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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old female presents with a two-month history of headache and generalised malaise....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female presents with a two-month history of headache and generalised malaise. She describes her headaches as a tight band-like sensation that is present almost throughout the day and causes significant difficulty in sleeping at night. She also mentions occasional episodes of vomiting along with low-grade fever and weight loss of about 7 kg over the same duration of time. She suffers from generalised anxiety disorder and takes 0.5mg alprazolam TDS. She returned from Dubai 10 months ago where she had been spending her holidays with her family.

      On examination, she has a fever of 37.5°C and a pulse of 105 bpm. She appears slightly disoriented with a tendency to speak out of context but is otherwise cooperative.

      There is diplopia on right-sided gaze and mild neck stiffness, but the remaining clinical examination is essentially unremarkable.

      Lab reports reveal:

      Hb 115 g/l
      Platelets 340 * 109/l
      WBC 9.0 * 109/l

      Na+ 137 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea 5.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 102 µmol/l
      Glucose 7.0 mmol/l
      ESR 87 mm/hr

      MRI shows meningeal enhancement but no evidence of any parenchymal lesions.

      CSF examination reveals:

      Opening Pressure Normal
      Appearance Turbid
      Protein 3.2g/L (0.2 0.4 g/L)
      Glucose 2.7 mmol/l
      Lymphocytes 371/mm³
      Neutrophils 42/mm³
      ZN staining No acid-fast bacilli detected

      What is the most appropriate treatment option for this 50-year-old female?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide and dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of headache, malaise, low-grade fever, and weight loss over the past two months suggest a diagnosis of tuberculous meningitis, which is further supported by the presence of diplopia and neck stiffness during examination.

      The complete blood count does not indicate a bacterial infection, as there is no leucocytosis. However, the elevated ESR supports the diagnosis of TBM.

      The CSF analysis reveals a predominance of lymphocytes, significantly elevated protein levels, and low glucose levels, which are consistent with tuberculosis.

      TBM typically presents with non-specific symptoms such as headache, anorexia, and vomiting, followed by the development of meningitis signs over several weeks. These signs may include diplopia, papilloedema, hemiparesis, and seizures. Treatment is usually initiated presumptively, as multiple CSF cultures may be required and results may take weeks to obtain. ZN staining is often negative, and PCR for mycobacterium tuberculosis may also be negative, requiring repeat testing.

      Treatment involves the use of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and steroids. Ethambutol should be avoided due to potential eye complications.

      CSF Analysis for Meningitis

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is an important diagnostic tool for meningitis. The appearance, glucose level, protein level, and white cell count in the CSF can provide clues to the type of meningitis present. Bacterial meningitis typically results in cloudy CSF with low glucose levels and high protein levels, along with a high number of polymorphs. Viral meningitis, on the other hand, usually results in clear or slightly cloudy CSF with normal or slightly raised protein levels and a high number of lymphocytes. Tuberculous meningitis may result in slightly cloudy CSF with a fibrin web and a high number of lymphocytes, along with low glucose and high protein levels. Fungal meningitis typically results in cloudy CSF with high protein levels and a high number of lymphocytes. In cases of suspected tuberculous meningitis, PCR may be used in addition to the Ziehl-Neelsen stain, which has low sensitivity. It is important to note that mumps and herpes encephalitis may also result in low glucose levels in the CSF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of fevers, muscle pain,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of fevers, muscle pain, and a sore throat that have been going on for 3 days. He also reports feeling nauseous and having a decreased appetite. His 5-year-old son has been sick with similar symptoms. He has no medical history and only takes over-the-counter vitamins. He has no allergies.

      During the examination, his temperature is 40.5 °C, heart rate is 135 bpm, and blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. He has a dry cough and a runny nose. His chest sounds clear, and his oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. He has a red throat and swollen lymph nodes in his neck. The rest of his ear, nose, and throat exam is normal.

      Throat swab: positive for influenza B

      He is discharged with instructions to take pain medication and drink plenty of fluids. He is given a prescription for oseltamivir to take at home.

      What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir?

