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Question 1
Incorrect
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You see Mr Johnson, a 36-year-old man-who-has-sex-with-men (MSM) in clinic. He was diagnosed with HIV 4 years ago, commencing combination antiretroviral therapy (cART). Following a number of alterations to his cART due to side effects he responded well to a combination of tenofovir, emtricitabine and ritonavir boosted atazanavir. His plasma viral load (pVL) of HIV RNA has remained undetectable and his adherence has been good.
In clinic today Mr Johnson reports 4 weeks of drenching night sweats, a dry cough and some subjective weight loss, going up a belt buckle during this time period. On examination you note that he appears pale and auscultation of the chest elicits crepitations in the left upper zone. Your perform a chest X-ray which demonstrates a cavitating lesion in the left upper lobe. You arrange induced sputum samples which confirm a diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis.
You explain your diagnosis to Mr Johnson and the need to urgently commence him on anti-tuberculosis chemotherapy. Whilst he is happy to commence treatment, he is adamant that he does not want to risk his viral control and states that he is not willing to consider altering his cART regimen at present.
What is the most appropriate management step to treat Mr Johnson?Your Answer: Hold his ART
Correct Answer: Commence rifabutin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrazinamide
Explanation:To avoid potential drug interactions with the patient’s current antiretroviral therapy, the recommended treatment for tuberculosis in this scenario is to use rifabutin, isoniazid, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide. Rifampicin, a common rifamycin agent used in tuberculosis treatment, can induce liver enzymes and reduce the absorption of certain medications, including protease inhibitors. As the patient is stable on their current antiretroviral therapy and not willing to switch, substituting rifampicin with rifabutin or rifapentine is suggested by the British HIV Association. Regimes containing rifabutin have shown similar treatment outcomes in small observational studies in patients with HIV/TB co-infection.
Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications
Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months with a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves rifampicin and isoniazid. For latent tuberculosis, treatment involves three months of isoniazid and rifampicin or six months of isoniazid with pyridoxine. Patients with meningeal tuberculosis require prolonged treatment of at least 12 months with the addition of steroids.
Directly observed therapy may be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients with poor concordance. However, treatment can also lead to complications. Immune reconstitution disease can occur 3-6 weeks after starting treatment and often presents with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects can also occur, such as hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like symptoms, peripheral neuropathy, agranulocytosis, hyperuricaemia causing gout, arthralgia, myalgia, and optic neuritis. It is important to monitor patients for these complications and adjust treatment as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male presents to your clinic with a persistent cough, chest pain, difficulty breathing, chills, and sweats that have been ongoing for a week. Upon examination, he appears to be in relatively good health, with a temperature of 38°C and blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. His respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute, and there are some crepitations upon auscultation. His urea level is 4.5 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L), and he has a known penicillin allergy. How would you approach the treatment of this patient?
Your Answer: IV ceftriaxone 2 g od plus IV clarithromycin
Correct Answer: Oral doxycycline 200 mg loading then 100 mg od for one week
Explanation:Treatment Options for Low Severity Pneumonia in a Patient Allergic to Penicillin
When a patient presents with pneumonia, the severity of their condition is assessed using the CURB-65 score. In this particular case, the patient has a score of 1, indicating very low severity pneumonia. However, the patient is also allergic to penicillin, which limits the treatment options available.
One effective treatment option for this patient is doxycycline alone. This medication can effectively treat pneumonia in patients who are allergic to penicillin. However, other treatment options may be considered depending on the severity of the pneumonia.
IV ceftriaxone 2 g od plus IV clarithromycin 500 mg bd is a combination used to treat high severity pneumonia. While it would be effective in treating the patient’s pneumonia, it is unnecessary given the low severity of their condition.
Similarly, oral levofloxacin 500 mg od for five days and oral doxycycline 100 mg od plus oral clarithromycin 500 mg bd for five days are both effective treatments for moderate severity pneumonia. However, they are also unnecessary for this patient’s low severity pneumonia.
Overall, doxycycline alone is a suitable treatment option for this patient’s low severity pneumonia, given their allergy to penicillin. It is important to consider the severity of the pneumonia when selecting a treatment option, as more aggressive treatments may not be necessary for patients with low severity pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male refugee presents with fever, rigours and right flank pain. With the assistance of a translator, you discover that he has been feeling unwell for the past 7 days with symptoms that are progressively worsening. He claims to be otherwise healthy and not taking any regular medications. He moved to the UK 2 months ago after living his entire life in Sudan.
