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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male patient presents at the clinic with a confirmed diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. He has also been diagnosed with liver cirrhosis and has a history of pseudogout. Based on his medical history, you suspect that he may be suffering from haemochromatosis. Can you identify the most frequently occurring genetic abnormality associated with this condition?
Your Answer: PAH mutation
Correct Answer: C282Y mutation
Explanation:Genetic Mutations and Their Effects
HFE is a gene responsible for binding to transferrin, and when a mutation occurs in this gene, it can lead to haemochromatosis. The most common mutation in this gene is the C282Y allele, which is a point mutation resulting in the replacement of a cysteine residue with a tyrosine amino acid. On the other hand, the delta-F508 mutation is a deletion mutation that causes the loss of phenylalanine at position 508 in the CFTR protein, leading to the development of cystic fibrosis. Trinucleotide repeats are another type of mutation that can cause inherited neurological disorders, such as Huntington’s disease and spinocerebellar ataxia. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy is caused by a mutation in the XP-21 gene, while phenylketonuria is caused by a mutation in phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
Correct
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A 70-year-old male visits his GP complaining of increased difficulty in breathing. He has a history of left ventricular heart failure, and his symptoms suggest a worsening of his condition. The doctor prescribes spironolactone as a diuretic. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Aldosterone antagonist
Explanation:The mechanism of action of spironolactone involves blocking the aldosterone receptor in the distal tubules and collecting duct of the kidneys. In contrast, furosemide acts as a loop diuretic by inhibiting the sodium/potassium/2 chloride inhibitor in the loop of Henle, while acetazolamide functions as a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.
Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200 mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.
However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are working on a pediatric ward. The mother of a young patient has recently had some blood tests performed in hospital. She says that her child was referred to a pediatrician by their general practitioner. She is anxious to find out the results.
Whilst you are sitting at the nurses' station doing some paperwork she asks if you would mind looking up the results for her on the hospital reporting system.
What should you do next?Your Answer: Look up the results and print a copy off for your colleague but advise you cannot say what they mean
Correct Answer: Apologise that you cannot look up the results as you are not involved in her care and do not have the information and knowledge needed to interpret the results
Explanation:Why Checking a Colleague’s Medical Test Results Could Do More Harm Than Good
Whilst it may seem helpful to check a colleague’s medical test results and reassure them that everything is normal, there are several potential risks involved. Firstly, without specialist knowledge and access to the patient’s medical history, it may be difficult to accurately interpret the results. Additionally, if the results are reported as normal, there may still be pending results that you are not aware of, which could falsely reassure the patient.
Furthermore, checking a colleague’s medical test results without a legitimate interest in their care could breach their confidentiality. This could result in inadvertently learning more about their medical history than they were willing to disclose.
Therefore, the best course of action would be to politely decline the request and encourage the colleague to liaise with their consultant about the results. It is important to prioritize patient confidentiality and avoid potentially causing more harm than good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Law
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of pain in her left hand. She reports experiencing occasional pins and needles in her left thumb and index fingers on the palm of her hand for the past two months. The pain is more severe at night and sometimes prevents her from sleeping.
Which nerve is responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:The patient is experiencing paraesthesia (pins and needles) and pain in the thumb and index finger, which worsens at night. This is likely due to nerve compression, specifically the median nerve, which supplies sensation to the palmar aspect of the lateral 3½ fingers.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man has been admitted to the surgical ward with abdominal pain and rectal bleeding. According to the notes, he has not had a bowel movement in five days. Additionally, he has begun vomiting and his abdomen is swollen.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Adhesions
Correct Answer: Large bowel obstruction
Explanation:Large bowel obstruction is the most likely diagnosis based on the pattern of symptoms, which include abdominal distension, absence of passing flatus or stool, and late onset or no vomiting.
Large bowel obstruction occurs when there is a blockage in the passage of food, fluids, and gas through the large intestines. The most common cause of this condition is a tumor, accounting for 60% of cases. Colonic malignancy is often the initial presenting complaint in approximately 30% of cases, especially in more distal colonic and rectal tumors due to their smaller lumen diameter. Other causes include volvulus and diverticular disease.
