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Question 1
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A 42-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes and chronic renal failure received a renal transplant eight weeks ago. She presents to the Emergency Department with a dry cough and increasing shortness of breath, limiting her exercise tolerance to 50 m. She is taking multiple immunosuppressive agents. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.2 °C, blood pressure of 145/82 mmHg, and pulse of 82 bpm. Crackles and wheezes are heard across both lung fields, and her oxygen saturation drops to 91% with exertion. Investigations reveal a low haemoglobin level, elevated white cell count, and C-reactive protein. Chest X-ray shows perihilar fluffy opacities. What is the most appropriate intervention?
Your Answer: IV Co-trimoxazole
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia in Immunocompromised Patients
Pneumocystis jirovecii (PCJ) pneumonia is a serious infection that can affect immunocompromised patients. When treating this condition, co-trimoxazole is the preferred option due to its effectiveness, although it may not always be well-tolerated. IV ceftriaxone and IV co-amoxiclav are appropriate interventions for bacterial community-acquired pneumonia, but they are not effective against PCJ pneumonia. IV pentamidine is used for prophylaxis, but it is not commonly used for treatment due to the risk of toxicity. Nebulised pentamidine can be considered if IV co-trimoxazole is not tolerated, but it should be administered with caution due to its teratogenic effects. Overall, PCJ pneumonia has a poor prognosis, and mortality rates can be high in patients without an underlying HIV infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents to the medical assessment unit after being referred by his general practitioner. He complains of experiencing episodic swellings of the soft tissue near various joints for the past two months. The swellings are occasionally pruritic and hot. He has no medical history and is not taking any regular medications. He recently returned from spending six months in Equatorial Guinea.
During the examination, a non-pitting swelling of 2 x 3 cm is observed on his dorsal forearm. The swelling is hot but not erythematous.
Based on the blood test results below, what is the likely diagnosis?
Hb 136 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 189 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 14.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Neuts 6.5 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Lymphs 2.2 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)
Mono 0.3 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)
Eosin 5.2 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)Your Answer: Cutaneous larva migrans
Correct Answer: Loiasis
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms of transient, non-erythematous, hot swelling of soft-tissue around joints is loiasis. This condition is caused by a filarial infection from the nematode Loa Loa and is characterized by Calabar swellings, which are an immune reaction to the worms. Eosinophilia is common and it is endemic to Equatorial Guinea.
Cutaneous larva migrans, cutaneous leishmaniasis, and schistosomiasis are incorrect diagnoses. Cutaneous larva migrans causes serpiginous skin lesions, cutaneous leishmaniasis causes ulcerative lesions, and schistosomiasis presents with fever, rash, myalgia, arthralgia, and diarrhea. None of these conditions match the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Loiasis: A Filariasis Infection Caused by Loa Loa
Loiasis is a type of filarial infection that is caused by the Loa Loa parasite. This infection is transmitted by the Chrysops deerfly and is commonly found in the rainforest regions of Western and Central Africa. The clinical features of loiasis include pruritus, urticaria, and Calabar swellings, which are hot and non-erythematous swellings of soft tissue around joints. Another dramatic presentation of this infection is the subconjunctival migration of the adult worm, also known as the eye worm.
Compared to other microfilarial infections like Onchocerciasis and Lymphatic Filariasis, loiasis has fewer pathological features. However, high loa loa microfilaraemia can lead to encephalopathy following treatment with Ivermectin or DEC. This is due to the death of a large number of blood microfilaria. It is important to note that both of these drugs are contraindicated if loa loa microfilaraemia exceeds 2500 mf/ml. This has significant public health implications as Ivermectin is currently the drug of choice for controlling Onchocerciasis and Lymphatic Filariasis in Africa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Correct
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A 36-year-old man presents to respiratory clinic with a chronic cough, occasional haemoptysis, night sweats, and significant unintentional weight loss. He discloses that he spent five years in a Moscow prison for drugs offences and currently lives in shared accommodation while working on a building site. On examination, he appears cachexic with tobacco stained fingernails, reduced air entry in the upper zones bilaterally, and palpable lymphadenopathy in the anterior cervical chain. Investigations reveal patchy shadowing in both upper lobes with evidence of cavity formation on the right side, acid-fast bacilli in sputum microscopy, and resistance to rifampicin and isoniazid. What is the most appropriate treatment regimen for this patient?
