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Question 1
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A 49-year-old Asian man undergoes a Mantoux test during his immigration screening upon arrival in the United Kingdom. The test comes back positive, but his chest X-ray appears normal, and he is prescribed isoniazid and pyridoxine (vitamin B6). However, he returns to the hospital four weeks later complaining of fever, abdominal pain, and jaundice. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Isoniazid-induced hepatitis
Explanation:Isoniazid Monotherapy for TB Prevention
Isoniazid monotherapy is a treatment used to prevent active tuberculosis in individuals who have been exposed to M. tuberculosis. However, it is important to note that isoniazid-induced hepatitis can occur in approximately 1% of patients, with a higher risk in those over the age of 35. The risk of hepatitis is less than 0.3% in patients under 20 years old, but increases to 2-3% in individuals over 50 years old.
Aside from hepatitis, other side effects of isoniazid therapy include peripheral neuritis, which can be prevented by taking pyridoxine prophylactically. Additionally, a systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)-like syndrome may also occur. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely for any adverse reactions while on isoniazid therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
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A 50-year-old woman is brought into the resuscitation room with a Glasgow coma scale of 11 (E2 V5 M4). A concerned family member called the emergency services, who found her in a moribund state. The family member states that she had seemed low over the past couple of months and that she had been wearing more layers of clothes than seemed appropriate.
On initial examination, she feels cool to touch. Pulse is regular and bradycardic with a heart rate of 38 beats per minute. Heart sounds 1+2 are present. Respiratory rate is 8 with oxygen saturations of 91% on 15 L. Auscultation of the chest is clear. Temperature is 33ºC. BM is 2.7.
Blood tests return as:
Hb 130 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 220 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 9 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Calcium 2.5 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 25 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 0.4 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
Creatine kinase 6000 U/L (35 - 250)
Na+ 130 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 130 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the most appropriate management of this patient?Your Answer: IV hydrocortisone, IV T4, IV dextrose and IV fluids
Explanation:When myxedema coma is suspected, it is important to administer IV corticosteroids and IV thyroid replacement simultaneously, while ruling out the possibility of adrenal insufficiency. The most suitable option is option 5, as it addresses the underlying cause and corrects life-threatening abnormalities. In this case, the patient is experiencing severe hypothyroidism and myxedema coma, which can be effectively treated with a combination of IV hydrocortisone and thyroxine. Additionally, the patient’s low blood sugar levels and elevated creatine kinase levels require management with IV fluids. While CT head and intubation may be necessary, they are not the most urgent interventions. The other options do not include the combined administration of thyroxine and hydrocortisone, which is crucial in managing the patient’s condition.
Understanding Myxoedema Coma
Myxoedema coma is a serious medical condition that is characterized by confusion and hypothermia. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The treatment for myxoedema coma involves IV thyroid replacement, IV fluid, IV corticosteroids (until the possibility of coexisting adrenal insufficiency has been excluded), electrolyte imbalance correction, and sometimes rewarming.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 24-year-old teacher with ankylosing spondylitis comes to the clinic complaining of a headache. She mentions having a painful right eye and cloudy vision. During the examination, her eye appears red and photophobic, and her pupils are small with a sluggish pupillary reflex. Although her visual fields are normal, she still reports cloudy vision. Her recent FBC, UEC, and liver function tests all came back normal. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Uveitis
Explanation:Ocular Manifestations in Ankylosing Spondylitis
Patients with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) are prone to developing uveitis, an inflammation of the uvea, which can lead to vision loss if left untreated. In addition, AS can also cause blepharitis and conjunctivitis, which typically present with mild symptoms. However, if left untreated, these conditions can progress to more serious complications such as corneal melts, which are perforating corneal ulcers that can cause corneal opacities and scotomata. It is important to note that corneal melts are more commonly seen in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
Scleritis is another ocular manifestation that can occur in patients with AS. It presents as a dusky blue discoloration of the sclera, accompanied by pain and tenderness. Unlike other ocular complications, scleritis does not typically cause photophobia or sluggish pupillary reflex.
In summary, patients with AS should be aware of the potential ocular complications associated with their condition. Regular eye exams and prompt treatment of any symptoms can help prevent vision loss and other serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a fainting episode. He reports feeling fatigued and nauseous. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and HIV infection, but admits to being non-compliant with his medications, including anti-retroviral therapy.
Upon examination, the patient's pulse is regular at 65 beats per minute, blood pressure is 90/62 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 14.0 g/dL (13.0-18.0)
- White cell count: 4 x 10^9/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 150 x 10^9/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 130 mmol/L (135-145)
- Potassium: 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Creatinine: 80µmol/L (60-110)
- Glucose: 4.0 mmol/L (4.0-7.8)
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Intravenous hydrocortisone
Explanation:Hypoadrenalism is a common complication in patients with HIV, often caused by necrotising adrenalitis related to cytomegalovirus (CMV). The weakened adaptive immune system in HIV and AIDS patients increases their vulnerability to CMV infection, which in turn increases the risk of adrenal failure.
