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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old man is brought to the hospital by his wife due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is brought to the hospital by his wife due to increasing vagueness and a headache the day before. He has a history of Parkinson's disease and has been consistent with his medication. He was born in Russia and has been exposed to tuberculosis in his younger years. He immigrated to the UK twenty years ago and has not traveled abroad in the last year. On examination, he is very sleepy and unable to recall his history. His chest is clear, but he has a temperature of 38.2ºC. His blood work shows elevated CRP and WBC levels. A lumbar puncture reveals mononuclear cells. CT head shows no acute intracranial or extracranial bleed. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculous meningitis

      Correct Answer: Encephalitis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing a patient can be challenging, especially when they are unable to fully participate in the examination. In this case, the patient is experiencing a fever and a clouded consciousness, which could indicate encephalitis. However, other potential diagnoses such as cerebral abscess or Parkinson’s dementia can be ruled out based on the lack of focal neurology or gradual onset. Additionally, a CT scan would typically reveal an old subdural in the case of subdural empyema.

      Encephalitis: Symptoms, Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Encephalitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the brain. It can cause a range of symptoms, including fever, headache, psychiatric symptoms, seizures, and vomiting. In some cases, patients may also experience focal features such as aphasia. While peripheral lesions like cold sores are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis, HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults. The condition typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes.

      To diagnose encephalitis, doctors may perform a cerebrospinal fluid test to look for lymphocytosis and elevated protein levels. They may also use PCR to test for HSV, VZV, and enteroviruses. Neuroimaging can reveal medial temporal and inferior frontal changes, such as petechial hemorrhages, although it may be normal in one-third of patients. MRI is a better option, and EEG can show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.

      The treatment for encephalitis involves starting intravenous aciclovir in all cases of suspected encephalitis. This antiviral medication can help reduce inflammation and prevent further damage to the brain. With prompt treatment, many patients can recover from encephalitis without any long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      91
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman presents with three days of right-sided loin pain and two...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with three days of right-sided loin pain and two episodes of blood in her urine. She feels unwell and lethargic but denies any fevers or urinary dysuria.

      She has a history of two urinary tract infections and is currently being seen by the anticoagulants clinic due to several miscarriages. Her maternal aunt has a history of renal calculi. She is not taking any regular medication at present.

      On examination, she is tender in the right loin only. Her blood pressure is 180/105 mmHg, heart rate 85/min, respiratory rate 22/min, and temperature 37.0ºC.

      Lab results show Na+ 138 mmol/l, K+ 4.2 mmol/l, urea 5.6 mmol/l, creatinine 87 µmol/l, and positive anti-cardiolipin antibodies.

      A urine dip reveals +++ blood and no leukocytes. An ultrasound of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder shows no hydronephrosis or renal lesion.

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal vein thrombosis

      Explanation:

      In cases of antiphospholipid syndrome (APS), the occurrence of loin pain and haematuria is indicative of renal vein thrombosis due to the hypercoagulable state of the patient. The patient in question has not been formally diagnosed with APS, but her positive antibodies and history of multiple miscarriages suggest its presence. While a renal calculus could also cause loin pain, it is less likely to result in frank haematuria and there are no risk factors for it. A urinary tract infection (UTI) is an unlikely cause as there are no lower urinary tract symptoms present.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or secondary to other conditions, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome causes a paradoxical increase in the APTT due to an ex-vivo reaction of lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade.

      Other features of antiphospholipid syndrome include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension. It is associated with other autoimmune disorders and lymphoproliferative disorders, as well as rare cases of phenothiazines. Management of antiphospholipid syndrome is based on EULAR guidelines, with primary thromboprophylaxis and low-dose aspirin being recommended. For secondary thromboprophylaxis, lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is recommended for initial venous thromboembolic events, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and may benefit from the addition of low-dose aspirin and an increased target INR of 3-4. Arterial thrombosis should also be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      66.3
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  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old woman discovered a lump in her neck that was palpable in...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman discovered a lump in her neck that was palpable in the right lobe of her thyroid gland. She was clinically euthyroid.

      TSH 2.8 (NR 0.4-5.0)
      free T4 14.5 (NR 10-25)
      corrected calcium 2.39 (NR 2.2-2.6)

      USS: 1.8 x 1.5cm solid lesion in right lobe of thyroid with microcalcification.

      What should be the next step in managing this case?

      Your Answer: Fine needles aspiration cytology

      Explanation:

      The presence of microcalcifications, a solid lesion, and lack of evidence of a hot lesion (as seen in euthyroid) make this nodule suspicious for malignancy. Therefore, the next step is to perform a fine-needle aspiration (FNA) of the nodule.