Your Answer: Combination therapy with 5 drugs for 18-24 months
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and history suggest that he has active pulmonary tuberculosis, which is a common occurrence in individuals who have been incarcerated in prisons in the Russian Federation. Given his high-risk status, it is possible that he has contracted a multi-drug resistant strain of TB. Microbiology results have confirmed this suspicion, showing resistance to rifampicin and isoniazid, which are two commonly used drugs for TB treatment. However, there is no evidence of resistance to fluoroquinolone or second-line injectable agents, which would indicate extensively drug-resistant TB.
The recommended treatment for multi-drug resistant TB typically involves a combination of at least five drugs for a period of 18-24 months. Depending on the availability of microbiological testing services, the treatment regimen may be tailored to the patient’s specific infection or based on a standardized protocol that takes into account local resistance patterns.
Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications
Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months with a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves rifampicin and isoniazid. For latent tuberculosis, treatment involves three months of isoniazid and rifampicin or six months of isoniazid with pyridoxine. Patients with meningeal tuberculosis require prolonged treatment of at least 12 months with the addition of steroids.
Directly observed therapy may be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients with poor concordance. However, treatment can also lead to complications. Immune reconstitution disease can occur 3-6 weeks after starting treatment and often presents with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects can also occur, such as hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like symptoms, peripheral neuropathy, agranulocytosis, hyperuricaemia causing gout, arthralgia, myalgia, and optic neuritis. It is important to monitor patients for these complications and adjust treatment as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Correct
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As the medical registrar on-call you are called to see a 24-year-old female in the Emergency Department (ED). The young female presented to the ED with a fever and productive cough of green sputum. When you arrive she looks unwell and although alert is a difficult historian.
Concerned, you immediately assess her from head to toe:
Airway patient, able to speak in sentences
Breathing Sats 91% on room air, Resp Rate 24 / min, coarse creps bilaterally on auscultation
Circulation Heart rate 105 beats per minute, blood pressure 95/60 mmHg
Disability Glasgow coma scale 15/15, capillary blood glucose 5.8
Exposure Multiple boils noted distributed widely across the patient's body
You inquire about the history of the boils identified on examination. The patient is unsure how long she has had them for, however, mentions that her sister recently was prescribed antibiotics by their family GP for similar lesions.
You start the patient on high flow oxygen, gain IV access taking blood cultures and give a fluid bolus. An urgent portable chest X-ray is requested which appears to show bilateral consolidation with multiple cavitating lesions.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Streptococcal infection
7%
PVL-producing staphylococcal infection
75%
Tuberculosis
3%
Fungal chest infection
3%
Klebsiella infection
11%
Panton-Valentine Leukocidin is a pore-forming toxin which is produced by staphylococcus aureus. It has an affinity for white blood cells and the endothelium. Clinically PVL will often present with a necrotising pneumonia, characterised by severe bilateral pneumonia with cavitations on X-ray. Often patients presenting will have a history of boils or necrotic skin lesions. As the staphylococcus is easily transmitted there may be a recent family history of similar infections / boils.
Although all of the answers in this stem could be associated with cavitating pneumonia, the severity of the clinical presentation and history of boils in the family points towards a PVL-pneumonia.Your Answer: PVL-producing staphylococcus infection
Explanation:Panton-Valentine Leukocidin is a toxin produced by staphylococcus aureus that forms pores and targets white blood cells and the endothelium. Its clinical manifestation is often seen as necrotizing pneumonia, which is characterized by severe bilateral pneumonia with cavitations visible on X-ray. Patients with PVL-pneumonia may have a history of necrotic skin lesions or boils, and the infection can easily spread within families. While cavitating pneumonia can have various causes, the severity of symptoms and family history of boils suggest a PVL-pneumonia.
Understanding Staphylococci: Common Bacteria with Different Types
Staphylococci are a type of bacteria that are commonly found in the human body. They are gram-positive cocci and are facultative anaerobes that produce catalase. While they are usually harmless, they can also cause invasive diseases. There are two main types of Staphylococci that are important to know: Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis.
Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase-positive and is known to cause skin infections such as cellulitis, abscesses, osteomyelitis, and toxic shock syndrome. On the other hand, Staphylococcus epidermidis is coagulase-negative and is often the cause of central line infections and infective endocarditis.
It is important to understand the different types of Staphylococci and their potential to cause disease in order to properly diagnose and treat infections. By identifying the type of Staphylococci present, healthcare professionals can determine the appropriate course of treatment and prevent the spread of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female patient presents with a recent onset of skin lesions and joint pain. She had previously treated herself for vaginal thrush with a clotrimazole pessary, which has now resolved. The patient has a medical history of SLE and takes hydroxychloroquine. On examination, the patient has vesicles on her arms and legs, with some scabbing and necrosis. She also has tenderness, erythema, and reduced range of motion in her left elbow and right wrist, as well as a swollen, hot, and tender right knee joint with reduced range of motion. Blood tests reveal elevated white cell count, CRP, and ESR, as well as low C4 levels. X-ray of the right knee confirms effusion, and synovial tap shows high levels of leucocytes and polymorphs. What would be the most appropriate treatment plan for this patient?
Your Answer: IV flucloxacillin 1g qds
Correct Answer: IV ceftriaxone 1 g od
Explanation:The correct management for disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) is IV ceftriaxone for seven days. DGI is not common and can present with migratory polyarthralgia and dermatitis. Diagnosis can be made through joint aspiration, blood cultures, or NAAT tests. Raised CRP, clinical sepsis, and normal C4 suggest an infectious cause. S. aureus and methotrexate are unlikely causative factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old female presents to the Emergency department with a complaint of fevers lasting for two days. She has been experiencing vague flu-like symptoms for the past week. Her partner reports that she has been drowsy and has had a reduced level of consciousness for the past 12 hours. The patient and her partner had recently returned from a four-week tour of the southern states of the USA in a camper van.
On examination, her heart rate is 70 and regular, and her blood pressure is 145/75 mmHg. Cardiovascular and respiratory examination is normal. The patient has a GCS of 13, and power, tone sensation, and reflexes are normal in the upper and lower limbs. The only neurological abnormality is a bizarre twitching of the eyebrows, mouth, and digits. There are no skin rashes.
Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 143 g/L (115-165), a white cell count of 7.3 ×109/L (4-11), and platelets of 249 ×109/L (150-400). Her serum sodium is 139 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium is 3.9 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea is 2.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), serum creatinine is 89 µmol/L (60-110), serum glucose is 6.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and serum calcium is 2.5 mmol/L (2.2-2.6). Liver function tests are normal.
A CSF examination reveals a glucose level of 4.0 mmol/L (3.3-4.4), 10 red cells, 1 white cell, and a CSF protein level of 0.4 g/L (0.15-0.45). Oligoclonal bands are absent. A T2-weighted MRI of the brain shows high signal intensity and swelling in the thalamus bilaterally. Upon returning to the ward from the MRI scanner, the patient experiences a generalised tonic-clonic seizure.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: West Nile virus infection
Explanation:West Nile Encephalitis and its Manifestations
West Nile encephalitis can present with various symptoms such as seizures, reduced consciousness, flaccid paralysis resembling poliomyelitis, and parkinsonian movement disorders. In some cases, convulsive status may be the only manifestation, which can be identified by the twitching of a digit or muscle group. This symptom can be associated with a poor prognosis in Flavivirus encephalitis or meningitis. The diagnosis of West Nile encephalitis can be supported by typical MRI features and a travel history. Real-time PCR of cerebrospinal fluid can also identify viral RNA. Interferon-alpha is the only treatment that may affect the outcome of West Nile encephalitis.