Clinical features of large bowel obstruction include abdominal pain, distention, and absence of passing flatus or stool. Nausea and vomiting may suggest a more proximal lesion, while peritonism may be present if there is associated bowel perforation. It is important to consider the underlying causes, such as recent symptoms suggestive of colorectal cancer.
Abdominal x-ray is still commonly used as a first-line investigation, with a diameter greater than the normal limits of 10-12 cm for the caecum, 8 cm for the ascending colon, and 6.5 cm for recto-sigmoid being diagnostic of obstruction. CT scan is highly sensitive and specific for identifying obstruction and its underlying cause.
Initial management of large bowel obstruction includes NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Conservative management for up to 72 hours can be trialed if the cause of obstruction does not require surgery, after which further management may be required if there is no resolution. Around 75% of cases will eventually require surgery. IV antibiotics are given if perforation is suspected or surgery is planned. Emergency surgery is necessary if there is any overt peritonitis or evidence of bowel perforation, involving irrigation of the abdominal cavity, resection of perforated segment and ischaemic bowel, and addressing the underlying cause of the obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What factor triggers a direct rise in the production of aldosterone?
Your Answer: Increased levels of antidiuretic hormone
Correct Answer: Increased levels of angiotensin II
Explanation:The Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is a series of events that occur in response to a fall in renal perfusion. When the kidneys do not receive enough blood flow, renin is released from the juxtaglomerular apparatus and stimulates the activation of angiotensin I into angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. Angiotensin II then triggers the production of aldosterone in the adrenal cortex. Although aldosterone is a hormone of the adrenal cortex, it is secreted in response to angiotensin II.
Aldosterone acts via the mineralocorticoid receptor (MR) and has several actions. It prevents the loss of sodium in the kidney, leading to sodium retention. It promotes renal potassium excretion, causing potassium loss. Additionally, it promotes renal loss of hydrogen ions, leading to a tendency towards alkalosis. Aldosterone plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure and electrolyte balance in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which virus is associated with the development of cervical cancer?
Your Answer: Human herpes virus 2
Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus 16
Explanation:Understanding Oncoviruses and Their Associated Cancers
Oncoviruses are viruses that have the potential to cause cancer. These viruses can be detected through blood tests and prevented through vaccination. There are several types of oncoviruses, each associated with a specific type of cancer.
The Epstein-Barr virus, for example, is linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Human papillomavirus 16/18 is associated with cervical cancer, anal cancer, penile cancer, vulval cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer. Human herpes virus 8 is linked to Kaposi’s sarcoma, while hepatitis B and C viruses are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. Finally, human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is linked to tropical spastic paraparesis and adult T cell leukemia.
It is important to understand the link between oncoviruses and cancer so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent and treat these diseases. Vaccination against certain oncoviruses, such as HPV, can significantly reduce the risk of developing associated cancers. Regular screening and early detection can also improve outcomes for those who do develop cancer as a result of an oncovirus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Correct
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A 23-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of persistent diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and weight loss. He reports experiencing generalised pain and feeling extremely fatigued. The patient denies any blood in his stool and has a past medical history of type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Upon investigation, the patient's tissue transglutaminase IgA (tTG-IgA) levels are found to be elevated. What is the most probable finding on duodenal biopsy for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Villous atrophy
Explanation:Malabsorption occurs in coeliac disease due to villous atrophy, which is caused by an immune response to gluten in the gastrointestinal tract. This can lead to nutritional deficiencies in affected individuals. While coeliac disease is associated with a slightly increased risk of small bowel carcinoma, it is unlikely to occur in a young patient. Crypt hyperplasia, not hypoplasia, is a common finding in coeliac disease. Coeliac disease is associated with a decreased number of goblet cells, not an increased number. Non-caseating granulomas are typically seen in Crohn’s disease, not coeliac disease.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man has just noticed that his heart is beating irregularly. Upon examination, his pulse is found to be irregularly irregular with a rate of 56 bpm. What ECG findings would you anticipate?
