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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least probable cause of hypercalcemia?
Your Answer: Thiazides
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Patients with coeliac disease are prone to developing hypocalcaemia as a result of calcium malabsorption by the bowel.
Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The two most common causes of hypercalcaemia are primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients, while malignancy is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial in diagnosing hypercalcaemia.
Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. Paget’s disease of the bone usually results in normal calcium levels, but hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization.
In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. It is essential to identify the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old African American male is being consented for an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). He is very anxious about the procedure and requests for more information about the common complications of ERCP. He is concerned about peritonitis, which usually occurs secondary to a perforation of the bowel - a rare complication of ERCP. You reassure him that perforation of the bowel, although a very serious complication, is uncommon. However, they are other more common complications of ERCP that he should be aware of.
What is the most common complication of ERCP?Your Answer: Infection
Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:The most frequent complication of ERCP is acute pancreatitis, which occurs when the X-ray contrast material or cannula irritates the pancreatic duct. While other complications may arise from ERCP, they are not as prevalent as acute pancreatitis.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 3
Correct
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After a recent renal transplant, Sarah is required to take mycophenolate mofetil alongside some other medications to prevent transplant rejection. Her doctor explains that mycophenolate mofetil is an immunosuppressant that may increase her risk of infection. For this reason, Sarah must seek advice from a doctor if she ever develops a fever or sore throat.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?Your Answer: Inhibition of inosine-5'-monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH)
Explanation:Mycophenolate Mofetil: How it Works as an Immunosuppressant
Mycophenolate mofetil is a medication that is often prescribed to prevent the rejection of organ transplants. It works by inhibiting the activity of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, an enzyme that is necessary for the synthesis of purines. Since T and B cells rely heavily on this pathway for their proliferation, mycophenolate mofetil can effectively reduce the activity of these immune cells.
In simpler terms, mycophenolate mofetil works by blocking a key enzyme that immune cells need to grow and multiply. By doing so, it can help prevent the body from attacking and rejecting a transplanted organ. This medication is often used in combination with other immunosuppressants to achieve the best possible outcomes for transplant patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female patient who underwent tubal ligation presents to her general practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain, flank pain, visible blood in her urine, and involuntary urinary leakage. She has a history of lithotripsy for renal calculi one year ago. A CT scan of her abdomen and pelvis reveals an intra-abdominal fluid collection. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Uterine prolapse
Correct Answer: Ureter injury
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and CT findings suggest that they may have suffered iatrogenic damage to their ureters, which are retroperitoneal organs. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the retroperitoneal space, causing haematuria, abdominal/flank pain, and incontinence. While calculi and lithotripsy can damage the ureter mucosal lining, they are unlikely to have caused fluid accumulation in the intra-abdominal cavity, especially since the lithotripsy was performed a year ago. Pelvic inflammatory disease and urinary tract infections can cause similar symptoms, but their CT findings would be different.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male presents with painless frank haematuria. Clinical examination is unremarkable. Routine blood tests reveal a haemoglobin of 190 g/L but are otherwise normal. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the prostate
Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the kidney
Explanation:Renal cell carcinoma is often associated with polycythaemia, while Wilms tumours are predominantly found in children.
Causes of Haematuria
Haematuria, or blood in the urine, can be caused by a variety of factors. Trauma to the renal tract, such as blunt or penetrating injuries, can result in haematuria. Infections, including tuberculosis, can also cause blood in the urine. Malignancies, such as renal cell carcinoma or urothelial malignancies, can lead to painless or painful haematuria. Renal diseases like glomerulonephritis, structural abnormalities like cystic renal lesions, and coagulopathies can also cause haematuria.
Certain drugs, such as aminoglycosides and chemotherapy, can cause tubular necrosis or interstitial nephritis, leading to haematuria. Anticoagulants can also cause bleeding of underlying lesions. Benign causes of haematuria include exercise and gynaecological conditions like endometriosis.