The first step in managing hypoadrenalism is to quickly replace steroids, while also prioritizing fluid resuscitation.
There is no conclusive evidence to suggest a bacterial infection, and addressing the hypoadrenalism should resolve the hyperkalaemia.
Understanding Addisonian Crisis and Its Management
Addisonian crisis is a medical emergency that occurs when the adrenal glands suddenly stop functioning properly. This can be caused by various factors such as sepsis, surgery, adrenal haemorrhage, or steroid withdrawal. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as severe weakness, low blood pressure, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances.
To manage Addisonian crisis, immediate medical attention is required. The first step is to administer hydrocortisone, either intravenously or intramuscularly, at a dose of 100 mg. This should be followed by the infusion of normal saline or dextrose if the patient is hypoglycaemic. Hydrocortisone should be continued every 6 hours until the patient is stable. Fludrocortisone is not required as high cortisol levels exert weak mineralocorticoid action.
After 24 hours, oral replacement therapy may begin and gradually reduced to maintenance over 3-4 days. It is important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels and blood pressure during this time. With prompt and appropriate management, most patients with Addisonian crisis can recover fully.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 56 year old man with a history of heavy alcohol consumption presents with hematemesis. What is the most effective treatment approach for esophageal varices during endoscopy?
Your Answer: Endoscopic banding
Explanation:Management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding due to varices involves resuscitation, transfusion, and vasoactive agents like Terlipressin. Prophylactic measures include propanolol, endoscopic band ligation, and proton pump inhibitors. Common causes of upper GI bleeding include peptic ulcer disease, gastritis, and varices. In cases where endoscopy is delayed or difficult, a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube may be used.
Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.
To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old female with colorectal cancer (Duke's C) on chemotherapy presents with an acutely painful swollen left leg. She reports that the swelling has been increasing for the past twelve hours and she can see new veins on her calf that were not there before. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and feels that this is similar.
Upon examination, her left leg is 4 cm larger than the right. The medical team starts her on rivaroxaban for a suspected DVT and orders an ultrasound Doppler of the leg.
What is her Well's score?Your Answer: 4
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:Wells’ Criteria for Suspected DVT
Wells’ Criteria is a tool used to assess the likelihood of a patient having deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It assigns points based on various risk factors, with a higher score indicating a greater likelihood of DVT. In this case, the patient scores points for having active cancer, a previous DVT, collateral superficial veins, leg swelling greater than 3 cm, and entire leg swelling.
Active cancer is a known risk factor for DVT, as cancer cells can release substances that increase the risk of blood clots. A previous DVT also increases the likelihood of another occurrence. Collateral superficial veins and leg swelling are physical signs that suggest the presence of a blood clot. If the entire leg is swollen, it may indicate a more severe case of DVT.
Wells’ Criteria is important for healthcare professionals to accurately diagnose and manage DVT. By identifying patients at higher risk, appropriate interventions can be taken to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. It is recommended to use this tool in conjunction with other diagnostic tests, such as ultrasound, to confirm or rule out DVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man with metastatic small cell lung carcinoma is admitted to hospital with vomiting, ankle swelling and pruritus. He recently completed a course of palliative chemotherapy. He has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and hypertension and is currently taking morphine sulphate (MST) for pain relief.
During examination, he appears cachectic with peripheral oedema and skin excoriations. His heart rate is 96 beats per minute and blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg.
The following tests were conducted:
- Hb: 134 g/l
- Platelets: 185 * 109/l
- WBC: 5.5 * 109/l
- Na+: 146 mmol/l
- K+: 5.4 mmol/l
- Urea: 23 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 420 µmol/l
Urine dip shows blood +, urine osmolality is 350 mOsm/L, urinary sodium is 45 mEq L, and microscopy reveals red cells and casts.
What is the most suitable pain relief option for this patient?Your Answer: Diamorphine
Correct Answer: Fentanyl patch
Explanation:Due to cisplatin chemotherapy, this patient is experiencing acute kidney injury and requires adjustments to their pain management. As they are currently taking regular, long-acting MST, the most suitable alternative would be a fentanyl patch.
While oxycodone can be used for moderate renal failure, it should only be used for breakthrough pain relief and modified release preparations should be avoided. Diamorphine and tramadol are not recommended for patients with renal failure. Pregabalin can be administered at a reduced dose, but it would not be the first choice for substituting MST.
