00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old student on a gap year has just returned from a three-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old student on a gap year has just returned from a three-week camping trip in the USA. He is experiencing foul-smelling watery diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and nausea. During the examination, he shows mild general abdominal tenderness. What is the most probable cause of his diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Correct Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis: A Parasitic Disease

      Giardiasis is a parasitic disease that is caused by Giardia lamblia. This disease is usually contracted by ingesting cysts that are present in contaminated water. The incubation period for this disease is typically one to two weeks. Patients who are affected by this disease usually present with symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, flatulence, nausea, anorexia, and weight loss.

      To diagnose this disease, stool microscopy is typically used. In some cases, ELISA, duodenal aspirate, and biopsy may also be used. Management of this disease is done through the use of oral metronidazole. By the symptoms and diagnosis of Giardiasis, individuals can take steps to prevent the contraction of this parasitic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of fatigue and occasional fevers. She reports frequent respiratory infections and has recently been treated for a vaginal yeast infection. Her medical history includes asthma, which is managed with albuterol as needed.
      After running some tests, it is discovered that she is HIV positive. She is started on a HAART regimen consisting of lamivudine, tenofovir, and efavirenz.
      What is the most common adverse effect of lamivudine?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow suppression

      Explanation:

      Lamivudine is a type of medication called a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) that is used to treat HIV and hepatitis B. While it is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. One of the most common side-effects of NRTIs in general is bone marrow suppression, which can lead to anaemia, leucopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Lamivudine can also rarely cause peripheral neuropathy, which is a type of nerve damage that can cause tingling or numbness in the hands and feet. Pancreatitis is another rare side-effect of NRTIs, including lamivudine. Renal calculi, or kidney stones, are a side-effect of some HIV medications, but specifically due to the protease inhibitor indinavir rather than NRTIs. Finally, while insulin resistance is not a common side-effect of NRTIs, it can occur with some protease inhibitors. It is important to discuss any potential side-effects with your healthcare provider and report any concerning symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      355.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of high fevers and myalgia. She has recently returned to the US from the Democratic Republic of the Congo. Her medical history includes uterine fibroids and iron deficiency anemia, which she manages with regular ferrous sulfate.

      Her vital signs are as follows:
      - Temperature: 39.2ºC
      - Heart rate: 120 bpm
      - Blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg
      - Respiratory rate: 16 breaths/min
      - Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air

      Upon examination, she is diaphoretic and reports a headache. Her lung sounds are clear and her heart sounds are regular. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. However, she has multiple enlarged and tender lymph nodes in her axillae and groin.

      What is the most likely infectious agent responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Burkholderia pseudomallei

      Correct Answer: Yersinia pestis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bubonic Plague

      Bubonic plague is the most common type of plague that affects humans. It is transmitted by fleas that carry the bacteria from rodents to humans through their bites. The disease can also spread from one infected person to another through aerosolized particles if it develops into pneumonic plague in the lungs. Bubonic plague is still present in many countries, and Yersinia pestis is the bacteria responsible for causing the disease.

      Symptoms of bubonic plague usually appear 3-7 days after exposure and include flu-like symptoms such as high fever, headache, and weakness. The lymph nodes in the affected area become inflamed, tense, and painful.

      Fortunately, treatment with antibiotics such as streptomycin can significantly reduce mortality rates from 60% to 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      119.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old homeless man comes in with a persistent cough, occasional coughing up...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old homeless man comes in with a persistent cough, occasional coughing up of blood, and weight loss over the past two months. His chest X-ray reveals consolidation in the upper right lobe. After confirming a diagnosis of tuberculosis through microscopy, he is started on a combination of rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol, along with pyridoxine supplements. However, after eight weeks, culture results indicate that the Mycobacterium tuberculosis is resistant to isoniazid. What would be the appropriate course of action for his continued treatment?

      Your Answer: Add a quinolone and aminoglycoside

      Correct Answer: Four months of rifampicin and ethambutol

      Explanation:

      If isoniazid resistance is confirmed, treatment with ethambutol is continued for 6 months. In cases of fully sensitive Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection, rifampicin and isoniazid (with pyridoxine support) are continued for 4 months after stopping pyrazinamide and ethambutol at the 2-month mark. However, if isoniazid resistance is confirmed, rifampicin and ethambutol are continued for the remaining 4 months of treatment, while isoniazid (and supportive pyridoxine) and pyrazinamide are discontinued. It is not appropriate to add a quinolone or aminoglycoside as this is not multi-drug resistant tuberculosis (which does not respond to at least isoniazid and rifampicin).

      Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications

      Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months with a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves rifampicin and isoniazid. For latent tuberculosis, treatment involves three months of isoniazid and rifampicin or six months of isoniazid with pyridoxine. Patients with meningeal tuberculosis require prolonged treatment of at least 12 months with the addition of steroids.

      Directly observed therapy may be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients with poor concordance. However, treatment can also lead to complications. Immune reconstitution disease can occur 3-6 weeks after starting treatment and often presents with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects can also occur, such as hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like symptoms, peripheral neuropathy, agranulocytosis, hyperuricaemia causing gout, arthralgia, myalgia, and optic neuritis. It is important to monitor patients for these complications and adjust treatment as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old man with a history of IV heroin use is brought to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man with a history of IV heroin use is brought to the Emergency Department with severe muscle spasms and abdominal pain. He reports difficulty finding clean needles and injection sites in recent weeks. On examination, there is an abscess in his right groin and he exhibits bilateral hyperreflexia and increased tone. When asked to swallow water, he begins to choke. Laboratory results show a low hemoglobin level, elevated white cell count and CRP, and abnormal liver function tests. What is the most suitable course of action at this point?

      Your Answer: IM Anti-tetanus immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Management of a Patient with Injection-Related Tetanus

      The patient in question presents with increased tone and muscle spasms, along with a history of IV drug abuse, indicating injection-related tetanus. The elevated white count and CRP levels further support this diagnosis. However, the abnormal liver function tests may be related to viral hepatitis. Given the high risk of rapid deterioration, prophylactic intubation and ventilation may be necessary.

      The first step in management should be the administration of IM Anti-tetanus immunoglobulin to prevent further spread of the tetanus toxin. Debridement of any abscess should be delayed until after the immunoglobulin has been given to avoid increasing the toxin load in the peripheral circulation.

      IV immunoglobulin is not appropriate in this case, as it is used for Guillain Barré syndrome, which presents with flaccid paralysis, not the spastic paralysis seen in tetanus. Similarly, IV Methylprednisolone is not recommended due to the underlying tetanus infection. Corticosteroids are also ineffective in managing GBS.

      IV Metronidazole may be used to reduce the duration of tetanus symptoms, but it should be used in conjunction with tetanus immunoglobulin and debridement of any abscess. Overall, prompt administration of IM Anti-tetanus immunoglobulin is crucial in managing this patient with injection-related tetanus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      51.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 52-year-old woman with ovarian cancer presents to the Emergency Department having undergone...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman with ovarian cancer presents to the Emergency Department having undergone a cycle of chemotherapy nine days ago. She complains of left-sided chest pain and shortness of breath.

      On examination, she has bibasal crepitations with reduced air entry on the left side of her chest. She appears flushed and tachycardic. Her blood pressure is 98/62 mmHg, while her pulse is 111 beats per minute. Her temperature is 34.7 °C, while her respiratory rate is 27 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturation is 95% on 28% oxygen.

      Aside from the chemotherapy, she is currently taking ondansetron as required. She has no allergies.

      The triage nurse has placed an intravenous (IV) cannula; blood results and cultures are awaited.

      What is the most appropriate immediate next management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Piperacillin with tazobactam IV

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Suspected Neutropenic Sepsis

      When a patient presents with chest pain, shortness of breath, and signs of systemic shock after recent chemotherapy, it is important to consider the possibility of neutropenic sepsis. The first step in treatment should be the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics without delay. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, piperacillin with tazobactam is the recommended option for suspected neutropenic sepsis.

      While a chest X-ray is necessary for further investigation, it should not delay the administration of antibiotics. The combination of amoxicillin and clarithromycin may be appropriate for moderate community-acquired pneumonia, but it is not the first-line option for suspected neutropenic sepsis.

      Aztreonam, teioplanin, and metronidazole may be used for life-threatening penicillin allergies, but they are not the first-line option for suspected neutropenic sepsis.