Iatrogenic causes of haematuria include catheterisation and radiotherapy, which can lead to cystitis, severe haemorrhage, and bladder necrosis. Pseudohaematuria, or the presence of substances that mimic blood in the urine, can also cause false positives for haematuria. It is important to identify the underlying cause of haematuria in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 42-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of a tickly cough that has been bothering him for the past two weeks. He reports no other symptoms and his respiratory exam appears normal. The patient recently began taking an ACE inhibitor, which you suspect may be the cause of his cough. You decide to switch him to an angiotensin receptor blocker instead. Many antihypertensive medications target components of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Which enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of angiotensinogen to produce the hormone angiotensin I, an important player in this system?
Your Answer: Renin
Explanation:The kidneys produce renin in their juxtaglomerular cells, which plays a crucial role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. This enzyme converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I through a hydrolysis reaction. More information on this system can be found below.
Another important enzyme in this system is angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE), which is primarily located in the lungs but can also be found in smaller quantities in endothelial cells of the vasculature and kidney epithelial cells. ACE converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II and is the target of ACE inhibitors.
Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that facilitates the reaction between water and carbon dioxide to form bicarbonate, and it can also catalyze the reverse reaction. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors target this enzyme.
Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) is involved in the synthesis of prostaglandins, and NSAIDs are believed to work by inhibiting both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman is recuperating in the ICU after undergoing a Whipples surgery. She has a central venous line inserted. What will cause the 'y' descent on the waveform trace?
Your Answer: Ventricular contraction
Correct Answer: Emptying of the right atrium
Explanation:The JVP waveform consists of 3 upward deflections and 2 downward deflections. The upward deflections include the a wave, which represents atrial contraction, the c wave, which represents ventricular contraction, and the v wave, which represents atrial venous filling. The downward deflections include the x wave, which occurs when the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves down, and the y wave, which represents ventricular filling. The y descent in the waveform indicates the emptying of the atrium and the filling of the right ventricle.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor at 8 weeks of pregnancy complaining of constant nausea and vomiting. What signs should the doctor look for to rule out any underlying conditions other than hyperemesis gravidarum?
Your Answer: Hyperolfaction
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum is a condition that causes severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss. Abdominal pain is not a common symptom and may indicate another gastrointestinal disorder.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.
Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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At what level of protein structure do the interactions between the R groups of amino acids primarily contribute to the protein structure of collagen?
Your Answer: Secondary structure
Correct Answer: Tertiary structure
Explanation:The tertiary structure of a protein is determined by the interactions between the R groups of its constituent amino acids. This level of protein structure is the final 3D arrangement and is one of four levels, including primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary. Two main types of proteins with 3D structures are globular and fibrous, with examples including enzymes and antibodies for globular proteins and collagen and keratin for fibrous proteins.
Proteins and Peptides: Structure and Function
Proteins and peptides are essential molecules in the human body, made up of 20 amino acids bonded together by peptide bonds. Peptides are short chains of amino acids, while proteins are longer chains of 100 or more amino acids with more complex structures. The process of protein synthesis begins in the nucleus, where DNA is transcribed into messenger RNA, which is then translated by transfer RNA on cell ribosomes. The resulting protein folds into its destined structure, with primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary modifications.
The primary structure of a protein refers to the order of amino acids in the basic chain, while the secondary structure refers to the spatial arrangement of the primary structure. The tertiary structure is formed from structural changes and influences the protein’s role, while the quaternary structure is formed from multiple proteins to make a functional protein. The function of a protein is governed by its structure, with globular proteins having a wide range of roles, including enzymes.
Enzymes have an active site with a structure specific for one substrate, and when substrate and enzyme meet, they temporarily bond to form the enzyme-substrate complex. The substrate undergoes a biochemical change facilitated by the enzyme, resulting in the breakdown of the complex. Proteins also have structural roles, forming structures within the body such as keratin and collagen, and key roles in cell signaling and homeostasis, acting as mediators of transmembrane transport, cell receptors, and cell signaling. The endocrine system is an example of this, where hormones bind to cell surface receptors, triggering a cascade of protein interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of headaches and abdominal pain for the past few weeks. She reports experiencing blurry vision over the last week. During the examination, the physician observes a slight yellow tint to the patient's sclera and an elevated blood pressure of 170/106 mmHg. The urine dip reveals proteinuria. Based on these symptoms, what is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia
Correct Answer: HELLP syndrome
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms that are indicative of pre-eclampsia, such as headache, abdominal pain, and blurred vision. However, the presence of jaundice suggests that the patient is actually suffering from HELLP syndrome, which is a complication during pregnancy that involves haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. This condition often occurs in conjunction with pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia.