      The workup for thyroid nodules typically involves the following steps:

      1. Check the patient’s thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels.

      2. If TSH is suppressed, a thyroid uptake scan is performed. If the scan shows a cold/iso nodule, FNA cytology is recommended. If the scan shows a hot nodule, no FNA is required.

      3. If TSH levels are normal or elevated, a thyroid ultrasound is performed. If suspicious features are present, FNA cytology is recommended.

      4. The FNA cytology results are then graded using the Royal College of Pathologist classification, which ranges from benign to malignant.

      Thyroid cancer rarely causes hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism as it does not usually secrete thyroid hormones. The most common type of thyroid cancer is papillary carcinoma, which is often found in young females and has an excellent prognosis. Follicular carcinoma is less common, while medullary carcinoma is a cancer of the parafollicular cells that secrete calcitonin and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2. Anaplastic carcinoma is rare and not responsive to treatment, causing pressure symptoms. Lymphoma is also rare and associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

      Management of papillary and follicular cancer involves a total thyroidectomy followed by radioiodine to kill residual cells. Yearly thyroglobulin levels are monitored to detect early recurrent disease. Papillary carcinoma usually contains a mixture of papillary and colloidal filled follicles, while follicular adenoma presents as a solitary thyroid nodule and malignancy can only be excluded on formal histological assessment. Follicular carcinoma may appear macroscopically encapsulated, but microscopically capsular invasion is seen. Medullary carcinoma is associated with raised serum calcitonin levels and familial genetic disease in up to 20% of cases. Anaplastic carcinoma is most common in elderly females and is treated by resection where possible, with palliation achieved through isthmusectomy and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy is ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      52.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 44-year-old man presents to his GP with an 8-week history of decreased...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man presents to his GP with an 8-week history of decreased libido, which is causing him distress. He has no recent illness or weight changes and denies any headaches or visual symptoms. On examination, his vital signs are normal, and there are no signs of liver disease. His testicular exam is unremarkable, and there is no scrotal swelling. However, he has a milky discharge from both nipples. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide can lead to galactorrhoea, which is characterized by reduced libido and increased prolactin levels. This is because dopamine inhibits the release of prolactin, and metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist. Other drugs mentioned in the question, such as carbamazepine and lithium, do not cause galactorrhoea. Ropinirole, on the other hand, is a dopamine agonist that can help control galactorrhoea.

      Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea

      Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. It is crucial to distinguish between the causes of galactorrhoea and gynaecomastia, which are both related to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.

      Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism.

      Certain drugs can also increase prolactin levels, such as metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, and haloperidol. Although rare, some SSRIs and opioids may also cause raised prolactin levels.

      In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old woman has approached the infectious diseases team seeking advice on antibiotic...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman has approached the infectious diseases team seeking advice on antibiotic prophylaxis for Lyme disease. She plans to go on a two-week walking holiday in the Lake District National Park in Cumbria, UK, and is concerned about the risk of tick bites. Her younger sister had suffered serious neurological complications from Lyme disease after a tick bite in the Scottish Highlands, which has made her anxious about contracting the disease. She wants to receive prophylactic antibiotics against Borrelia species during her trip.

      The patient has a medical history of breast cancer, which was treated with surgery and chemotherapy seven years ago. She has been cleared by her oncologists and discharged from follow-up. She also has long-standing symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome and takes hyoscine butylbromide for treatment. She is allergic to penicillin-based antibiotics, having experienced a protracted episode of diarrhea after a previous course of penicillin V. She is a full-time music teacher, married with three teenage children, and consumes approximately 10 units of alcohol per week.

      What is the appropriate management for this patient's request for antibiotic prophylaxis against Lyme disease during her walking holiday?

      Your Answer: Prescribe doxycycline for immediate use if she receives a tick bite

      Correct Answer: Advice on the prevention and management of tick bites only

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic antibiotics are not necessary for Lyme disease in patients who have been bitten by a tick but show no symptoms. Instead, preventative measures such as wearing protective clothing and using insect repellent should be taken. If symptoms such as erythema migrans appear, a 14-21 day course of doxycycline or amoxicillin should be administered immediately. Asymptomatic individuals with a history of tick bites generally do not require treatment or testing, unless they are immunosuppressed or have been bitten in high-risk areas of the USA.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      318.4
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  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing a fall at...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing a fall at home. He reports a history of episodic lightheadedness and a few falls over the past several months. His medical history includes coronary artery disease, ischaemic cardiomyopathy, chronic kidney disease stage 3, benign prostatic hyperplasia, hypertension, and peripheral arterial disease. He is currently taking aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol, tamsulosin, losartan, and gabapentin.