      Vancomycin is the appropriate first-line therapy for MRSA pneumonia and soft tissue infections. It should be dosed at 15-20 mg/kg twice a day or three times daily, with a maximum 2 g per dose, and monitored via serum levels.

      In summary, when a patient presents with suspected neutropenic sepsis, the immediate administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as piperacillin with tazobactam, is crucial for effective treatment. Further investigations, such as a chest X-ray, can be arranged once the patient is stabilized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old male was brought to the emergency department from a nursing home...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male was brought to the emergency department from a nursing home due to a gradual decrease in his level of consciousness over the past few days. According to his caregiver, he had been experiencing a burning sensation while urinating accompanied by a low-grade fever for the last week. The following were the results of his blood tests:

      Na+ 132 mmol/l
      K+ 3.8 mmol/l
      Urea 12 mmol/l
      Creatinine 135 µmol/l

      The urine dipstick revealed an increase in leukocytes and nitrites. The urine culture showed the presence of extended-spectrum B-lactamase (ESBL) - producing Escherichia coli.

      What is the recommended first-line treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meropenem

      Explanation:

      The emergence of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria, particularly ESBL, due to the frequent use of B-lactam antibiotics for urinary tract infections, has become a major challenge in treatment. Carbapenems such as imipenem, meropenem, ertapenem, and doripenem are still the first line of defense against these strains. However, the administration of these antibiotics may contribute to the development of further resistance. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid prescribing antibiotics unless there are clear clinical indications of a urinary tract infection.

      Escherichia coli: A Common Gut Commensal with Various Disease Manifestations

      Escherichia coli is a type of Gram-negative rod that is commonly found in the gut as a normal commensal. It is a facultative anaerobe and can ferment lactose. However, E. coli infections can lead to various diseases in humans, including diarrhoeal illnesses, urinary tract infections (UTIs), and neonatal meningitis. The classification of E. coli is based on the antigens that can trigger an immune response. These antigens include the lipopolysaccharide layer (O), capsule (K), and flagellin (H). For instance, neonatal meningitis caused by E. coli is usually due to a serotype that contains the capsular antigen K-1.

      One particular strain of E. coli, O157:H7, is associated with severe, haemorrhagic, watery diarrhoea. It has a high mortality rate and can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome. This strain is often transmitted through contaminated ground beef. Despite being a common gut commensal, E. coli can cause various diseases that can be life-threatening. Therefore, proper hygiene and food safety practices are essential in preventing E. coli infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a 3-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a 3-week history of profuse watery diarrhoea. She has been experiencing intermittent cramping abdominal pain and episodes of nausea, but denies vomiting. Her appetite is reduced and she is now feeling extremely fatigued. There is no recent travel or change in diet. She has no significant medical history or regular medications.
      On examination, her temperature is 36.5 °C. She appears pale and thin, but not jaundiced. Her heart rate is 98 bpm and regular and her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. She has generalised abdominal tenderness but no guarding or palpable masses. There are visible needle marks in her right antecubital fossa.
      What is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium hominis

      Explanation:

      The patient in this case has been experiencing prolonged diarrhea, and his physical examination suggests that he may have HIV due to needle track marks, pallor, and cachexia. The most likely cause of his diarrhea is Cryptosporidium hominis, a parasitic organism that commonly affects immunocompromised individuals, including those with HIV. Symptoms of this infection include watery diarrhea and abdominal pain, and it can lead to complications such as pancreatitis or cholecystitis. A positive modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain can confirm the diagnosis, and treatment involves both addressing the parasitic infection and the underlying immunodeficiency with HAART. Other potential causes of diarrhea, such as Shigella dysenteriae, Giardia duodenalis, Entamoeba histolytica, and Escherichia coli, are less likely based on the patient’s symptoms and history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old man presents from a nursing home with a one-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents from a nursing home with a one-day history of fevers, drowsiness and vomiting. He has been unwell, not eating for the past 3 days according to his carer. Recently he has been exhibiting behavioural changes, crying and agitation when lights are turned on in the room, and holding his neck. He has a background of Alzheimer's dementia, hypertension, congestive cardiac failure(CCF) and chronic kidney disease.

      On examination, he is febrile with a temperature of 38.1oC. Heart rate 112 bpm, respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute and oxygen saturations of 94% on air. On auscultation, there are bibasal crepitations and cardiovascular examination is consistent with mild CCF. There is neck stiffness and photophobia on cranial nerve examination, pupils equal and reactive to light. Kernig's sign is positive.