Pre-eclampsia is a pregnancy-related disorder that is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to another organ system, typically the kidneys, which is evidenced by proteinuria. This condition typically develops after the 20th week of pregnancy in women who previously had normal blood pressure.
Jaundice During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.
Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 11
Correct
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You are requested to assess a patient in the emergency department who has experienced abrupt onset chest pain, dyspnoea and diaphoresis. After reviewing the patient's ECG, you identify changes within a specific section and promptly arrange for transfer to the catheterisation laboratory.
What is the underlying process indicated by the affected section of the ECG?Your Answer: Period between ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation
Explanation:The ST segment on an ECG indicates the period when the entire ventricle is depolarized. In the case of a suspected myocardial infarction, it is crucial to examine the ST segment for any elevation or depression, which can indicate a STEMI or NSTEMI, respectively.
The ECG does not have a specific section that corresponds to the firing of the sino-atrial node, which triggers atrial depolarization (represented by the p wave). The T wave represents ventricular repolarization.
In atrial fibrillation, the p wave is absent or abnormal due to the irregular firing of the atria.
Understanding the Normal ECG
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.
The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.
Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A clinical trial was conducted to evaluate the impact of aspirin on mortality in patients who underwent coronary bypass surgery. The study was double-blinded and randomized. The results showed that administering aspirin within 48 hours of the surgery led to a 70% decrease in overall mortality. The p-value of the study was found to be very low (0.01).
What conclusions can be drawn from the information provided about the study?Your Answer: The power of the study is low
Correct Answer: Chances of type I error are low
Explanation:In hypothesis testing, a type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true. This error is denoted by alpha (α) and is typically set at 0.05. By setting a low alpha level, researchers can minimize the chance of accepting a false alternative hypothesis.
On the other hand, a type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted even though it is false. This error is denoted by beta (β) and is determined by both sample size and alpha. In the given scenario, the null hypothesis was not accepted, so a type II error did not occur.
The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. It is inversely proportional to the probability of type II error (Power = 1 – β) and is dependent on sample size. However, the information provided in the vignette is insufficient to accurately determine the power of the study.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures separates the ulnar artery from the median nerve?
Your Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris
Correct Answer: Pronator teres
Explanation:It is located deeply to the pronator teres muscle, which creates a separation from the median nerve.
Anatomy of the Ulnar Artery
The ulnar artery is a blood vessel that begins in the middle of the antecubital fossa and runs obliquely downward towards the ulnar side of the forearm. It then follows the ulnar border to the wrist, where it crosses over the flexor retinaculum and divides into the superficial and deep volar arches. The artery is deep to the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, and palmaris longus muscles, and lies on the brachialis and flexor digitorum profundus muscles. At the wrist, it is superficial to the flexor retinaculum.
The ulnar nerve runs medially to the lower two-thirds of the artery, while the median nerve is in relation with the medial side of the artery for about 2.5 cm before crossing over it. The artery also gives off a branch called the anterior interosseous artery.
Understanding the anatomy of the ulnar artery is important for medical professionals, as it plays a crucial role in the blood supply to the forearm and hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 14
Incorrect
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As a medical student observing a metabolic medicine clinic, a 40-year-old woman comes in seeking answers about her obesity. With a BMI of 46 kg/m² and a family history of obesity, she is referred for further investigation. After genetic sequencing, it is discovered that she has a mutation in a hormone-regulating gene that is secreted by adipose tissue.
Which hormone is likely impacted by this genetic mutation?Your Answer: Melatonin
Correct Answer: Leptin
Explanation:Leptin is produced by adipose tissue and is responsible for regulating feelings of fullness and satiety. Mutations in the leptin gene can lead to severe obesity in infants due to increased appetite and reduced feelings of satiety. Ghrelin, on the other hand, is a hormone released by the stomach that stimulates hunger. Melatonin, produced by the pineal gland, regulates the sleep-wake cycle and circadian rhythms but is not known to play a significant role in obesity. Obestatin, released by stomach epithelial cells, has a controversial role in obesity.