Your Answer: A P wave preceding each QRS complex
Correct Answer: No P wave preceding each QRS complex
Explanation:Atrial Fibrillation and its Causes
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition characterized by irregular heartbeats due to the constant activity of the atria. This can lead to the absence of distinct P waves, making it difficult to diagnose. AF can be caused by various factors such as hyperthyroidism, alcohol excess, mitral stenosis, and fibrous degeneration. The primary risks associated with AF are strokes and cardiac failure. Blood clots can form in the atria due to the lack of atrial movement, which can then be distributed into the systemic circulation, leading to strokes. High rates of AF can also cause syncopal episodes and cardiac failure.
The treatment of AF can be divided into controlling the rate or rhythm. If the rhythm cannot be controlled reliably, long-term anticoagulation with warfarin may be necessary to reduce the risk of stroke, depending on other risk factors. Bifid P waves are associated with hypertrophy of the left atrium, while regular P waves with no relation to QRS complexes are seen in complete heart block. Small P waves can be seen in hypokalaemia.
In cases of AF with shock, immediate medical attention is necessary, and emergency drug or electronic cardioversion may be needed. the causes and risks associated with AF is crucial in managing the condition and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Correct
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Mr Stent is a 56-year-old man who has been scheduled for a laparoscopic right hemicolectomy. However, he has several comorbidities that were discovered during the anaesthetic clinic. These include constipation, a latex allergy, coronary artery disease, moderately raised intracranial pressure due to a benign space occupying brain tumour, and a protein C deficiency. Considering his medical history, which of the following is an absolute contraindication to laparoscopic surgery?
Your Answer: Raised intracranial pressure
Explanation:Laparoscopic surgery should not be performed in patients with significantly raised intracranial pressure. It is important to understand the indications, complications, and contraindications of both laparoscopic and open surgery. Thrombophilia can be managed with anticoagulation, constipation is not a contraindication but may increase the risk of bowel perforation, a patient with a latex allergy should have all latex equipment removed and the theatre cleaned, and a patient with coronary artery disease may be at higher risk during anaesthesia but this will be assessed before surgery in the anaesthetics clinic.
Risks and Complications of Laparoscopy
Laparoscopy is a minimally invasive surgical procedure that involves the insertion of a small camera and instruments through small incisions in the abdomen. While it is generally considered safe, there are some risks and complications associated with the procedure.
One of the general risks of laparoscopy is the use of anaesthetic, which can cause complications such as allergic reactions or breathing difficulties. Additionally, some patients may experience a vasovagal reaction, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure and heart rate in response to abdominal distension.
Another potential complication of laparoscopy is extra-peritoneal gas insufflation, which can cause surgical emphysema. This occurs when gas used to inflate the abdomen during the procedure leaks into the surrounding tissues, causing swelling and discomfort.
Injuries to the gastro-intestinal tract and blood vessels are also possible complications of laparoscopy. These can include damage to the common iliacs or deep inferior epigastric artery, which can cause bleeding and other serious complications.
Overall, while laparoscopy is generally considered safe, it is important for patients to be aware of the potential risks and complications associated with the procedure. Patients should discuss these risks with their healthcare provider before undergoing laparoscopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which one of the following changes are not typically seen in established dehydration?
Your Answer: Hypernatraemia
Correct Answer: Decreased serum urea to creatinine ratio
Explanation:The diagnosis of dehydration can be complex, with laboratory characteristics being a key factor to consider.
Pre-Operative Fluid Management Guidelines
Proper fluid management is crucial in preparing patients for surgery. The British Consensus guidelines on IV fluid therapy for Adult Surgical patients (GIFTASUP) and NICE (CG174 December 2013) have provided recommendations for pre-operative fluid management. These guidelines suggest the use of Ringer’s lactate or Hartmann’s for resuscitation or replacement of fluids, instead of 0.9% N. Saline due to the risk of hyperchloraemic acidosis. For maintenance fluids, 4%/0.18% dextrose saline or 5% dextrose should be used. Patients should not be nil by mouth for more than two hours, and carbohydrate-rich drinks should be given 2-3 hours before surgery. Mechanical bowel preparation should be avoided, but if used, simultaneous administration of Hartmann’s or Ringer’s lactate should be considered.