      Your Answer: Neuraminidase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Antiviral Drug Classes and Mechanisms of Action

      Neuraminidase inhibitors, such as oseltamivir, block the action of the neuraminidase enzyme found on the surface of the influenza virus, preventing its movement into and out of host cells. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs), like efavirenz, are non-competitive inhibitors of the reverse transcriptase enzyme used by HIV, stopping viral DNA synthesis. Protease inhibitors, such as ritonavir, inhibit the protease enzyme, preventing the virus from packaging and releasing new virions. Integrase inhibitors, like raltegravir, inhibit the action of the enzyme integrase, which is used to incorporate the virus’s genome into the host cell’s DNA. Nucleoside analogues, such as ribavirin, incorporate into viral DNA or RNA, causing chain termination. Understanding the mechanisms of action of these antiviral drug classes is crucial for effective treatment of viral infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 3 - A 24-year-old man presents to the HIV clinic for the first time after...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old man presents to the HIV clinic for the first time after being diagnosed with positive HIV serology during an opportunistic screening at a local GUM clinic. He is feeling anxious about managing his disease and is eager to start treatment. He has no symptoms and has no significant medical history.

      During his consultation, the diagnosis was discussed with him, and the role of antiretroviral treatment was explained.

      Blood tests:
      Hb 136 g/l
      Platelets 390 * 109/l
      WBC 7.8 * 109/l
      Na+ 142 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea 4.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine 68 µmol/l
      HIV viral load 210 copies/ml
      CD4 count 920 cells/mm3

      What is the most appropriate management plan to offer?

      Your Answer: Start antiretroviral therapy

      Explanation:

      Regardless of CD4 count or viral load, HIV treatment should be offered to this newly diagnosed patient. PCP prophylaxis is only required when the CD4 count drops significantly.

      Pneumocystis jiroveci Pneumonia in HIV Patients

      Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia) is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with HIV. The organism responsible for this infection is an unicellular eukaryote, which is classified as a fungus by some and a protozoa by others. Symptoms of PCP include dyspnea, dry cough, fever, and few chest signs. Pneumothorax is a common complication of PCP, and extrapulmonary manifestations are rare.

      To diagnose PCP, a chest x-ray is typically performed, which may show bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates or other findings such as lobar consolidation. Sputum tests often fail to show PCP, so a bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) may be necessary to demonstrate the presence of the organism. Treatment for PCP involves co-trimoxazole or IV pentamidine in severe cases. Aerosolized pentamidine is an alternative treatment, but it is less effective and carries a risk of pneumothorax. Steroids may be prescribed if the patient is hypoxic, as they can reduce the risk of respiratory failure and death.

      It is recommended that all HIV patients with a CD4 count below 200/mm³ receive PCP prophylaxis. This infection can be serious and potentially life-threatening, so prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department for review. She returned from...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department for review. She returned from a trip to Thailand a few days ago, during which she had unprotected sexual intercourse with a number of men. She had an onset of multiple vesicles which has now formed into multiple ulcers and she has developed burning and tingling over her vulva. On examination she is pyrexial 38.2°C, her BP is 120/80 mmHg; pulse is 80/min and regular. There are multiple small, shallow, painful ulcers over the vulva and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. The ulcers are swabbed and she is referred to the GUM clinic.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Oral Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Genital Herpes: Oral Aciclovir

      Genital herpes is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by the herpes simplex virus. The standard treatment for genital herpes is oral Aciclovir, which is administered at a dose of 200 mg five times daily or 400 mg three times daily for five days. In patients with a history of HIV, a more prolonged course of aciclovir may be required. Anti-viral therapy with Aciclovir reduces the severity and duration of herpes episodes, but does not impact on the overall course of the disease.

      It is important to note that chancroid is a differential diagnosis of genital herpes, but it usually presents with a single deep purulent ulcer, although in less common cases multiple can be present. Lymphadenopathy occurs usually 1 week after the onset of the initial ulcer in such cases.