Cysticercosis may increase the risk of West Nile virus infection due to the disruption of the blood-brain barrier. However, the absence of skin rash and normal biochemistry make the diagnosis of Lyme disease unlikely. Additionally, the presence of reflexes and the absence of typical changes in the cerebrospinal fluid make Guillain-Barré syndrome less likely. Overall, West Nile encephalitis can present with a range of symptoms and can be diagnosed through various methods, including MRI and PCR testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Correct
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A 26-year-old man presents to the outpatient infectious diseases clinic after being referred by his GP. He recently immigrated from Pakistan with his extended family and was advised to get checked up after his mother, who lives in the same house, was diagnosed with respiratory tuberculosis. The patient reports feeling well, having recovered from a cold a few weeks ago with symptoms of nasal congestion, sore throat, and a cough lasting a few days. He denies any further symptoms, weight loss, fever, cough, or night sweats. He is unsure of his immunization history. On examination, he appears well with unremarkable cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems. His initial investigations reveal a negative blood film and culture, a positive Quantaferon blood test, and a positive Mantoux test. His chest x-ray appears normal. What is the next best management step?
Your Answer: Commence isoniazid and pyridoxine for 6 months
Explanation:The individual in question has latent tuberculosis, which is likely due to close and prolonged contact with an active TB carrier. Although he experienced temporary upper respiratory tract infection symptoms, he has otherwise been asymptomatic. While his Mantoux test was positive, it is important to note that this can also be a result of a previous BCG vaccination. Quantiferon testing, which is not influenced by BCG vaccination status, cannot differentiate between active and latent TB. However, given the lack of significant symptoms and normal test results, including a normal chest X-ray, it is probable that he has latent TB. Therefore, the recommended treatment is monotherapy with isoniazid (and pyridoxine) for a duration of 6 months.
Treatment Options for Latent Tuberculosis
Latent tuberculosis is a disease that can remain dormant in the body for years without causing any symptoms. However, if left untreated, it can develop into active tuberculosis, which can be life-threatening. To prevent this from happening, NICE now offers two choices for treating latent tuberculosis: 3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin, or 6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine).
The choice of regimen depends on the person’s clinical circumstances. For individuals younger than 35 years, 3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin is recommended if hepatotoxicity is a concern after an assessment of both liver function (including transaminase levels) and risk factors. On the other hand, 6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) is recommended if interactions with rifamycins are a concern, such as in people with HIV or who have had a transplant.
Risk factors for developing active tuberculosis include silicosis, chronic renal failure, HIV positive, solid organ transplantation with immunosuppression, intravenous drug use, haematological malignancy, anti-TNF treatment, and previous gastrectomy. It is important to identify these risk factors and choose the appropriate treatment option to prevent the development of active tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents to hospital with progressive shortness of breath over the last four days and a low-grade fever. He has a past medical history of mild asthma for which he occasionally needs to use his salbutamol inhaler and has previously had bilateral knee replacements for osteoarthritis. He has smoked on average 5 cigarettes per day for the past 40 years and drinks a couple of glasses of wine per week. His travel history includes a holiday to Cyprus, from which he arrived back in the UK 5 days ago.
Examination revealed some right mid zone crackles and reduced breath sounds over this area. Observations revealed a temperature of 38.8ºC, heart rate of 110 bpm, blood pressure of 105/66 mmHg, respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and oxygen saturations of 91% on room air.
Blood tests revealed:
Hb 145 g/l
Platelets 290 * 109/l
WBC 9.4 * 109/l
Na+ 132 mmol/l
K+ 3.7 mmol/l
Urea 4.1 mmol/l
Creatinine 67 µmol/l
Urinary sodium concentration was measured and found to be 36 mmol/L (normal range 40-220 mmol/d). Which of the following investigations is most useful in the diagnosis of this condition?Your Answer: Urine antigen test
Explanation:The most reliable method of diagnosing Legionella pneumophilia, which is likely the cause of this patient’s illness, is through the urinary antigen test. This infection is commonly associated with air conditioning and heating systems, and the patient may have contracted it while on vacation. Additionally, the patient’s low sodium levels may be a result of syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion.
Legionnaire’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Legionnaire’s disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium. It is commonly found in water tanks and air-conditioning systems, and is often associated with foreign travel. Unlike other types of pneumonia, Legionnaire’s disease cannot be transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. In addition, patients may experience hyponatraemia, deranged liver function tests, and pleural effusion in around 30% of cases.