In cases of excessive fluid loss from vomiting, a crystalloid with potassium replacement should be given. Hartmann’s or Ringer lactate should be given for diarrhoea, ileostomy, ileus, obstruction, or sodium losses secondary to diuretics. High-risk patients should receive fluids and inotropes, and pre or operative hypovolaemia should be detected using flow-based measurements or clinical evaluation. In cases of blood loss or infection causing hypovolaemia, a balanced crystalloid or colloid should be used until blood is available. If IV fluid resuscitation is needed, crystalloids containing sodium in the range of 130-154 mmol/l should be used, with a bolus of 500 ml over less than 15 minutes. These guidelines aim to ensure that patients are properly hydrated and prepared for surgery, reducing the risk of complications and improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male with sickle cell disease arrives at the hospital exhibiting symptoms of dehydration, infection, and acute kidney injury. What is the direct activator of the renin-angiotensin system in this case?
Your Answer: Sickle cell medication
Correct Answer: Low blood pressure
Explanation:The RAS is a hormone system that regulates plasma sodium concentration and arterial blood pressure. When plasma sodium concentration is low or renal blood flow is reduced due to low blood pressure, juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys convert prorenin to renin, which is secreted into circulation. Renin acts on angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by ACE found in the lungs and epithelial cells of the kidneys. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoactive peptide that constricts arterioles, increasing arterial blood pressure and stimulating aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone causes the kidneys to reabsorb sodium ions from tubular fluid back into the blood while excreting potassium ions in urine.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with significant swelling around her eyes. Her mother reports that the patient has been passing foamy urine lately.
Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the pediatrician observes proteinuria +++ with no other anomalies.
The pediatrician suspects that the patient may have minimal change disease leading to nephrotic syndrome.
What is the association of this condition with light microscopy?Your Answer: Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules
Correct Answer: Normal glomerular architecture
Explanation:In minimal change disease, light microscopy typically shows no abnormalities.
Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, a cause can be found in around 10-20% of cases, such as drugs like NSAIDs and rifampicin, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and a reduction of electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin.
The features of minimal change disease include nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, where only intermediate-sized proteins like albumin and transferrin leak through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, while electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.
Management of minimal change disease involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Roughly one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the primary process of growth that causes benign enlargement of the prostate?
Your Answer: Dysplasia
Correct Answer: Hyperplasia
Explanation:Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects men as they age. It is characterized by an increase in the number of cells in the prostate gland, which leads to its enlargement. This process is known as hyperplasia and is the main method for age-related prostate enlargement. BPH is caused by an increase in the number of exocrine glands and ducts, which are structurally normal.
Hypertrophy, which is an increase in the size of cells, also plays a role in BPH, but to a lesser extent. It mainly affects the central (periurethral) zone of the prostate, causing urethral compression and the symptoms of bladder outlet obstruction. On the other hand, dysplasia, which is the abnormal growth of cells, is more likely to occur in the peripheral zone of the prostate. This area has the potential to develop into malignancy, making it important to monitor any changes in the prostate gland. the mechanisms behind BPH can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding cerebral palsy is inaccurate?
Your Answer: 20% of children have hearing impairment
Correct Answer: Less than 5% of children will have epilepsy
Explanation:Understanding Cerebral Palsy
Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.
Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.
Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient has been diagnosed with diabetic nephropathy and is being prepared for dialysis. During testing, it was discovered that the patient has an increased level of parathyroid hormone in their bloodstream. What is the function of parathyroid hormone?
Your Answer: To promote loss of sodium in the urine
Correct Answer: To promote loss of phosphate in the urine
Explanation:The Role of Parathyroid Hormone in Calcium and Phosphate Regulation
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate levels in the body. It works on the bone to release calcium into the bloodstream and interstitial fluid through bone resorption. PTH also works on the kidney to increase the activity of the 1-alpha hydroxylase enzyme, which activates vitamin D, promoting increased calcium absorption from the gut. Additionally, PTH reduces the amount of calcium lost in the urine and increases the amount of phosphate lost in the urine by altering the renal tubular threshold for phosphate.