      Investigations:

      Na+ 129 mmol/l
      K+ 4.8 mmol/l
      Urea 10.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 123 µmol/l
      Serum glucose 5.9mmol/l
      C Reactive protein 95 mg/l
      Haemoglobin 126 g/l
      White cell count 16.4 x 10^9/L
      INR 1.2

      Cerebro-spinal fluid (CSF) analysis:

      Opening pressure 25 cmH20
      Protein 1.8 g/L
      Glucose 2.6 mmol/l
      White cell count >1000 per mm³
      Gram Stain Gram-positive rods seen
      Colour Cloudy, turbid

      What is the likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Listeria monocytogenes

      Explanation:

      Based on the results of her LP, it appears that this woman has bacterial meningitis. The only gram-positive bacilli present is Listeria monocytogenes, which is a common cause of meningitis in both the very young and the elderly.

      Gram-positive bacilli (or rods) include Actinomyces, Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium, Corynebacterium, Diphtheria, and Listeria monocytogenes.

      Gram-positive cocci include Streptococci and Staphylococci.

      Gram-negative cocci include Neisseria (specifically Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae) and Moraxella.

      Gram-negative bacilli (or rods) include almost every other pathogenic gram-negative bacteria, such as Salmonella spp., Escherichia spp., Pseudomonas, and Bacteroides.

      Understanding Listeria: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria that can cause serious infections in certain individuals. This Gram-positive bacillus has the unique ability to multiply at low temperatures, making it a common contaminant in unpasteurized dairy products. Those at highest risk for infection include the elderly, neonates, and individuals with weakened immune systems, particularly those taking glucocorticoids. Pregnant women are also at increased risk, as Listeria can lead to miscarriage and other complications.

      Symptoms of Listeria infection can vary widely, ranging from gastroenteritis and diarrhea to more serious conditions like bacteraemia, flu-like illness, and central nervous system infections. In severe cases, Listeria can cause meningoencephalitis, ataxia, and seizures. Diagnosis typically involves blood cultures and cerebrospinal fluid analysis, which may reveal pleocytosis, raised protein, and reduced glucose.

      Fortunately, Listeria is sensitive to certain antibiotics, including amoxicillin and ampicillin. In cases of Listeria meningitis, treatment typically involves a combination of IV amoxicillin/ampicillin and gentamicin. Pregnant women who develop Listeria infections may require treatment with amoxicillin, as fetal/neonatal infection can occur both transplacentally and vertically during childbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department for review. She returned from...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department for review. She returned from a trip to Thailand a few days ago, during which she had unprotected sexual intercourse with a number of men. She had an onset of multiple vesicles which has now formed into multiple ulcers and she has developed burning and tingling over her vulva. On examination she is pyrexial 38.2°C, her BP is 120/80 mmHg; pulse is 80/min and regular. There are multiple small, shallow, painful ulcers over the vulva and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. The ulcers are swabbed and she is referred to the GUM clinic.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Genital Herpes: Oral Aciclovir

      Genital herpes is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by the herpes simplex virus. The standard treatment for genital herpes is oral Aciclovir, which is administered at a dose of 200 mg five times daily or 400 mg three times daily for five days. In patients with a history of HIV, a more prolonged course of aciclovir may be required. Anti-viral therapy with Aciclovir reduces the severity and duration of herpes episodes, but does not impact on the overall course of the disease.

      It is important to note that chancroid is a differential diagnosis of genital herpes, but it usually presents with a single deep purulent ulcer, although in less common cases multiple can be present. Lymphadenopathy occurs usually 1 week after the onset of the initial ulcer in such cases.

      Other treatment options such as IM Penicillin, Oral Azithromycin, Topical Aciclovir, and Oral Famciclovir are not recommended for the treatment of primary genital herpes. IM Penicillin is the standard treatment for syphilis, while Azithromycin is an alternative therapy for primary syphilis. Topical Aciclovir is ineffective for the treatment of primary genital herpes versus oral options. Oral Famciclovir is an option for recurrent herpes, but is not usually considered as an initial therapy. Therefore, oral Aciclovir remains the preferred treatment option for genital herpes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (1/5) 20%
Passmed