The Physiology of Obesity: Leptin and Ghrelin
Leptin is a hormone produced by adipose tissue that plays a crucial role in regulating body weight. It acts on the hypothalamus, specifically on the satiety centers, to decrease appetite and induce feelings of fullness. In cases of obesity, where there is an excess of adipose tissue, leptin levels are high. Leptin also stimulates the release of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which further contribute to the regulation of appetite. On the other hand, low levels of leptin stimulate the release of neuropeptide Y (NPY), which increases appetite.
Ghrelin, on the other hand, is a hormone that stimulates hunger. It is mainly produced by the P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas. Ghrelin levels increase before meals, signaling the body to prepare for food intake, and decrease after meals, indicating that the body has received enough nutrients.
In summary, the balance between leptin and ghrelin plays a crucial role in regulating appetite and body weight. In cases of obesity, there is an imbalance in this system, with high levels of leptin and potentially disrupted ghrelin signaling, leading to increased appetite and weight gain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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How would you define vigorous exercise?
Your Answer: Exercising at 100% of maximal individual capacity
Correct Answer: Exercising at 80% of maximal individual capacity
Explanation:Exercise Intensity Levels
Exercise intensity can be determined by comparing it to your maximum capacity or your typical resting state of activity. It is important to note that what may be considered moderate or intense for one person may differ for another based on their fitness and strength levels. Mild intensity exercise involves working at less than 3 times the activity at rest and 20-50% of your maximum capacity. Moderate intensity exercise involves working at 3-5.9 times the activity at rest or 50-60% of your maximum capacity. Examples of moderate intensity exercises include cycling on flat ground, walking fast, hiking, volleyball, and basketball. Vigorous intensity exercise involves working at 6-7 times the activity at rest or 70-80% of your maximum capacity. Examples of vigorous intensity exercises include running, swimming fast, cycling fast or uphill, hockey, martial arts, and aerobics. exercise intensity levels can help you tailor your workouts to your individual needs and goals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A new clinical trial is currently being designed by one of the research students in the hospital. As part of this design, the student wants to calculate the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is in fact false. They understand that the calculation of this will improve the reliability of the results.
Which of the following best describes the calculation above if the research student wants to calculate the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis?Your Answer: Type II statistical error
Correct Answer: Statistical power
Explanation:The probability of a type II error is inversely related to power, which is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. Type I errors, or false positives, occur when the null hypothesis is wrongly rejected, while type II errors, or false negatives, occur when the null hypothesis is wrongly accepted. Hypothesis testing involves using statistical tests to determine whether the null hypothesis should be accepted or rejected. The standard error is a statistical measure of the accuracy of a sample distribution in representing a population, calculated using the standard deviation.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are a doctor in the infectious diseases clinic.
Your next patient is a 42-year-old man who was diagnosed with HIV-1 18 months ago. He was initially started on a combination therapy of two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors and a non-nucleoside transcriptase inhibitor. The patient has responded well to the initial treatment with an undetectable viral load and high CD4 count.
The decision has been made to initiate raltegravir to sustain viral suppression.
What is the mode of action of raltegravir?Your Answer: Protease inhibitor
Correct Answer: Integrase inhibitor
Explanation:Integrase inhibitors, also known as ‘gravirs’, are a type of medication that blocks the enzyme responsible for inserting the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell. Raltegravir is an example of an integrase inhibitor that works by inhibiting integrase, an essential enzyme for the viral genome to be integrated into the host DNA. These medications are typically used to maintain long-term viral suppression and prevent the virus from adapting. They may also be used as salvage therapy for patients who have developed resistance to other antiretroviral treatments.
Enfuvirtide is a cell entry inhibitor that is often prescribed for patients with treatment-resistant HIV and persistent high viral load and/or low CD4 count.