However, in cases of hyperparathyroidism, excessive PTH is produced at an inappropriate time, leading to elevated calcium concentrations and low phosphate concentrations in the blood. This can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including bone pain, kidney stones, and osteoporosis. Therefore, it is important to maintain proper levels of PTH to ensure healthy calcium and phosphate regulation in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations and feeling lightheaded. The electrocardiogram reveals supraventricular tachycardia, and the registrar administers adenosine to try and correct the abnormal rhythm.
What is the mechanism of action of adenosine?Your Answer: Alpha receptor antagonist
Correct Answer: A1 receptor agonist
Explanation:Adenosine is an agonist of the A1 receptor in the AV node, which inhibits adenylyl cyclase and reduces cAMP levels. This leads to hyperpolarisation by increasing potassium outflow, effectively preventing supraventricular tachycardia from continuing. It is important to note that adenosine is not an alpha receptor antagonist, beta-2 receptor agonist, or beta receptor antagonist.
Adenosine is commonly used to stop supraventricular tachycardias. Its effects are boosted by dipyridamole, an antiplatelet agent, but blocked by theophyllines. However, asthmatics should avoid it due to the risk of bronchospasm. Adenosine works by causing a temporary heart block in the AV node. It activates the A1 receptor in the atrioventricular node, which inhibits adenylyl cyclase, reducing cAMP and causing hyperpolarization by increasing outward potassium flux. Adenosine has a very short half-life of about 8-10 seconds and should be infused through a large-caliber cannula.
Adenosine can cause chest pain, bronchospasm, and transient flushing. It can also enhance conduction down accessory pathways, leading to an increased ventricular rate in conditions such as WPW syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman, with two children, visits her doctor at 32 weeks gestation to receive her pertussis vaccine. She consents to participate in a research study that aims to assess the levels of immunoglobulins produced in response to the vaccine.
Following the vaccination, a specific immunoglobulin is observed to have a significantly elevated concentration. This immunoglobulin is capable of fixing complement and crossing the blood-placental barrier to enter the fetal circulation.
Which immunoglobulin is being referred to in this scenario?Your Answer: IgA
Correct Answer: IgG
Explanation:The antibody subtype that is capable of fixing complement and passing through the blood-placental barrier to enter the fetal circulation is IgG.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 19
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with hypocalcaemia has elevated parathyroid hormone levels. Is it a typical physiological response to increase calcium levels? In the kidney, where does parathyroid hormone act to enhance calcium reabsorption?
Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Understanding Parathyroid Hormone and Its Effects
Parathyroid hormone is a hormone produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands. Its main function is to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood by stimulating the PTH receptors in the kidney and bone. This hormone has a short half-life of only 4 minutes.
The effects of parathyroid hormone are mainly seen in the bone, kidney, and intestine. In the bone, PTH binds to osteoblasts, which then signal to osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium. In the kidney, PTH promotes the active reabsorption of calcium and magnesium from the distal convoluted tubule, while decreasing the reabsorption of phosphate. In the intestine, PTH indirectly increases calcium absorption by increasing the activation of vitamin D, which in turn increases calcium absorption.
Overall, understanding the role of parathyroid hormone is important in maintaining proper calcium levels in the body. Any imbalances in PTH secretion can lead to various disorders such as hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 20
Correct
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A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department with lateral knee pain. He reports that the pain began two hours ago while playing hockey, and he was struck on the anteromedial aspect of his extended knee by a hockey stick. An x-ray of the knee reveals an avulsion fracture of the fibular head. Which muscle is the probable culprit for this patient's avulsion fracture?
Your Answer: Biceps femoris
Explanation:The fibular head serves as the insertion point for both the long and short head of the biceps femoris muscle. However, sudden contractions of the biceps femoris can lead to an avulsion fracture of the fibular head, where the fracture fragment may be attached to the lateral collateral ligament or biceps femoris tendon.
