, particularly due to catalase-positive bacteria and fungi. B-cell disorders, on the other hand, are caused by defects in B cell development, resulting in low antibody levels and recurrent infections. T-cell disorders are caused by defects in T cell development, leading to recurrent viral and fungal diseases. Finally, combined B- and T-cell disorders are caused by defects in both B and T cell development, resulting in recurrent infections and an increased risk of malignancy. Understanding the underlying defects and symptoms of these disorders is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 49-year-old male with hepatitis C presents to the acute medical assessment unit...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male with hepatitis C presents to the acute medical assessment unit with a recent decrease in urine output. Upon urinalysis, haematoproteinuria is detected, and the following blood results are obtained:

      - Hb: 9.8 g/dl
      - Platelets: 75 * 109/l
      - WBC: 12.1 * 109/l
      - Na+: 143 mmol/l
      - K+: 5.4 mmol/l
      - Urea: 18.9 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 205 µmol/l

      After a renal biopsy, the sample is examined under a microscope and reveals enlarged and hypercellular glomeruli with an increase in mesangial cellularity and matrix. The histological diagnosis is membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely underlying pathology for this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryoglobulinaemia

      Explanation:

      Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, which has led to acute kidney injury in this patient, can be caused by various factors. However, the significant factor in this case is the patient’s medical history of hepatitis C, which is strongly linked to mixed (type II) cryoglobulinaemia.

      Cryoglobulinemia: Types, Features, Investigations, and Management

      Cryoglobulinemia is a condition where immunoglobulins precipitate at 4 degrees Celsius and dissolve when warmed to 37 degrees Celsius. One-third of cases are idiopathic, and there are three types of cryoglobulinemia. Type I is monoclonal and is associated with multiple myeloma and Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia. Type II is mixed monoclonal and polyclonal and is usually associated with hepatitis C, rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s, and lymphoma. Type III is polyclonal and is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and Sjogren’s.

      Possible features of cryoglobulinemia include Raynaud’s, cutaneous vascular purpura, distal ulceration, ulceration, arthralgia, renal involvement, and diffuse glomerulonephritis. Investigations may reveal low complement, especially C4, and high ESR.

      The management of cryoglobulinemia involves treating the underlying condition, such as hepatitis C, and immunosuppression. Plasmapheresis may also be used. Cryoglobulinemia can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, patients can experience relief from their symptoms.

      Overall, cryoglobulinemia is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring. By understanding the different types, features, investigations, and management options, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman who has received a liver transplant from an unrelated donor...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who has received a liver transplant from an unrelated donor some 4 weeks earlier, presents to the clinic with complaints of fevers, arthralgia, abdominal pain and diarrhea. She had initially made a good recovery after her transplant. Upon testing, human herpes virus 5 is positive and there has been a rise in CRP and serum creatinine levels. The patient's laboratory values are as follows:

      Hb 10.2 g/l Na+ 138 mmol/l
      Platelets 203 * 109/l K+ 5.2 mmol/l
      WBC 10.9 * 109/l Urea 9.2 mmol/l
      Neuts 8.7 * 109/l Creatinine 211 µmol/l
      Lymphs 2.0 * 109/l CRP 88 mg/l
      Eosin 0.1 * 109/l

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV ganciclovir

      Explanation:

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV), also known as human herpes virus 5 (HHV 5), can cause infections in patients who have undergone a transplant. These infections can occur due to reactivation of a latent infection, infection through the transplanted organ, or a new primary infection. The recommended treatment is intravenous ganciclovir. If ganciclovir resistance is present, alternative options such as foscarnet or cidofovir may be used. Failure to treat CMV infections can lead to further deterioration in renal function.

      For herpes simplex or herpes zoster infections, intravenous acyclovir is the standard treatment option, while oral valaciclovir is an alternative for long-term treatment of herpes simplex. Lamivudine is used to treat HIV/AIDS and hepatitis B infections. Valganciclovir is an oral alternative to intravenous ganciclovir and may be used for CMV prophylaxis.

      Understanding Cytomegalovirus

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a type of herpes virus that is believed to have infected around 50% of the population. However, it usually only causes disease in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV or those who have undergone organ transplantation and are taking immunosuppressants.

      When cells are infected with CMV, they develop an Owl’s eye appearance due to the presence of intranuclear inclusion bodies. The virus can cause a range of diseases, including congenital CMV infection, CMV mononucleosis, CMV retinitis, CMV encephalopathy, CMV pneumonitis, and CMV colitis.

      Congenital CMV infection can lead to growth retardation, microcephaly, sensorineural deafness, encephalitis, and hepatosplenomegaly. CMV mononucleosis can cause an illness similar to infectious mononucleosis in individuals with healthy immune systems. CMV retinitis is common in HIV patients with a low CD4 count and can cause visual impairment, retinal hemorrhages, and necrosis. CMV encephalopathy and CMV pneumonitis can also occur in individuals with HIV who have low CD4 counts.

      Overall, understanding CMV and its potential effects is important for individuals with weakened immune systems and healthcare professionals who treat them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 29-year-old man with a medical history of HIV and poor medication compliance...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man with a medical history of HIV and poor medication compliance presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of fever, shortness of breath, weight loss, and diarrhea. On examination, he has general lymphadenopathy, tender hepatosplenomegaly, and bilateral basal crackles on chest auscultation. His laboratory results show low hemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets, as well as a severely decreased CD4 count. His liver function tests are also abnormal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycobacterium avium infection

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Mycobacterium Avium Infection in HIV Patients

      The presented symptoms of respiratory distress, weight loss, diarrhoea, lymphadenopathy, and abnormal liver function tests suggest a diagnosis of Mycobacterium avium infection (MAI) in an HIV patient. Confirmation of the diagnosis can be done through quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) should be resumed if the patient has not been compliant with medication. The optimal management for MAI is triple therapy with a macrolide, ethambutol, and rifabutin.