The British HIV Association recommends changing to another NNRTI, such as efavirenz, only in cases of drug resistance, interactions, or severe side effects. Similarly, NRTIs like emtricitabine should only be altered in cases of resistance, interactions, or side effects.
Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.
Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 18
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a wrist injury sustained from a fall. Upon examination, the physician notes tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, as well as localized swelling and bruising. The physician suspects a fracture in one of the carpal bones and orders a series of plain x-rays to confirm the diagnosis. The physician is concerned about the potential consequences of leaving this fracture untreated due to its precarious blood supply.
Which blood supply could be compromised as a result of this injury?Your Answer: Retrograde blood supply to the scaphoid through the tubercle
Explanation:Fractures to the scaphoid bone can result in avascular necrosis due to its sole blood supply through the tubercle. The healing process may be complicated by non-union as well. It is important to note that blood supply to the scaphoid is not anterograde and pain in the anatomical snuffbox is indicative of a scaphoid fracture, not a trapezium fracture. Additionally, the scaphoid bone receives blood supply through the tubercle, not the lunate surface.
The scaphoid bone has various articular surfaces for different bones in the wrist. It has a concave surface for the head of the capitate and a crescentic surface for the lunate. The proximal end has a wide convex surface for the radius, while the distal end has a tubercle that can be felt. The remaining articular surface faces laterally and is associated with the trapezium and trapezoid bones. The narrow strip between the radial and trapezial surfaces and the tubercle gives rise to the radial collateral carpal ligament. The tubercle also receives part of the flexor retinaculum and is the only part of the scaphoid bone that allows for the entry of blood vessels. However, this area is commonly fractured and can lead to avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Correct
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A 2-year-old toddler presents to the emergency department with a low-grade fever and difficulty breathing. The mother reports that the toddler has had some nasal discharge for the past two days and started coughing a few hours ago. The toddler has no significant medical history, being born full term at 39 weeks via normal vaginal delivery. The toddler is developmentally normal and received all vaccinations according to the immunisation schedule. During examination, the toddler appears lethargic and has a barking cough. Auscultation reveals an inspiratory stridor bilaterally, with no crepitations or wheezes heard. Air entry is equal bilaterally. The toddler's temperature is 38.3ºC, oxygen saturation is 93% based on pulse oximetry, blood pressure is 98/55 mmHg (normal range: SBP 72-140 mmHg; DBP 37-56 mmHg), and the heart rate is 120 beats per minute (normal range: 100-190 beats per minute).
What is the most likely association with this toddler's condition?Your Answer: Steeple sign
Explanation:The infant is displaying symptoms of croup, including a barking cough and inspiratory stridor, which is typical for their age. While chest radiographs are not typically used to diagnose croup, if a neck radiograph is taken, the steeple sign may be present, indicating subglottic narrowing due to inflammation of the larynx and trachea.
The thumb sign, which is indicative of an oedematous epiglottis, is not present in this case, and the infant does not display symptoms of epiglottitis, such as drooling or dysphagia. Additionally, the infant is not in the typical age range for epiglottitis.
The sail sign, which suggests left lower lobe collapse, is not present as the infant has equal bilateral air entry. The coffee bean sign, which is suggestive of sigmoid volvulus, is also not relevant as it typically presents with abdominal pain and distension, rather than respiratory symptoms, and is uncommon in children.
Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 20
Correct
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What is the definition of liver cirrhosis?
Your Answer: Nodules, fibrosis, and architectural disruption
Explanation:Cirrhosis: End-Stage Fibrosis of the Liver
Cirrhosis is a condition that describes the changes that occur in the liver when it reaches end-stage fibrosis. This happens due to chronic inflammation that leads to the death of liver cells or hepatocyte apoptosis. Initially, the dead cells are replaced by new ones through hepatocyte regeneration. However, in cases of chronic inflammation, activated stellate cells deposit fibrous tissue in the liver, leading to the formation of large bands that stretch between portal tracts. These tracts are also expanded with fibrosis, and areas of hepatocyte regeneration occur, forming nodules. Unfortunately, at this stage, the normal relationship between hepatocytes, portal triads, and central vein is lost, leading to poor drainage of portal blood through the liver. This results in increased back-pressure and portal hypertension. It is important to note that these features alone do not necessarily indicate cirrhosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Histology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old patient is being evaluated after being admitted for treatment of a persistent Clostridium difficile infection. The patient had received treatment for a previous infection three weeks ago, but the symptoms did not subside, and she continued to experience diarrhoea. The patient was hospitalized three days ago due to a life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection.