The fibularis brevis muscle originates from the distal two-thirds of the fibular bone. If the ankle joint suddenly inverts, it can pull on the fibularis tendon and cause an avulsion of the tuberosity at the base of the fifth metatarsal.
The flexor hallucis longus muscle originates from the distal two-thirds of the posterior surface of the fibular bone. This muscle not only allows for flexion of the big toe but also contributes to plantarflexion and inversion of the foot.
The soleus muscle originates from the proximal one-third of the posterior surface of the fibular bone. It is a large muscle covered in thick fascia, which aids in its secondary function of pumping venous blood back into the heart through the skeletal muscle pump.
The Biceps Femoris Muscle
The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.
On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.
Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with lung cancer is having a left pneumonectomy. The left main bronchus is being divided. Which thoracic vertebrae is located behind this structure?
Your Answer: T3
Correct Answer: T6
Explanation:Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 22
Correct
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Which one of the following structures is not closely related to the carotid sheath?
Your Answer: Anterior belly of digastric muscle
Explanation:The carotid sheath is connected to sternohyoid and sternothyroid at its lower end. The superior belly of omohyoid crosses the sheath at the cricoid cartilage level. The sternocleidomastoid muscle covers the sheath above this level. The vessels pass beneath the posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid above the hyoid bone. The hypoglossal nerve crosses the sheath diagonally at the hyoid bone level.
The common carotid artery is a major blood vessel that supplies the head and neck with oxygenated blood. It has two branches, the left and right common carotid arteries, which arise from different locations. The left common carotid artery originates from the arch of the aorta, while the right common carotid artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk. Both arteries terminate at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage by dividing into the internal and external carotid arteries.
The left common carotid artery runs superolaterally to the sternoclavicular joint and is in contact with various structures in the thorax, including the trachea, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and left margin of the esophagus. In the neck, it passes deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and enters the carotid sheath with the vagus nerve and internal jugular vein. The right common carotid artery has a similar path to the cervical portion of the left common carotid artery, but with fewer closely related structures.
Overall, the common carotid artery is an important blood vessel with complex anatomical relationships in both the thorax and neck. Understanding its path and relations is crucial for medical professionals to diagnose and treat various conditions related to this artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 23
Correct
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A 67-year-old female presents to a medical facility with a chief complaint of tremors. Upon examination, the physician observes that the tremors are most noticeable when the patient is at rest. The patient does not display any specific neurological deficits, but does exhibit arm rigidity throughout the full range of motion and takes some time to initiate movements. Given the probable diagnosis, what histological finding would be anticipated?
Your Answer: Lewy bodies
Explanation:When a patient presents with tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia, Parkinson’s Disease should be considered as a possible diagnosis. The presence of Lewy Bodies, which are clumps of proteins within neurons, is a characteristic histological finding. These bodies are often found in the substantia nigra and have a cytoplasm that is rich in eosin.
In males with Klinefelter syndrome, Barr bodies, which are inactivated X chromosomes, may be observed.
Cholesterol clefts are a result of cholesterol emboli, which occur when material from an atherosclerotic plaque becomes dislodged and deposited elsewhere. This can happen during procedures such as angiography.
Keratin pearls are a feature of squamous cell lung cancer, where squamous cells form concentric layers around keratin.
The term kidney bean-shaped nuclei refers to the appearance of neutrophils.
Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 24
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of severe abdominal pain, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Upon examination, she has a distended abdomen that is tender to the touch, and bowel sounds are infrequent. Her medical history includes a hysterectomy and cholecystectomy. A CT scan is ordered, which reveals a bowel obstruction at the L1 level. What is the most likely affected area?
Your Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:The 2nd segment of the duodenum is situated at the transpyloric plane, which corresponds to the level of L1 and is a significant anatomical reference point.
The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks
The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.
Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.
In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.
Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 25
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a productive cough and difficulty breathing for the past 10 days. The doctor prescribes antibiotics, but after a week, the patient's symptoms persist and he develops a fever and pain when breathing in. The doctor orders a chest x-ray, which indicates the presence of an empyema. What is the probable causative agent responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:An accumulation of pus in the pleural space, known as empyema, is a possible complication of pneumonia and is responsible for the patient’s pleurisy. Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most frequent cause of pneumonia, is also the leading cause of empyema.
Pneumonia is a common condition that affects the alveoli of the lungs, usually caused by a bacterial infection. Other causes include viral and fungal infections. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common organism responsible for pneumonia, accounting for 80% of cases. Haemophilus influenzae is common in patients with COPD, while Staphylococcus aureus often occurs in patients following influenzae infection. Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Legionella pneumophilia are atypical pneumonias that present with dry cough and other atypical symptoms. Pneumocystis jiroveci is typically seen in patients with HIV. Idiopathic interstitial pneumonia is a group of non-infective causes of pneumonia.
Patients who develop pneumonia outside of the hospital have community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), while those who develop it within hospitals are said to have hospital-acquired pneumonia. Symptoms of pneumonia include cough, sputum, dyspnoea, chest pain, and fever. Signs of systemic inflammatory response, tachycardia, reduced oxygen saturations, and reduced breath sounds may also be present. Chest x-ray is used to diagnose pneumonia, with consolidation being the classical finding. Blood tests, such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and CRP, are also used to check for infection.
Patients with pneumonia require antibiotics to treat the underlying infection and supportive care, such as oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids. Risk stratification is done using a scoring system called CURB-65, which stands for confusion, respiration rate, blood pressure, age, and is used to determine the management of patients with community-acquired pneumonia. Home-based care is recommended for patients with a CRB65 score of 0, while hospital assessment is recommended for all other patients, particularly those with a CRB65 score of 2 or more. The CURB-65 score also correlates with an increased risk of mortality at 30 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old construction worker becomes dehydrated after spending the day working under the sun.
What can be inferred about this person?Your Answer: Decreased activity of the zona glomerulosa
Correct Answer: Most of the ultrafiltrated water in the nephron to be reabsorbed in the proximal tubule
Explanation:The majority of filtered water is absorbed in the proximal tubule, while the highest amount of sodium reabsorption occurs in this area due to the Na+/K+ ATPase mechanism. This results in the movement of fluid from the proximal tubules to peritubular capillaries.
After a strenuous run, the individual is likely to be slightly dehydrated, leading to an increased activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. This would cause an increase in aldosterone release from the zona glomerulosa. Additionally, vasopressin (also known as ADH) would be elevated to enhance water reabsorption in the collecting duct.
Renal cortical blood flow is higher than medullary blood flow, as tubular cells are more susceptible to ischaemia.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old patient visits your clinic with complaints of unintentional weight loss, increased appetite, and diarrhea. She frequently experiences a rapid heartbeat and feels hot and sweaty in your office. During examination, you observe lid retraction in her eyes and a pulse rate of 110 beats per minute. You suspect thyrotoxicosis and plan to measure her serum levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), triiodothyronine (T3), and thyroxine (T4). Since TSH is secreted by the anterior pituitary, which other hormone is also released by this gland?
Your Answer: antidiuretic hormone
Correct Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:The hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland that stimulates breast development in puberty and during pregnancy, as well as milk production after delivery, is prolactin. Along with prolactin, the anterior pituitary gland also secretes growth hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and melanocyte releasing hormone.
antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. It increases water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys.
Aldosterone is released by the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex. It is a mineralocorticoid that increases sodium reabsorption in the distal nephron of the kidney, leading to water retention.
Cortisol is released by the zona fasiculata of the adrenal gland. It is a glucocorticoid that has various actions, including increasing protein catabolism, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis.