      Other treatment options such as IM Penicillin, Oral Azithromycin, Topical Aciclovir, and Oral Famciclovir are not recommended for the treatment of primary genital herpes. IM Penicillin is the standard treatment for syphilis, while Azithromycin is an alternative therapy for primary syphilis. Topical Aciclovir is ineffective for the treatment of primary genital herpes versus oral options. Oral Famciclovir is an option for recurrent herpes, but is not usually considered as an initial therapy. Therefore, oral Aciclovir remains the preferred treatment option for genital herpes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 5 - A 50 year old man presents to his General Practitioner with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old man presents to his General Practitioner with complaints of persistent fatigue and lethargy for the past few months. He reports experiencing recurrent minor infections, leading to him rarely feeling well for any significant length of time. His medical history includes obesity, hypertension, impaired fasting glucose tolerance, and osteoarthritis of the knees. He is currently taking ramipril, bendroflumethiazide, and paracetamol as required. The patient is an ex-smoker who rarely drinks alcohol and has recently retired from his job as a salesperson for luxury yachts, which involved extensive travel around the world. On examination, the patient is significantly overweight with a BMI of 36 kg/m². His GP orders some basic blood tests, which show a similar full blood count differential to a test taken 6 months prior. What is the most appropriate next line investigation?

      Your Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus antibody testing

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing persistent lymphopenia, along with raised total protein and low albumin levels, which could be indicative of nascent HIV infection. The patient’s history of international travel increases the likelihood of HIV infection, and a complete sexual history is necessary. While other investigations are listed, there is no clinical evidence of connective tissue disease, sarcoidosis, or EBV infection. These tests are being conducted to rule out other potential causes of isolated lymphopenia.

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion

      HIV seroconversion is a process that occurs in individuals who have been recently infected with the virus. It is characterized by symptoms that resemble those of glandular fever, such as sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, and mouth ulcers. In some rare cases, it can also lead to meningoencephalitis. The severity of the symptoms is associated with the long-term prognosis of the patient, with more severe symptoms indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Diagnosing HIV seroconversion can be challenging, as antibodies to the virus may not be present in the early stages of infection. However, HIV PCR and p24 antigen tests can confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the process of HIV seroconversion is crucial for early detection and treatment of the virus, as well as for preventing its spread to others. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking medical attention promptly, individuals can receive the care they need to manage the virus and improve their long-term outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 6 - A 54-year-old male with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is on his third cycle of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old male with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is on his third cycle of chemotherapy. He is admitted to the ward after developing a temperature of 38.7ºC before his fourth cycle. He feels well in himself but has ongoing trouble with diarrhoea and mucositis. Currently, his stools are type four on the Bristol stool chart and his mouth ulcers are being treated with a lidocaine/nystatin topical solution. He denies any cough, sore throat or urinary symptoms.

      During examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender with normal bowel sounds. His chest is clear with air entry heard throughout. He has no murmurs, joint effusions or areas of cellulitis. His mouth contains multiple ulcers with areas of straw colored exudate overlying them.

      Hb 110 g/l
      Platelets 60 * 109/l
      WBC 1.1 * 109/l
      Neuts 0.5 * 109/l

      Blood culture (1st) Staphylococcus epidermidis
      Blood culture (2nd) no growth
      Chest X-ray clear lung fields, normal cardiac contour
      Nasopharyngeal PCR negative
      Urine dip negative for leucocytes and nitrites

      What investigation would be the most effective in identifying the cause of the fever?

      Your Answer: Stool sample

      Correct Answer: Swab mouth ulcer

      Explanation:

      Neutropenic sepsis can arise from mucositis.

      The patient is currently experiencing neutropenic sepsis, but the source is unknown. In neutropenic patients, any part of the body can be the source of infection. Although the patient has a history of diarrhea, their current stools are normal. There are no signs of urinary issues, and the dipstick test indicates that the urine is unlikely to contain any organisms. It is recommended to complete three blood cultures when there is a fever of unknown origin. Sputum culture is not possible without a productive cough and may require bronchoscopy to induce.

      The patient has mouth ulcers, which can allow oral commensal bacteria to enter the bloodstream and cause sepsis. Therefore, it is important to take a swab of the ulcer site for bacterial culture and viral PCR.

      Understanding Neutropenic Sepsis in Cancer Patients

      Neutropenic sepsis is a common complication that arises from cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs of clinically significant sepsis. To prevent this condition, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 should be offered a fluoroquinolone.