The patient has been receiving oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole for the past few days, but there has been no improvement in her symptoms. What would be the venous blood gas results in this case?Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis + hyperkalaemia
Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis + hypokalaemia
Explanation:If a patient experiences prolonged diarrhoea, they may develop metabolic acidosis and hypokalaemia. This is likely the case for a patient with a history of prolonged Clostridium difficile infection, as the loss of bicarbonate ions from the GI tract during diarrhoea can lead to metabolic acidosis. Prolonged diarrhoea can also result in hypokalaemia due to the direct loss of potassium from the GI tract, which the body may be unable to compensate for. Therefore, metabolic acidosis and hypokalaemia are the expected outcomes in this scenario.
Understanding Metabolic Acidosis
Metabolic acidosis is a condition that can be classified based on the anion gap, which is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question provides the chloride level, it may be an indication to calculate the anion gap.
Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. It can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs like acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.
Lactic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis that is caused by high lactate levels. It can be further classified into two types: lactic acidosis type A, which is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, and lactic acidosis type B, which is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types and causes of metabolic acidosis is important in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female with a three year history of type 1 diabetes complains of sudden confusion and excessive sweating. Upon examination, her pulse is 105 bpm, respiratory rate is 16/min, and she appears disoriented. What would be the most suitable initial test to perform for this patient?
Your Answer: Arterial blood gases
Correct Answer: Plasma glucose concentration
Explanation:Differentiating Hypoglycaemia from Diabetic Ketoacidosis in Critically Ill Patients
When assessing a critically ill patient, it is important not to forget the E in the ABCDE algorithm. In the case of a woman presenting acutely, with a normal respiratory rate, it is more likely that she is hypoglycaemic rather than experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). To confirm this, it is essential to check her glucose or blood sugar levels and then administer glucose as necessary.
It is crucial to differentiate between hypoglycaemia and DKA as the treatment for each condition is vastly different. While hypoglycaemia requires immediate administration of glucose, DKA requires insulin therapy and fluid replacement. Therefore, a correct diagnosis is essential to ensure the patient receives the appropriate treatment promptly.
In conclusion, when assessing a critically ill patient, it is vital to consider all aspects of the ABCDE algorithm, including the often-overlooked E for exposure. In cases where a patient presents acutely, with a normal respiratory rate, it is essential to differentiate between hypoglycaemia and DKA by checking glucose levels and administering glucose or insulin therapy accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of these openings allows the facial nerve to enter the temporal bone?
Your Answer: Jugular foramen
Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus
Explanation:The facial nerve passes through the internal acoustic meatus of the temporal bone and emerges from the stylomastoid foramen.
The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.
The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling increasingly unwell for the past few weeks. He reports experiencing heavy night sweats, fatigue, and shortness of breath. Upon further questioning, he reveals a history of intravenous drug use for many years and has been using methadone exclusively for the last 2 months. During the physical examination, the GP observes splinter haemorrhages. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Candida albicans
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms that are indicative of infective endocarditis and has a past of using intravenous drugs. Infective endocarditis can be caused by various factors, but in developed countries, S. aureus is the most prevalent cause. This is especially true for individuals who use intravenous drugs, as in this case.
Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis
Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.
The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are commonly found in indwelling lines and are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition.
Culture negative causes of infective endocarditis include prior antibiotic therapy, Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella). It is important to note that systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy, specifically marantic endocarditis, can also cause non-infective endocarditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is brought to the child assessment unit by her father. She has been experiencing lower leg pain for over 3 weeks. He reports that she has been tripping more than usual but attributes it to her new carpet. Lately, she has been having difficulty getting out of bed and sometimes complains of feeling tired. The child appears to be in good health but has a runny nose. During the examination, she falls off the bed and lands on the floor. She uses her arms and legs to help herself up as she tries to stand.