      During the physical examination, the patient appears well and has a heart rate of 78 beats/min with a regular rhythm. His blood pressure is 119/89 mmHg, his mucous membranes are moist, and his heart sounds are normal with a soft ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal border. His chest is clear to auscultation, his abdomen is soft and non-tender, and he has trace peripheral oedema.

      What would be the most appropriate next steps in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Check orthostatic vitals including heart rate and blood pressure at the bedside

      Explanation:

      When an elderly male patient presents with presyncope/syncope and is taking alpha-blockers for BPH, the first step in evaluation should be to assess for orthostatic hypotension. In this case, the patient has a history of presyncope and falls, along with comorbidities such as ischaemic heart disease and cardiomyopathy, and is taking medications that may contribute to hypotension. To clarify the diagnosis, checking the patient’s orthostatic vital signs at the bedside would be the next best step. If orthostatic hypotension is confirmed, discontinuing tamsulosin would be appropriate while continuing bisoprolol for his heart conditions. While a murmur may suggest aortic stenosis, checking orthostatic vitals is a simpler and easier first step. Similarly, administering IV fluids would not be necessary in this patient without signs of hypotension or dehydration. It is best practice to start with simpler tests before proceeding to more sophisticated ones.

      Understanding Orthostatic Hypotension

      Orthostatic hypotension is a condition that is more commonly observed in older individuals and those who have neurodegenerative diseases such as Parkinson’s, diabetes, or hypertension. Additionally, certain medications such as alpha-blockers used for benign prostatic hyperplasia can also cause this condition. The primary feature of orthostatic hypotension is a sudden drop in blood pressure, usually more than 20/10 mm Hg, within three minutes of standing. This can lead to presyncope or syncope, which is a feeling of lightheadedness or fainting.

      Fortunately, there are treatment options available for orthostatic hypotension. Midodrine and fludrocortisone are two medications that can be used to manage this condition. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for orthostatic hypotension, individuals can take steps to manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      57.5
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  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old man presents to the hospital with sudden onset quadriparesis and complete...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents to the hospital with sudden onset quadriparesis and complete loss of speech. His partner reports that he had been feeling well prior to the event and had not complained of any symptoms. The patient has a history of frequent cocaine use and occasional heroin injection. On admission, he has a Glasgow coma scale of 3/15 and pinpoint pupils with oculoparesis. Neurological examination reveals generalised hypertonia and hyperreflexia with bilateral extensor plantar responses. He is intubated and taken to intensive care. After four weeks of extensive investigation, he regains consciousness but exhibits decerebrate rigidity and is unable to speak or make any purposeful response. What is the most likely cause of his condition?

      Your Answer: Supratentorial mass with secondary brainstem compression

      Correct Answer: Pontine haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Locked-In Syndrome Caused by Pontine Hemorrhage in Cocaine Abuser

      This patient is experiencing locked-in syndrome, which is likely caused by a pontine hemorrhage. The patient’s history of cocaine abuse, pinpoint pupils, sudden onset coma, and quadriparesis all point to a brainstem lesion in the pons. In locked-in syndrome, the cerebral cortex remains intact, allowing the patient to be aware of their surroundings but unable to communicate verbally, only through eye closure or vertical eye movements.

      If the patient had a supratentorial mass with brainstem compression, they would experience a crossed hemiparesis and third nerve palsy. A venous sinus thrombosis could cause coma with or without focal signs and seizures, but it would not explain the pupillary changes seen in this patient. Meningoencephalitis would present as coma with meningism and is unlikely in this patient due to the presence of focal signs. An opiate overdose could explain the pinpoint pupils, but it would not account for the patient’s focal neurological signs.

      Overall, this patient’s locked-in syndrome is most likely caused by a pontine hemorrhage, which is likely related to their history of cocaine abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      317.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of haemoptysis, fever, and joint pains. He has a medical history of hypertension and chronic sinusitis, and takes amlodipine. He smokes 10 cigarettes daily and drinks wine 1-2x/week. He recently returned from a trip to Goa.

      On examination, his heart rate is 101 beats per minute, blood pressure is 167/94 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 94%, respiratory rate is 21/minute, and temperature is 37.9ºC. Chest auscultation reveals scattered crackles and decreased air entry at the right base. There is mild tenderness and swelling at the wrists bilaterally. Abdominal examination is normal, and there is no peripheral oedema.