Alfentanil and methadone are safe to use even in severe renal impairment and can be administered subcutaneously. If the patient’s pain is unstable and requires dose titration, alfentanil would be a suitable option.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a long history of diabetes and previous cerebrovascular accident presents with early satiety, postprandial vomiting, and abdominal distension. He is not experiencing haematemesis or abdominal pain and has regular bowel movements. He is overweight, in atrial fibrillation, and has residual right-sided paralysis. On examination, his abdomen is distended and tympanic, but otherwise soft and non-tender with active bowel sounds. Rectal examination reveals soft brown stool. Investigations show abnormal results for haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, sodium, potassium, creatinine, mean corpuscular volume, international normalized ratio, urea, albumin, corrected calcium, and glucose. Chest X-ray is normal, and abdominal X-ray shows a dilated stomach. Upper GI endoscopy is normal. What is the most appropriate initial therapy? He is currently on insulin therapy, digoxin, and aspirin.
Your Answer: Recommend less frequent meals
Correct Answer: Trial of domperidone
Explanation:Treatment options for diabetic gastroparesis
Gastroparesis is a common complication of diabetes mellitus, affecting gastric motility in approximately 10% of patients. Endoscopy is the first step in investigating the condition, ruling out anatomical lesions such as pyloric stenosis. Gastric emptying scans using solid-phase meals are usually necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
Improving diabetic control can be beneficial, but prokinetic drugs such as domperidone are the initial intervention of choice. Metoclopramide is no longer recommended due to long-term neurological side effects. Patients should also be encouraged to eat smaller, more frequent meals with a lower potential residual solid component to minimize solid food retention in the stomach.
Nifedipine has no role in the treatment of diabetic gastroparesis, but it may be used to treat oesophageal spasm in achalasia. High-fibre diets may exacerbate symptoms by leaving significant residual solid material in the stomach. Gastric pacemakers are considered a research intervention for patients with gastroparesis resistant to other treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 62-year-old man with a 35 pack per year smoking history visits his doctor complaining of fatigue and difficulty concentrating, which is affecting his ability to work. His wife reports that he frequently falls asleep in front of the TV. During the examination, his heart rate is 86 bpm and his blood pressure is 140/92 mmHg. He has a normal cardiovascular exam, and mild expiratory wheezing is heard upon auscultation of the lungs, with oxygen saturation at 92%. He is 178 cm tall, weighs 118 kg, and has a neck circumference of 43 cm. What is the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer: Overnight continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a common sleep disorder that can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. The following are treatment options for OSA:
1. Overnight continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP): This is the first-line treatment for moderate to severe OSA. CPAP has been shown to be effective in reducing OSA symptoms, but it does not prevent cardiovascular mortality associated with OSA.
2. Intra-oral device to prevent snoring: This may be useful for mild OSA, but not in cases of daytime sleepiness.
3. Long-term oxygen therapy: This can be used as an adjunct to CPAP therapy or in cases where patients are unable to adhere to CPAP. However, it should not be offered as first-line in preference to CPAP.
4. Modafinil: This is a daytime stimulant used in the treatment of narcolepsy. It is not used in the management of OSA, but has been shown to have beneficial effects in use with CPAP.
5. Nocturnal lorazepam: This is an inappropriate treatment option for OSA as benzodiazepines are contraindicated and can lead to respiratory failure.
Patients with OSA should also alter their lifestyle appropriately, with weight loss and alcohol and smoking cessation as first-line treatment. Long-term oxygen therapy has not been shown to have any long-term benefit in OSA patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a lump on the right side of his neck that has been present for 4 weeks. The lump measures approximately 7 mm and is located on the right side of the thyroid gland in the anterior triangle. The patient reports that the lump does not move when he sticks out his tongue, but it does move on swallowing. He denies any weight loss or night sweats.
Laboratory tests are ordered and reveal:
- Hemoglobin: 12.9 g/l
- Platelets: 210 * 109/l
- White blood cells: 6.0 * 109/l
- Sodium: 141 mmol/l
- Potassium: 3.9 mmol/l
- Urea: 4.1 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 33 µmol/l
What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Ultrasound scan of thyroid
Explanation:For the majority of neck lumps, high-resolution ultrasound scanning is the recommended initial imaging investigation. This is because most neck lesions are specific to a particular site, and once the location of the lesion has been identified, specific ultrasound characteristics can be utilized to determine the diagnosis.
Understanding Thyrotoxicosis: Causes and Investigations
Thyrotoxicosis is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in an excess of thyroid hormones in the body. Graves’ disease is the most common cause, accounting for 50-60% of cases. Other causes include toxic nodular goitre, subacute thyroiditis, post-partum thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, amiodarone therapy, and contrast administration. Elderly patients with pre-existing thyroid disease are also at risk.
To diagnose thyrotoxicosis, doctors typically look for a decrease in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels and an increase in T4 and T3 levels. Thyroid autoantibodies may also be present. Isotope scanning may be used to investigate further. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, highlighting the complexity of thyroid dysfunction. Patients with existing thyrotoxicosis should avoid iodinated contrast medium, as it can result in hyperthyroidism developing over several weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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