Upon examination, he has a temperature of 38.2 degrees, a heart rate of 98 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 110/70, and a respiratory rate of 20. He is lying calmly in bed but is tender over the renal angle on the right side.
Investigations reveal:
- Serum sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)
- Serum potassium 5.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Serum creatinine 240 mol/L (60-110)
- Haemoglobin 98 g/L (130-180)
- White cell count 15.4 × 109/L (4.0-11.0)
- Eosinophil count 0.89 × 109/L (0.04-0.40)
- Platelet count 378 × 109/L (150-400)
- Urine microscopy red cells 2+, white cells 3+, protein 2+
- Ultrasound scan of abdomen right-sided hydronephrosis and hydroureter, fibrotic and calcified bladder
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Schistosomiasis mansoni
Correct Answer: Schistosomiasis haematobium
Explanation:The patient is presenting with symptoms of acute pyelonephritis, including fever, rigours, and tenderness over the renal angle. However, further analysis of blood and imaging results suggest that there may be an underlying condition that has made the patient more susceptible to this infection.
Schistosoma mansoni, S. japonicum, S. mekongi, and S. intercalatum are parasites that produce eggs that can invade the bowel wall, causing inflammation and resulting in loose, bloody stools. These eggs can also migrate to the liver through the portal venous system, leading to a fibrosing reaction that can block venous blood flow and cause portal venous hypertension. This can result in varices and upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
S. haematobium, on the other hand, can cause inflammation and ulceration of the vesicle and ureteral walls, leading to fibrosis and potential obstruction of the bladder neck, hydroureter, and hydronephrosis. These changes can cause chronic renal impairment and increase the risk of secondary bacterial infection and squamous cell carcinoma.
All species of schistosomes can also lead to immune complex deposition in the kidneys, resulting in proteinuria and nephrotic syndrome.
Schistosomiasis, also known as bilharzia, is a type of parasitic flatworm infection caused by three main species of schistosome: S. mansoni, S. japonicum, and S. haematobium. Acute symptoms usually occur in individuals who travel to endemic areas and have no immunity to the worms. These symptoms may include fever, cough, urticaria/angioedema, eosinophilia, and acute schistosomiasis syndrome (Katayama fever). Chronic infections caused by S. haematobium can lead to bladder inflammation and calcification, which can cause an obstructive uropathy and kidney damage. Schistosoma mansoni and Schistosoma japonicum can lead to progressive hepatomegaly and splenomegaly due to portal vein congestion, as well as complications of liver cirrhosis, variceal disease, and cor pulmonale. Schistosoma intercalatum and Schistosoma mekongi are less common but can cause intestinal schistosomiasis. Diagnosis is typically done through urine or stool microscopy to look for eggs, and treatment involves a single oral dose of praziquantel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old man with a history of IV heroin use is brought to the Emergency Department with severe muscle spasms and abdominal pain. He reports difficulty finding clean needles and injection sites in recent weeks. On examination, there is an abscess in his right groin and he exhibits bilateral hyperreflexia and increased tone. When asked to swallow water, he begins to choke. Laboratory results show a low hemoglobin level, elevated white cell count and CRP, and abnormal liver function tests. What is the most suitable course of action at this point?
Your Answer: IM Anti-tetanus immunoglobulin
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Injection-Related Tetanus
The patient in question presents with increased tone and muscle spasms, along with a history of IV drug abuse, indicating injection-related tetanus. The elevated white count and CRP levels further support this diagnosis. However, the abnormal liver function tests may be related to viral hepatitis. Given the high risk of rapid deterioration, prophylactic intubation and ventilation may be necessary.
The first step in management should be the administration of IM Anti-tetanus immunoglobulin to prevent further spread of the tetanus toxin. Debridement of any abscess should be delayed until after the immunoglobulin has been given to avoid increasing the toxin load in the peripheral circulation.
IV immunoglobulin is not appropriate in this case, as it is used for Guillain Barré syndrome, which presents with flaccid paralysis, not the spastic paralysis seen in tetanus. Similarly, IV Methylprednisolone is not recommended due to the underlying tetanus infection. Corticosteroids are also ineffective in managing GBS.