      Immediate antibiotic therapy is crucial in managing neutropenic sepsis. It is recommended to start empirical antibiotic therapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) without waiting for the WBC. While some units add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE does not support this approach. After the initial treatment, patients are assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they can receive outpatient treatment. If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) instead of blindly starting antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old man from the United Kingdom is pursuing a PhD in nutrition....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man from the United Kingdom is pursuing a PhD in nutrition. He previously conducted research on rice varieties while based in China. Two months ago, he experienced an itch while in a rice paddy, which later developed into a rash that lasted for five days. Currently, he is presenting with confusion, and his girlfriend reports that he has been experiencing severe headaches, particularly in the morning, along with nausea and vomiting. His condition has progressed, and he is now experiencing difficulty using his left hand, slurred speech, impaired memory, and judgment.

      During the examination, the patient appears confused and disoriented, with a Glasgow coma scale of 13/15. He exhibits sudden head and eye movements, lip smacking, and jerky muscle movements. Laboratory results show eosinophilia, with a count of 600/uL, and both haemagglutination and ELISA tests indicate the presence of Schistosoma antibodies, which remain positive upon repeat testing. A CT scan reveals oedema and multifocal small contrast-enhanced lesions in the cerebellum, occipital, and frontal lobes.

      What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Praziquantel 60 mg/kg per day for 6 days and prednisolone 1 mg/kg per day

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Schistosomiasis

      Schistosomiasis is a common parasitic infection that requires proper treatment. The recommended treatment for all Schistosoma species is Praziquantel, which is not licensed for human use in the United Kingdom but can be obtained on a named patient basis. For S. japonicum, a dosage of Praziquantel 60 mg/kg per day for six days is recommended, with a maximum dose of 5 grams per day, along with prednisolone 1 mg/kg. For S. mansoni and S. haematobium, a dosage of Praziquantel 40 mg/kg per day for three days is recommended.

      In cases of neuroschistosomiasis, where some of the pathology is caused by hypersensitivity reactions, the use of a steroid such as prednisolone 1 mg/kg per day is necessary. However, there is no consensus on when to start or stop the use of steroids. It is important to follow the recommended dosages and seek medical advice before starting any treatment for Schistosomiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old woman with lupus and antiphospholipid syndrome presented to the Rheumatology clinic...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman with lupus and antiphospholipid syndrome presented to the Rheumatology clinic complaining of sharp chest pain on her right side. The pain had started three days prior to her visit and was accompanied by shortness of breath. She also reported a vesicular rash that had appeared over the affected area one day ago. The patient weighs 65 kg and is currently taking Methotrexate 20 mg once weekly, Prednisolone 30 mg once a day, Aspirin 75 mg once a day, and Folic Acid 5 mg once a day. Upon admission to the rheumatology ward, a CTPA was performed which showed no pulmonary emboli, but widespread bilateral changes of subsolid nodules and ground-glass opacification. The patient's shortness of breath continued to worsen and her vital signs were taken: temperature 39.1 °C, blood pressure 107/55, heart rate 122, and oxygen saturation 88% on air. What is the most appropriate treatment for her likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Treat with aciclovir 650 mg intravenous 8 hourly

      Explanation:

      Varicella-Zoster Chickenpox in an Immunocompromised Patient

      In an immunocompromised patient experiencing sharp pain and a vesicular rash, the most likely diagnosis is varicella-zoster chickenpox. This condition can cause systemic illness and widespread pulmonary changes, such as varicella pneumonitis. The recommended treatment for an immunocompromised patient with varicella-zoster is intravenous aciclovir at a dose of 10 mg/Kg. This medication can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat varicella-zoster chickenpox in immunocompromised patients to prevent serious health consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man presents with a fever, pain, and erythema across his abdomen....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a fever, pain, and erythema across his abdomen. He had undergone an elective repair of an umbilical hernia 10 days ago and was discharged home. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and a high body mass index of 31 kg/m² (normal range 18.5 – 24.9kg/m²).

      He had been feeling well until the morning of presentation when he noticed a small area of erythema and tenderness around the incision site near his umbilicus. Throughout the day, the erythema grew and became more painful, prompting his wife to bring him to the Emergency Department.

      On examination, he appeared unwell with the following vital signs:
      temperature 38.6ºC
      respiratory rate 23 breaths/min
      oxygen saturation 97% on air
      heart rate 125 bpm
      blood pressure 88/61 mmHg

      He complained of severe abdominal pain and nausea, with one episode of vomiting. There was a large area of erythema across the lower half of his abdomen which was extremely tender to palpation. Examination of the erythematous area also revealed impaired sensation to light touch.