What is the observed sign in this scenario?Your Answer: Idiopathic toe walking
Correct Answer: Gower's sign
Explanation:Children with Duchenne muscular dystrophy typically exhibit a positive Gower’s sign, which is due to weakness in the proximal muscles, particularly those in the lower limbs. This sign has a moderate sensitivity and high specificity. While idiopathic toe walking may also be present in DMD, it is more commonly associated with cerebral palsy and does not match the description in the given scenario. The Allis sign, also known as Galeazzi’s test, is utilized to evaluate for hip dislocation, primarily in cases of developmental dysplasia of the hip. Tinel’s sign is a method used to identify irritated nerves by tapping lightly over the nerve to elicit a sensation of tingling or ‘pins and needles’ in the nerve’s distribution.
Dystrophinopathies are a group of genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. These disorders are caused by mutations in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome at position Xp21. Dystrophin is a protein that is part of a larger membrane-associated complex in muscle cells. It connects the muscle membrane to actin, which is a component of the muscle cytoskeleton.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a severe form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a frameshift mutation in the dystrophin gene. This mutation results in the loss of one or both binding sites, leading to progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Children with Duchenne muscular dystrophy may also exhibit calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when they use their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.
In contrast, Becker muscular dystrophy is a milder form of dystrophinopathy that typically develops after the age of 10 years. It is caused by a non-frameshift insertion in the dystrophin gene, which preserves both binding sites. Intellectual impairment is much less common in individuals with Becker muscular dystrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 26
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A 26-year-old man collapses during a game of cricket. He has previously experienced chest pain and shortness of breath while running, which subsides on rest. Upon examination, he is found to have an ejection systolic murmur that intensifies with Valsalva maneuvers and diminishes with squatting. His echocardiogram reveals mitral regurgitation, asymmetric hypertrophy, and systolic anterior motion of the anterior mitral valve leaflet. What is the expected inheritance pattern for this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:The inheritance pattern of HOCM is autosomal dominant, which means that it can be passed down from generation to generation. Symptoms of HOCM may include exertional dyspnoea, angina, syncope, and an ejection systolic murmur. It is important to note that there may be a family history of similar cardiac problems or sudden death due to ventricular arrhythmias. Autosomal recessive, mitochondrial inheritance, and X-linked dominant inheritance are not applicable to HOCM.
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 27
Correct
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A 32-year-old man visits his GP complaining of weight loss and foul-smelling, fatty stools that have persisted for 8 months. During the physical examination, the GP observes multiple unexplained bruises on the patient's abdomen. The patient denies any history of trauma. His sister has been diagnosed with coeliac disease. The patient played football during his childhood and did not experience any unusual bruising. The GP orders the following blood tests:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 140 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180 g/L; females: 115-160 g/L)
- Platelets: 270 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
- White blood cells (WBC): 5.8 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
- Prothrombin time (PT): 18 seconds (normal range: 10-14 seconds)
- Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 35 seconds (normal range: 25-35 seconds)
What is the most probable cause of the patient's unexplained bruising?Your Answer: Vitamin K deficiency
Explanation:Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption, leading to symptoms such as foul-smelling, fatty stools and clubbing. Malabsorption syndromes like coeliac disease can impair fat absorption, resulting in a deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins like vitamin K. This vitamin is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors involved in the coagulation cascade, and its deficiency can cause a prolonged PT and aPTT.
The other options are incorrect. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, bowel cancer, anaemia of chronic disease, and haemophilia type A do not explain the patient’s symptoms, such as steatorrhoea, weight loss, and bruising.
Understanding Vitamin K
Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.
Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the likely arrangement of openings in the cellular membrane?
