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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old from Cameroon has recently moved to the UK to pursue nursing. She has been experiencing diarrhoea for the past month and noticed a brief rash on her torso. Her GP ordered a blood test which revealed a significant eosinophilia. She has not lost weight and is worried about gaining weight since moving to the UK. She has no history of allergies or medication. Her brother had an eye worm last year. A stool sample was sent for ova cysts and parasites and microscopy and culture. The results showed multiple Strongyloides stercoralis larvae on charcoal culture. She was started on a seven-day course of Ivermectin. However, four days later, she was brought to the Emergency Department with a GCS of 6. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Disseminated Strongyloides infection
Correct Answer: Co-infection with Loa
Explanation:The clue in this story is the familial background of ‘eye worm’, indicating that she resides in a region with a high prevalence of Loa Loa.
Understanding Loiasis: A Filariasis Infection Caused by Loa Loa
Loiasis is a type of filarial infection that is caused by the Loa Loa parasite. This infection is transmitted by the Chrysops deerfly and is commonly found in the rainforest regions of Western and Central Africa. The clinical features of loiasis include pruritus, urticaria, and Calabar swellings, which are hot and non-erythematous swellings of soft tissue around joints. Another dramatic presentation of this infection is the subconjunctival migration of the adult worm, also known as the eye worm.
Compared to other microfilarial infections like Onchocerciasis and Lymphatic Filariasis, loiasis has fewer pathological features. However, high loa loa microfilaraemia can lead to encephalopathy following treatment with Ivermectin or DEC. This is due to the death of a large number of blood microfilaria. It is important to note that both of these drugs are contraindicated if loa loa microfilaraemia exceeds 2500 mf/ml. This has significant public health implications as Ivermectin is currently the drug of choice for controlling Onchocerciasis and Lymphatic Filariasis in Africa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What intervention is most effective in decreasing the likelihood of bloodstream infection from a central venous catheter (CVC)?
Your Answer: Application of a semi-permeable polyurethane dressing following insertion
Correct Answer: Impregnation of the surface of the CVC with chlorhexidine
Explanation:Strategies for Reducing Central Venous Catheter Blood Stream Infections
Central venous catheters (CVCs) are commonly used in medical settings, but they can pose a risk for blood stream infections. While prophylactic antibiotics have been used in the past, research has shown that they do not effectively reduce CVC blood stream infections. However, the use of semi-permeable polyurethane dressings is widely recommended as a preventative measure. Additionally, catheter impregnation has been shown to reduce the risk of both CVC blood stream infection and catheter colonization. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these strategies in order to minimize the risk of CVC-related infections. For further information on this topic, the article Central Venous Catheters by Smith and Nolan in the BMJ is a valuable resource.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
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A 70-year-old man is on his second cycle of chemotherapy following prostatectomy. He has a central venous catheter in place for his treatment. He developed fever and fatigue two days ago and was admitted to the hospital. He has had one episode of diarrhea and is currently being isolated. He is having difficulty swallowing due to pain while swallowing and is only able to take oral fluids.
He is currently taking G-CSF, omeprazole, and dexamethasone. He has not traveled abroad and reports that he is avoiding raw or undercooked meat.
On examination, he has clear lungs with no murmurs. There is no candida in the mouth, but his temperature is 38.8ºC on admission. There are no visible wounds or rashes. He was started on broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics and oral antifungal medication and admitted. You are asked to review him as he has spiked a fever of 39.5ºC on his third day after admission and he is having difficulty swallowing fluids due to retrosternal pain.
Hb 98 g/l Na+ 140 mmol/l
Platelets 130 * 109/l K+ 5.2 mmol/l
WBC 1.8 * 109/l Urea 4.2 mmol/l
Neuts 0.6 * 109/l Creatinine 60 µmol/l
Lymphs 0.2 * 109/l CRP 90 mg/l
Eosin 0.1 * 109/l
Chest X-ray clear lung fields, no effusion, no air under the diaphragm
Blood cultures (1st peripheral) no growth
Blood cultures (central venous catheter) no growth
Blood cultures (2nd peripheral) coagulase-negative staphylococcus
Urine microscopy no pyuria, no growth
Skin swab (catheter site) pending
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Start fluconazole
Explanation:When a patient with neutropenic sepsis fails to respond to broad-spectrum antibiotics within 48 hours, it is possible that they have a fungal infection. In this case, increasing G-CSF or administering paracetamol will not treat the infection. While adding metronidazole may be helpful, it is not clear if the source of the sepsis is abdominal. Further blood cultures may be necessary, but they will not improve the patient’s condition. The best course of action is to start fluconazole, as fungal causes should always be considered in cases of neutropenic sepsis. The patient’s oral candida and odynophagia suggest the possibility of oesophageal candidiasis, which should be taken into account given the presence of Candida.
Understanding Neutropenic Sepsis in Cancer Patients
Neutropenic sepsis is a common complication that arises from cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs of clinically significant sepsis. To prevent this condition, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 should be offered a fluoroquinolone.