      Other differentials such as cryptococcosis, cryptosporidium infection, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and Pneumocystis jirovecii infection should also be considered. Cryptococcosis is usually associated with CNS infection, while cryptosporidium infection presents with more profuse watery diarrhoea. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma should be excluded through computed tomography (CT) of the thorax, abdomen, and pelvis. Pneumocystis jirovecii infection is not typically associated with diarrhoea but presents with breathlessness, weight loss, and night sweats.

      In conclusion, prompt diagnosis and management of MAI in HIV patients are crucial to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old man who recently moved to the UK from Ethiopia presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who recently moved to the UK from Ethiopia presents with a chronic cough and night sweats that have persisted for five weeks. He also reports coughing up small amounts of bright red blood on a few occasions, which is particularly concerning to him as his father died from lung-related issues following chronic coughing.

      After undergoing a chest X-ray and blood tests, he is diagnosed with TB and contact tracing is initiated. His 26-year-old male partner lives with him and is identified as being at high risk of contracting TB. The partner undergoes Mantoux testing and has a 2mm area of induration. He has never received BCG vaccination to his knowledge and has no vaccination scar. What is the most appropriate management that should be offered to the partner?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV testing and if negative then BCG vaccination

      Explanation:

      The recommended course of action is to conduct an HIV test first, and if the result is negative, administer BCG vaccination. The patient’s low response to the Mantoux test suggests that they are unlikely to have TB and have not been vaccinated. However, it is important to note that the test may yield a false negative result in an immunocompromised patient. Given the partner’s increased risk of HIV, NICE recommends conducting an HIV test before administering the vaccination. BCG vaccination is a live vaccine and is therefore not recommended for immunocompromised patients. It is also worth noting that prior vaccination may lead to a false positive result.

      If a diagnosis of pulmonary TB is confirmed, NICE recommends the following management for close contacts: test for latent TB if asymptomatic and under 65 years of age. If the Mantoux test is negative and the individual has not been vaccinated, offer vaccination. If the individual is at risk of HIV, conduct an HIV test before proceeding. If asymptomatic and over 65 years of age, assess with a chest X-ray.

      It is important to note that TB treatment should only be considered if TB is confirmed and not used prophylactically. Repeat screening is generally not recommended.

      Tuberculosis can be screened for using the Mantoux test, which involves injecting a small amount of purified protein derivative (PPD) into the skin and reading the results a few days later. A positive result indicates hypersensitivity to the tuberculin protein, which may be due to previous TB infection or BCG vaccination. False negative results can occur in certain situations, such as in very young children or individuals with certain medical conditions. The Heaf test, which was previously used in the UK, has since been discontinued.

      To diagnose active tuberculosis, a chest x-ray may reveal upper lobe cavitation or bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Sputum smear tests involve examining three specimens for the presence of acid-fast bacilli using the Ziehl-Neelsen stain. While this test is rapid and inexpensive, its sensitivity is between 50-80% and is decreased in individuals with HIV. Sputum culture is considered the gold standard investigation, as it is more sensitive than a smear and can assess drug sensitivities. However, it can take 1-3 weeks to obtain results. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) allow for rapid diagnosis within 24-48 hours, but are less sensitive than culture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) presents to the Hematology Clinic complaining of increasing fatigue over the past 6 months. He is normally active, playing golf three times a week, but has not been able to play recently and has started napping in the afternoons. On examination, he has marked lymphadenopathy, mild upper abdominal tenderness, and a palpable spleen and liver. His recent blood work shows a WBC count of 30.4 * 109/l with a lymphocyte count of 23.1 * 109/l, up from 15.3 * 109/l two months ago. The decision is made to start the patient on FCR chemotherapy. What prophylactic medication is most important to start?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-trimoxazole

      Explanation:

      Fludarabine is a medication that inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and DNA polymerase, preventing DNA synthesis. However, it can cause severe lymphopenia and increase the risk of opportunistic infections, particularly pneumocystis pneumonia. Therefore, patients taking fludarabine must receive regular prophylactic co-trimoxazole to prevent morbidity and mortality. Purine analogues can also reactivate herpes simplex, herpes zoster, and cytomegalovirus, so aciclovir is often given as prophylaxis. Fluconazole is commonly used as fungal prophylaxis. Entecavir is prescribed to patients who are HBsAg positive to treat hepatitis B.

      Managing Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. Treatment is only necessary when certain indications are present. These include progressive marrow failure, massive or progressive lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly, progressive lymphocytosis, systemic symptoms, and autoimmune cytopaenias. Patients who do not have any of these indications are monitored with regular blood counts.

      The initial treatment of choice for the majority of CLL patients is fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, and rituximab (FCR). This combination therapy has shown promising results in managing the disease. However, in cases where previous therapies have failed, ibrutinib may be used as an alternative treatment option.

      It is important to note that CLL management should be tailored to each patient’s individual needs and circumstances. Regular monitoring and communication with healthcare professionals are crucial in ensuring the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (2/4) 50%
Passmed