Diagnosis of Legionnaire’s disease is typically done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics such as erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-rays may show non-specific features, but often include patchy consolidation in the mid-to-lower zones and pleural effusions. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with Legionnaire’s disease in order to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department. She has just returned from her trip to Thailand and is worried about the risk of contracting rabies. She had a minor bite from a stray dog while on her trip, but she immediately cleaned the wound. She has no past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, all of her vital signs are within normal limits and the wound has healed.
What is the best course of action to manage this patient's risk of rabies?Your Answer: Vaccination today and on days three, seven, 14 and 30
Correct Answer: Vaccination today and on day three
Explanation:Understanding Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Rabies
Rabies is a viral infection that can be transmitted through the bite of an infected mammal. If a person is bitten by an animal that may have rabies, they should seek medical attention immediately. The appropriate post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) will depend on the patient’s vaccination history and the severity of the bite.
If the patient has been previously vaccinated against rabies, they will only need vaccination on the day of the bite and three days later to establish immunity. However, if the patient has not been vaccinated before, PEP should include both passive (immunoglobulin) and active (vaccination) immunisation. In this case, the patient would receive IV rabies immunoglobulin (RIG) and vaccination on days 0, 3, 7, 14, and 30.
If the patient has not been vaccinated before and presents within a week of the bite, they would receive the full treatment, which includes IV RIG and vaccination on days 0, 3, 7, 14, and 30. However, if the patient presents after a week, IV immunoglobulins are not likely to be effective.
In summary, PEP for rabies should be tailored to the patient’s vaccination history and the severity of the bite. It is important to seek medical attention immediately after a potential exposure to rabies to ensure appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man is referred to a tuberculosis (TB) clinic following his wife's confirmed diagnosis of fully sensitive pulmonary TB. He denies any symptoms of cough, fevers, or weight loss and has no significant medical history. He is not a regular smoker or drinker and does not take any medications. Laboratory results reveal a negative HIV antibody test, negative hepatitis B surface antigen test, positive hepatitis B surface antibody test, negative hepatitis C antibody test, and positive interferon-gamma release antibody. What is the most appropriate initial treatment to offer?
Your Answer: 6 months of rifampicin only
Correct Answer: 3 months of rifampicin, isoniazid and pyridoxine
Explanation:For the treatment of latent tuberculosis, the patient can choose between a 3-month course of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin or a 6-month course of isoniazid (with pyridoxine). This decision is based on a positive interferon-gamma release antibody (IGRA) test and the absence of symptoms that suggest active TB. According to NICE guidelines, either of these treatment options is appropriate.
The patient’s positive Hepatitis B surface antibody test indicates that they have either been vaccinated against Hepatitis B or previously infected with the virus. A negative antigen test suggests that they do not have chronic hepatitis B. Treatment for chronic hepatitis B involves weekly injections of peginterferon alfa-2a for 48 weeks or antiviral medications like tenofovir or entecavir.
If the patient had a positive IGRA test and symptoms consistent with active TB, they would require treatment for active TB. This would involve a 2-month course of rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol, and pyridoxine, followed by a 4-month course of rifampicin, isoniazid, and pyridoxine.
Treatment Options for Latent Tuberculosis
Latent tuberculosis is a disease that can remain dormant in the body for years without causing any symptoms. However, if left untreated, it can develop into active tuberculosis, which can be life-threatening. To prevent this from happening, NICE now offers two choices for treating latent tuberculosis: 3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin, or 6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine).
The choice of regimen depends on the person’s clinical circumstances. For individuals younger than 35 years, 3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin is recommended if hepatotoxicity is a concern after an assessment of both liver function (including transaminase levels) and risk factors. On the other hand, 6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) is recommended if interactions with rifamycins are a concern, such as in people with HIV or who have had a transplant.
Risk factors for developing active tuberculosis include silicosis, chronic renal failure, HIV positive, solid organ transplantation with immunosuppression, intravenous drug use, haematological malignancy, anti-TNF treatment, and previous gastrectomy. It is important to identify these risk factors and choose the appropriate treatment option to prevent the development of active tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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