Immediate antibiotic therapy is crucial in managing neutropenic sepsis. It is recommended to start empirical antibiotic therapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) without waiting for the WBC. While some units add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE does not support this approach. After the initial treatment, patients are assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they can receive outpatient treatment. If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) instead of blindly starting antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old businessman who frequently travels to the Gambia and is usually diligent with his malaria prophylaxis presents with general malaise and relapsing/remitting fevers occurring every third day. He returned from the Gambia a week ago and did not take his malaria prophylaxis as he has never contracted the disease before. He has no significant medical history and takes no regular medication. The thick and thin films reveal malarial parasites, which are confirmed as Plasmodium vivax by the Malaria Reference Laboratory. What is the most appropriate management in accordance with current UK guidelines?
Your Answer: Artemether with lumefantrine
Correct Answer: Chloroquine and primaquine
Explanation:Non-Falciparum Malaria: Causes, Features, and Treatment
Non-falciparum malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi. Plasmodium vivax is commonly found in Central America and the Indian Subcontinent, while Plasmodium ovale is typically found in Africa. Plasmodium malariae is associated with nephrotic syndrome. Plasmodium knowlesi is found predominantly in South East Asia.
The general features of non-falciparum malaria include fever, headache, and splenomegaly. Cyclical fever every 48 hours is associated with Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, while Plasmodium malariae is associated with cyclical fever every 72 hours. Ovale and vivax malaria have a hypnozoite stage and may relapse following treatment.
In areas known to be chloroquine-sensitive, the World Health Organization recommends either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine for treatment. In areas known to be chloroquine-resistant, an ACT should be used. However, ACTs should be avoided in pregnant women. Patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
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A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fever and shivering, occurring approximately every two days. He has returned from India three weeks ago, having spent four months travelling. While he was in India, he was treated for malaria with chloroquine. He has no other past medical history and does not take any regular medications.
Observations:
Heart rate 88 beats/min
Blood pressure 120/77 mmHg
Respiratory rate 18 breaths/min
Oxygen saturations 98% on room air
Temperature 38.6ºC
On examination, the patient is diaphoretic. There is palpable splenomegaly.
What is the most likely organism responsible for the patient's malaria?Your Answer: Plasmodium vivax
Explanation:Hypnozoite forms of P. vivax and ovale can lead to clinical illness even after patients have left the endemic region or may result in recurring disease after treatment.
Non-Falciparum Malaria: Causes, Features, and Treatment
Non-falciparum malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi. Plasmodium vivax is commonly found in Central America and the Indian Subcontinent, while Plasmodium ovale is typically found in Africa. Plasmodium malariae is associated with nephrotic syndrome. Plasmodium knowlesi is found predominantly in South East Asia.
The general features of non-falciparum malaria include fever, headache, and splenomegaly. Cyclical fever every 48 hours is associated with Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, while Plasmodium malariae is associated with cyclical fever every 72 hours. Ovale and vivax malaria have a hypnozoite stage and may relapse following treatment.
In areas known to be chloroquine-sensitive, the World Health Organization recommends either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine for treatment. In areas known to be chloroquine-resistant, an ACT should be used. However, ACTs should be avoided in pregnant women. Patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient complains of painful lesions on her labia and upper thigh. The lesions appeared three days ago and she has no significant medical history. She tested negative for HIV a month ago but had unprotected sex during her recent trip to Rwanda. Upon examination, the patient has multiple erythematous pustules on her labia and upper thighs, with two of them appearing ulcerated. She also experiences painful inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
Correct Answer: Chancroid
Explanation:Genital Ulceration in Rwanda: Likely Diagnosis and Differential Diagnosis
Genital ulceration is a common problem in Rwanda, and the most likely diagnosis is chancroid. This condition is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, a Gram-negative rod that can lead to erythematous papules on the external genitalia and surrounding regions. These papules can later develop into pustules and haemorrhagic ulcers that are painful and often accompanied by lymphadenopathy.
While lymphadenopathy can also be seen in lymphogranuloma venereum and granuloma inguinale, these conditions have different presentations. LGV initially presents as a single painless ulcer, with secondary infection occurring two to six weeks later. Granuloma inguinale, on the other hand, is caused by Klebsiella granulomatosis and causes indolent painless ulcers. Regional lymphadenopathy is rare, and the incubation period is one to three months.
Although herpes simplex virus (HSV) is one of the most common causes of genital ulceration worldwide, it is less common than chancroid in Rwanda. In HSV, tender lymphadenopathy may be accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever and headache.
In summary, chancroid is the most likely diagnosis for genital ulceration in Rwanda, but it is important to consider other conditions such as LGV, granuloma inguinale, and HSV in the differential diagnosis. Proper diagnosis and treatment are crucial for managing these conditions and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
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A 49-year-old male with hepatitis C presents to the acute medical assessment unit with a recent decrease in urine output. Upon urinalysis, haematoproteinuria is detected, and the following blood results are obtained:
- Hb: 9.8 g/dl
- Platelets: 75 * 109/l
- WBC: 12.1 * 109/l
- Na+: 143 mmol/l
- K+: 5.4 mmol/l
- Urea: 18.9 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 205 µmol/l
After a renal biopsy, the sample is examined under a microscope and reveals enlarged and hypercellular glomeruli with an increase in mesangial cellularity and matrix. The histological diagnosis is membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely underlying pathology for this finding?Your Answer: Cryoglobulinaemia
Explanation:Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, which has led to acute kidney injury in this patient, can be caused by various factors. However, the significant factor in this case is the patient’s medical history of hepatitis C, which is strongly linked to mixed (type II) cryoglobulinaemia.