Your Answer: A large polysaccharide molecule entrapped in the membrane
Correct Answer: A protein molecule in the membrane with a channel through it
Explanation:Composition and Structure of the Cell Membrane
The cell membrane is made up of a lipid matrix that primarily consists of phospholipids, cholesterol, and triglycerides. This lipid matrix is interspersed with large protein molecules that have channels running through them, which act as tiny pores. These pores allow for the selective transport of molecules in and out of the cell. The cell membrane is a crucial component of all living cells, as it serves as a barrier between the cell and its environment, regulating the flow of substances in and out of the cell. Its composition and structure are essential for maintaining the integrity and function of the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after a fall at home resulting in a head injury. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin for stroke prevention, with a target INR of 2.5. CT head reveals an acute subdural haemorrhage, and his INR is 5.5. As a healthcare provider, you opt to administer 5 mg of IV vitamin K. What is the mode of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Acts as a co-factor in the carboxylation of factors II, V, X and XII
Correct Answer: Acts as a co-factor in the carboxylation of factors II, VII, IX and X
Explanation:To reverse the effects of warfarin and treat major bleeding, IV vitamin K should be administered as it acts as a cofactor in the carboxylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. Prothrombin complex concentrate or fresh frozen plasma may also be given. It is important to note that vitamin K is fat-soluble and its levels may decrease in conditions affecting fat absorption, such as obstructive jaundice. Additionally, it may take up to 4 hours for vitamin K to produce a reduction in INR when given to reverse the effects of warfarin. DOACs such as apixaban, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban directly inhibit factor Xa, while dabigatran works by directly inhibiting thrombin (factor IIa). Heparin, on the other hand, activates antithrombin III, which inactivates factor Xa and thrombin.
Understanding Vitamin K
Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.
Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 30
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman complains of feeling tired and dizzy. During the examination, she appears pale and has an enlarged spleen and liver. She has been consuming a bottle of wine daily for the past 25 years.
Her blood work reveals:
Hemoglobin (Hb) level of 72 g/L (normal range for females: 115 - 160)
Mean Cell Volume (MCV) of 73 fL (normal range: 80 - 100)
Ferritin level of 410 ng/mL (normal range: 10 - 300)
Blood film shows basophilic stippling of red blood cells
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Sideroblastic anaemia
Explanation:The correct answer is sideroblastic anaemia, which is characterized by hypochromic microcytic anaemia, high levels of ferritin iron and transferrin saturation, and the presence of basophilic stippling in red blood cells. This condition occurs when haem formation is incomplete, leading to the accumulation of iron in the mitochondria and the formation of a ring sideroblast around the nucleus. Alcohol consumption is a common cause, and treatment is supportive.
B12 deficiency is a type of megaloblastic anaemia, which results in a high mean corpuscular volume (MCV). It is typically caused by conditions that lead to vitamin B12 malabsorption, such as autoimmune gastritis.
Iron deficiency is a type of microcytic anaemia, which is characterized by a low MCV. However, in iron deficiency, the ferritin level is typically low, and pencil-shaped cells may be present in the blood film.
Sickle cell anaemia is a normochromic-normocytic haemolytic disorder, so the MCV should be normal. Patients often have a positive family history, and the blood film may show sickle cells and features of hyposplenism, such as target cells and Howell-Jolly bodies.
Understanding Sideroblastic Anaemia
Sideroblastic anaemia is a medical condition that occurs when red blood cells fail to produce enough haem, which is partly synthesized in the mitochondria. This results in the accumulation of iron in the mitochondria, forming a ring around the nucleus known as a ring sideroblast. The condition can be either congenital or acquired.
The congenital cause of sideroblastic anaemia is delta-aminolevulinate synthase-2 deficiency. On the other hand, acquired causes include myelodysplasia, alcohol, lead, and anti-TB medications.
To diagnose sideroblastic anaemia, doctors may conduct a full blood count, iron studies, and a blood film. The results may show hypochromic microcytic anaemia, high ferritin, high iron, high transferrin saturation, and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. A bone marrow test may also be done, and Prussian blue staining can reveal ringed sideroblasts.
Management of sideroblastic anaemia is mainly supportive, and treatment focuses on addressing any underlying cause. Pyridoxine may also be prescribed to help manage the condition.
In summary, sideroblastic anaemia is a condition that affects the production of haem in red blood cells, leading to the accumulation of iron in the mitochondria. It can be congenital or acquired, and diagnosis involves various tests. Treatment is mainly supportive, and addressing any underlying cause is crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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