      His blood results showed:
      WBC 17 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      CRP 460 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's infection?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

      Correct Answer: Polymicrobial

      Explanation:

      Necrotising fasciitis, also known as flesh-eating disease, is a rapidly progressive soft tissue infection that can be caused by different types of bacteria. The most common type is type 1, which is caused by a polymicrobial infection of subcutaneous tissue. This type of infection is often seen in patients who have diabetes mellitus or have recently undergone surgery. Symptoms of necrotising fasciitis include rapidly expanding cellulitis, anaesthesia of the affected area, and pain that is out of proportion to the visible skin changes. While necrotising fasciitis is commonly seen in the extremities, it can also occur in other parts of the body such as the perineum, head, neck, and trunk.

      Type 2 necrotising fasciitis is caused by a monomicrobial infection, most commonly by Streptococcus pyogenes. Aeromonas hydrophila is a less common cause of necrotising fasciitis, typically associated with freshwater exposure. Staphylococcus epidermidis, a commensal organism present on the skin, is the most common cause of infections from indwelling medical devices. It is important to be aware of the symptoms of necrotising fasciitis and seek medical attention immediately if you suspect you may have this condition.

      Necrotising Fasciitis: A Life-Threatening Emergency

      Necrotising fasciitis is a severe medical emergency that can be challenging to identify in its early stages. It is categorised based on the causative organism, with type 1 being the most common, caused by mixed anaerobes and aerobes, often occurring post-surgery in diabetics. Type 2 is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing necrotising fasciitis, including recent trauma, burns, or soft tissue infections, diabetes mellitus, intravenous drug use, and immunosuppression.

      The perineum is the most commonly affected site, and the condition presents with acute onset, pain, swelling, and erythema at the affected site. It often appears as rapidly worsening cellulitis with pain that is out of proportion to physical features. The infected tissue is extremely tender, with hypoaesthesia to light touch. Late signs include skin necrosis and crepitus/gas gangrene, and fever and tachycardia may be absent or occur late in the presentation.

      Urgent surgical referral for debridement and intravenous antibiotics are the primary management options for necrotising fasciitis. The average mortality rate is 20%, making it a life-threatening condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old Somali male presents on the medical take with a severe generalised...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old Somali male presents on the medical take with a severe generalised headache associated with nausea and vomiting. He has been living in the UK for the last 10 years. He was diagnosed with HIV 5 years ago and has been well maintained on therapy with an undetectable viral load and a CD4 count of 500 cells/mm3.

      He has a long history of headaches since the age of 12 which are normally controlled with simple analgesia. Over the last 2 days he has been suffering with a particularly bad attack which culminated in him becoming aggressive and vomiting profusely. He was noted to have a tonic-clonic seizure whilst in accident and emergency which resolved with diazepam.

      Clinical examination reveals a pulse of 78 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 130/90, oxygen saturations of 98% on air and a temperature of 36.8 degrees. There was no focal neurological defects.

      A CT scan subsequently showed cystic and calcified lesions within the brain and mild hydrocephalus.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neurocysticercosis

      Explanation:

      Cysticercosis is a condition caused by the larval stage of the Taenia solium tapeworm. It can lead to neurocysticercosis (NCC) and extraneural cysticercosis, with NCC being a significant cause of adult-onset seizures in endemic areas.

      The transmission of cysticercosis occurs when a person ingests T. solium eggs from the stool of a human tapeworm carrier. The embryos (oncospheres) hatch in the small intestine, invade the bowel wall, and spread through the bloodstream to the brain, muscle, liver, and other tissues. Cysts in the brain can cause NCC and potentially lead to hydrocephalus if they obstruct the outflow of cerebrospinal fluid from the ventricles. The condition can develop over a prolonged period.

      This question requires knowledge of the relevant condition and the ability to think beyond the fact that the patient has HIV. Cryptococcosis and TB meningitis are unlikely due to the early diagnosis and good control of HIV. Human African trypanosomiasis can be ruled out based on the patient’s location and the presence of calcified lesions on the CT scan, which is unusual for this condition. Lymphoma typically presents with progressive focal neurology and is unlikely to show calcified lesions in the brain. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis is neurocisticercosis.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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Infectious Diseases (8/10) 80%
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