Cryoglobulinemia: Types, Features, Investigations, and Management
Cryoglobulinemia is a condition where immunoglobulins precipitate at 4 degrees Celsius and dissolve when warmed to 37 degrees Celsius. One-third of cases are idiopathic, and there are three types of cryoglobulinemia. Type I is monoclonal and is associated with multiple myeloma and Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia. Type II is mixed monoclonal and polyclonal and is usually associated with hepatitis C, rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s, and lymphoma. Type III is polyclonal and is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and Sjogren’s.
Possible features of cryoglobulinemia include Raynaud’s, cutaneous vascular purpura, distal ulceration, ulceration, arthralgia, renal involvement, and diffuse glomerulonephritis. Investigations may reveal low complement, especially C4, and high ESR.
The management of cryoglobulinemia involves treating the underlying condition, such as hepatitis C, and immunosuppression. Plasmapheresis may also be used. Cryoglobulinemia can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, patients can experience relief from their symptoms.
Overall, cryoglobulinemia is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring. By understanding the different types, features, investigations, and management options, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
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A 28-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of facial weakness. He also reports a 1-month history of joint pain and stiffness, particularly affecting his elbows and knees. Three months previously, he had a flu-like illness with a red rash, fever and malaise. In the preceding 6 months he had travelled to Kenya and Massachusetts, USA for cross-country running competitions.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lyme disease
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms, including a rash, malaise, joint pain, and bilateral facial palsies, suggest a diagnosis of Lyme disease. This disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted through tick bites. The patient had been running in the countryside of Massachusetts, an area known to harbor Lyme disease, and may have been bitten by a tick. Diagnosis is made through serology for antibodies to B. burgdorferi, and treatment involves 2-3 weeks of oral doxycycline. Other potential diagnoses, such as secondary syphilis, cerebral toxoplasmosis, leprosy, and reactive arthritis, are less likely to explain the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of intermittent fever and flu-like symptoms. She complains of general malaise and myalgia. There is no significant medical history and she has otherwise been healthy, having recently returned from a hiking vacation. She has no known allergies.
Upon examination, she appears fatigued. She has a heart rate of 98 bpm and blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. The rest of her vital signs are normal. On her right arm, there is a circular lesion with a red center and a pale ring around it. There is no evidence of crusting or bleeding and the rest of her skin and mucosa are unaffected.
She is prescribed an antimicrobial medication. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?Your Answer: Inhibits 30S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Antibiotics and their Mechanisms of Action for Lyme Disease Treatment
Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness that can be treated with antibiotics. The most effective treatment is doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S subunit of ribosomes. Aminoglycosides also have a similar mechanism of action. Metronidazole damages bacterial DNA, but it is not used in the treatment of Lyme disease. Penicillin antibiotics disrupt cell membrane function by binding to and inhibiting proteins in the bacterial cell wall, but they are not used as first-line treatment for Lyme disease. Macrolides, such as erythromycin, clindamycin, and linezolid, block the 50S subunit of ribosomes, while quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, inhibit DNA synthesis by binding to the enzyme DNA gyrase. Understanding the mechanisms of action of antibiotics can help in selecting the appropriate treatment for Lyme disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
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A 30-year-old woman with a history of IV drug use is admitted with fever, arthralgia, and a rash. She has been deteriorating over the past six weeks and admits to using injection sites around her groin and feet. On examination, she has a soft systolic murmur at the lower left sternal edge. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 85/min and regular, and her temperature is 37.8 °C. Investigations reveal abnormal results including focal segmental proliferative glomerulonephritis on renal biopsy. Which of the following is an appropriate next investigation?
Your Answer: Serial blood cultures
Explanation:Investigations for a Patient with Hypocomplementaemia and Glomerulonephritis
When a patient presents with hypocomplementaemia and glomerulonephritis, it is important to investigate the underlying cause. In this case, the patient’s history and examination suggest infective endocarditis as the likely culprit. Serial blood cultures from different sites and an echocardiogram are the next investigations of choice. Treatment with intravenous flucloxacillin and gentamicin should be started immediately, without waiting for test results.
A computed tomography (CT) scan of the thorax and abdomen may be useful in identifying any malignancies or abnormal masses, but it is not helpful in diagnosing infective endocarditis. Similarly, tests for anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies, anticardiolipin antibodies, and rheumatoid factor are not useful in this context.
Overall, a careful evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history, along with appropriate laboratory and imaging tests, can help identify the underlying cause of hypocomplementaemia and glomerulonephritis and guide effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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