      Urinalysis shows protein +++ and blood +++ but is negative for leucocytes, nitrites, and glucose. Blood tests reveal a low Hb level, elevated creatinine, and a high CRP level. A chest x-ray shows patchy airspace opacification in the lung fields bilaterally.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      Consider ANCA associated vasculitis if the patient presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, joint pain, and systemic features. In this case, the most likely diagnosis is granulomatosis with polyangiitis due to the patient’s haemoptysis, fever, polyarthralgia, potential glomerulonephritis, acute kidney injury, and pulmonary haemorrhage, with a background of sinusitis.

      Goodpasture’s syndrome is less likely as it typically presents with pulmonary-renal syndrome without joint and sinus involvement.

      Churg-Strauss syndrome is also less likely as the eosinophil count is normal, which essentially rules out this diagnosis. However, it can still cause a pulmonary-renal syndrome.

      ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Types, Symptoms, and Management

      ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA). These include granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome), and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with symptoms such as renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, vasculitic rash, and ear, nose, and throat symptoms.

      To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis for haematuria and proteinuria, blood tests for renal impairment, full blood count, CRP, and ANCA testing. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with cANCA being associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis and pANCA being associated with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis and other conditions.

      Once suspected, ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams to allow an exact diagnosis to be made. The mainstay of management is immunosuppressive therapy. Kidney or lung biopsies may be taken to aid the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      68.8
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening shortness of breath,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening shortness of breath, heavy chest pain and syncope over the last week. He is currently undergoing adjunct chemotherapy for a non-resectable soft tissue sarcoma with known metastasis in his thorax and mediastinum.

      Hb 95 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160) Platelets 120 * 109/L (150 - 400) WBC 11.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Na+ 133 mmol/L (135 - 145) K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0) Bicarbonate 20 mmol/L (22 - 29) Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0) Creatinine 140 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      On physical examination, his JVP is raised at 6cm, there are no precordial thrills, and he has quiet S1 and S2.

      Observations show: Heart rate of 120/min and regular Blood pressure 90/50 mmHg Respiratory rate 30/min Temperature 36.7ºC AVPU - A

      What is the specific ECG finding associated with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sinus tachycardia

      Correct Answer: Electrical alternans

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cardiac Tamponade

      Cardiac tamponade is a medical condition where there is an accumulation of pericardial fluid under pressure. This condition is characterized by several classical features, including hypotension, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds, which are collectively known as Beck’s triad. Other symptoms of cardiac tamponade include dyspnea, tachycardia, an absent Y descent on the JVP, pulsus paradoxus, and Kussmaul’s sign. An ECG can also show electrical alternans.

      It is important to differentiate cardiac tamponade from constrictive pericarditis, which has different characteristic features such as an absent Y descent, X + Y present JVP, and the absence of pulsus paradoxus. Constrictive pericarditis is also characterized by pericardial calcification on CXR.

      The management of cardiac tamponade involves urgent pericardiocentesis. It is crucial to recognize the symptoms of cardiac tamponade and seek medical attention immediately to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      501.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 23-year-old man, who is typically healthy, has been referred to the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man, who is typically healthy, has been referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He is experiencing blurred vision and headaches that have persisted for the past two days. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals that he has not been urinating much and has noticed difficulty breathing during physical activity. Although he did fall and injure his leg three days ago, he has not left his house since then and denies any chest pain.

      During the examination, the patient's pulse is regular at 110/minute, and his blood pressure is high at 200/120 mmHg. He has a JVP of 5cm, and his heart sounds are normal. Upon auscultation of his chest, fine basal crepitations are heard, and his respiratory rate is 22/minute with a sighing pattern. He has oedema on his right leg and side, but his abdomen is soft and non-tender with no masses. Fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities.

      After inserting a urinary catheter, it is discovered that the patient has a residual volume of 50 mls of dark urine. Urinalysis shows blood+++ and protein++. Microscopy reveals no organisms, but scanty hyaline casts with fewer than 10 red blood cells per high-powered field.

      Further investigations reveal abnormal levels in the patient's serum sodium, potassium, urea, creatinine, calcium, phosphate, and bicarbonate. Specifically, his serum potassium level is 6.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), which requires immediate treatment.

      What is the appropriate treatment to correct the patient's high potassium levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous insulin + dextrose + salbutamol

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Rhabdomyolysis

      Rhabdomyolysis is a medical condition that requires immediate treatment. The first step is to correct the patient’s potassium levels, followed by addressing fluid balance and acidosis. The preferred initial treatment is intravenous insulin and dextrose. If the patient’s urine output cannot be improved and potassium levels remain elevated, dialysis may be necessary. While calcium gluconate can stabilize the myocardium, it does not directly affect potassium levels. It is important to note that prompt treatment is crucial in managing rhabdomyolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (1/2) 50%
Rheumatology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Renal Medicine (1/1) 100%
Passmed