The pituitary gland is a small gland located within the sella turcica in the sphenoid bone of the middle cranial fossa. It weighs approximately 0.5g and is covered by a dural fold. The gland is attached to the hypothalamus by the infundibulum and receives hormonal stimuli from the hypothalamus through the hypothalamo-pituitary portal system. The anterior pituitary, which develops from a depression in the wall of the pharynx known as Rathkes pouch, secretes hormones such as ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, GH, and prolactin. GH and prolactin are secreted by acidophilic cells, while ACTH, TSH, FSH, and LH are secreted by basophilic cells. On the other hand, the posterior pituitary, which is derived from neuroectoderm, secretes ADH and oxytocin. Both hormones are produced in the hypothalamus before being transported by the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing a fall. He reports a recent decline in his vision, including distortion of lines and loss of central vision, which was particularly noticeable tonight.
During the eye examination, you observe the presence of drusen and new vessel formation around the macula.
As part of his discharge plan, you schedule a follow-up appointment with an ophthalmologist, suspecting that monoclonal antibody treatment targeting vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) may be necessary.
What type of monoclonal antibody functions through this mechanism of action?Your Answer: Omalizumab
Correct Answer: Bevacizumab
Explanation:Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF). It is used to slow down the progression of wet age-related macular degeneration (ARMD), which is the condition described in this case. Treatment with bevacizumab should begin within the first two months of diagnosis of wet ARMD.
Abciximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets platelet IIb/IIIa receptors, preventing platelet aggregation. It is used to prevent blood clots in unstable angina or after coronary artery stenting.
Adalimumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and is primarily used to treat inflammatory arthritis.
Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets the IgE receptor, reducing the IgE response. It is used to treat severe allergic asthma.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 29
Correct
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A 60-year-old man undergoes an ultrasound screening for abdominal aortic aneurysms and is found to have a large aneurysm. He is referred to a vascular surgeon and scheduled for endovascular surgery. During this procedure, a graft is inserted through the femoral artery and into the aorta. Can you identify the level at which the aorta passes through the diaphragm?
Your Answer: T12
Explanation:Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body
The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.
In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been experiencing ongoing muscle weakness in her arms and legs for the past 4 months. She has been referred to the hospital and has agreed to undergo a muscle biopsy of her right quadriceps. The collected samples have been sent to histopathology for examination. When observing under a microscope, which type(s) of muscle would typically display sarcomeres?
Your Answer: Skeletal and smooth muscle
Correct Answer: Skeletal and cardiac muscle
Explanation:The typical striated appearance of skeletal and cardiac muscle is due to sarcomeres, which are the fundamental unit of muscles.
The Process of Muscle Contraction
Muscle contraction is a complex process that involves several steps. It begins with an action potential reaching the neuromuscular junction, which causes a calcium ion influx through voltage-gated calcium channels. This influx leads to the release of acetylcholine into the extracellular space, which activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, triggering an action potential. The action potential then spreads through the T-tubules, activating L-type voltage-dependent calcium channels in the T-tubule membrane, which are close to calcium-release channels in the adjacent sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium, which binds to troponin C, causing a conformational change that allows tropomyosin to move, unblocking the binding sites. Myosin then binds to the newly released binding site, releasing ADP and pulling the Z bands towards each other. ATP binds to myosin, releasing actin.
The components involved in muscle contraction include the sarcomere, which is the basic unit of muscles that gives skeletal and cardiac muscles their striated appearance. The I-band is the zone of thin filaments that is not superimposed by thick filaments, while the A-band contains the entire length of a single thick filament. The H-zone is the zone of the thick filaments that is not superimposed by the thin filaments, and the M-line is in the middle of the sarcomere, cross-linking myosin. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ion in response to depolarization, while actin is the thin filaments that transmit the forces generated by myosin to the ends of the muscle. Myosin is the thick filaments that bind to the thin filament, while titin connects the Z-line to the thick filament, altering the structure of tropomyosin. Tropomyosin covers the myosin-binding sites on actin, while troponin-C binds with calcium ions. The T-tubule is an invagination of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that helps co-ordinate muscular contraction.
There are two types of skeletal muscle fibres: type I and type II. Type I fibres have a slow contraction time, are red in colour due to the presence of myoglobin, and are used for sustained force. They have a high mitochondrial density and use triglycerides as
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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