IV Metronidazole may be used to reduce the duration of tetanus symptoms, but it should be used in conjunction with tetanus immunoglobulin and debridement of any abscess. Overall, prompt administration of IM Anti-tetanus immunoglobulin is crucial in managing this patient with injection-related tetanus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old intravenous drug user presents with bilateral groin abscesses.
After the abscesses are drained, the patient is prescribed intravenous flucloxacillin and gentamicin. However, 12 hours later, the patient complains of diplopia which worsens, and also experiences dysphagia and muscle weakness, requiring ventilatory support.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Aminoglycoside-induced neuromuscular blockade
Explanation:Neuromuscular Transmission and Muscle Relaxants
Aminoglycosides can negatively affect neuromuscular transmission and should not be administered to patients with myasthenia gravis. In addition, high doses given during surgery have been known to cause a temporary myasthenic syndrome in patients with normal neuromuscular function. Non-depolarising muscle relaxants, also known as competitive muscle relaxants, compete with acetylcholine for receptor sites at the neuromuscular junction. These muscle relaxants can be divided into two groups: the aminosteroid group (such as pancuronium and vecuronium) and the benzylisoquinolinium group (such as atracurium).
Wound botulism is another possible cause of neuromuscular paralysis, but it has a longer incubation period of four to 14 days. The symptoms of wound botulism are similar to those of this case, with descending, afebrile, symmetric paralysis that primarily affects the cranial nerves. However, there is typically an absence of gastrointestinal symptoms, which are common in botulism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Correct
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A 37-year-old man presents to the clinic with an increase in the frequency of his bowel movements over the past four days. He has a history of ulcerative colitis and is currently taking azathioprine 200 mg OD and mesalazine 2.4mg BD. He has not had a flare-up in two years and has been managing his condition well. He reports passing up to 10 watery stools a day, experiencing faecal urgency, and having nocturnal episodes. He also complains of cramping pain in his left iliac fossa. There is no blood or mucous in his stools. On examination, he has a fever of 38.2 degrees Celsius, a blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg, and a heart rate of 100/min. He is underweight with a BMI of 18.5 and is dehydrated. His abdomen is soft, but he is tender in the left iliac fossa. He refuses a PR examination. Respiratory and cardiovascular examinations are normal.
His blood tests reveal:
- Hb 110 g/l
- Platelets 189 * 109/l
- WBC 3.8 * 109/l
- Neutrophils 0.89 * 109/l
- INR 1.1 (0.9-1.2)
- Na+ 136 mmol/l
- K+ 4.9 mmol/l
- Urea 8.0 mmol/l
- Creatinine 100 µmol/l
- Magnesium 0.79 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
- Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.58)
- CRP 78 mg/l
- Bilirubin 5 µmol/l
- ALP 78 u/l
- ALT 28 u/l
- Albumin 33 g/l
He is started on IV hydrocortisone 100mg QDS and IV fluids. Stool specimens are sent and are reported as negative for C. difficile toxin. The next day, he undergoes a flexible sigmoidoscopy which reveals widespread left-sided colitis. The biopsy results show the presence of inclusion bodies in the colonic mucosa. What is the appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Ganciclovir
Explanation:The individual is suffering from CMV colitis, which may occur as a result of immunosuppressive medications like azathioprine. Symptoms may include fever, diarrhea, and possibly blood in the stool. In patients with IBD who are taking immunosuppressants, it may manifest as a flare-up. Biopsy results typically show inclusion bodies. Treatment with an antiviral medication, such as ganciclovir, is highly effective.
Understanding Cytomegalovirus
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a type of herpes virus that is believed to have infected around 50% of the population. However, it usually only causes disease in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV or those who have undergone organ transplantation and are taking immunosuppressants.
When cells are infected with CMV, they develop an Owl’s eye appearance due to the presence of intranuclear inclusion bodies. The virus can cause a range of diseases, including congenital CMV infection, CMV mononucleosis, CMV retinitis, CMV encephalopathy, CMV pneumonitis, and CMV colitis.
Congenital CMV infection can lead to growth retardation, microcephaly, sensorineural deafness, encephalitis, and hepatosplenomegaly. CMV mononucleosis can cause an illness similar to infectious mononucleosis in individuals with healthy immune systems. CMV retinitis is common in HIV patients with a low CD4 count and can cause visual impairment, retinal hemorrhages, and necrosis. CMV encephalopathy and CMV pneumonitis can also occur in individuals with HIV who have low CD4 counts.
Overall, understanding CMV and its potential effects is important for individuals with weakened immune systems and healthcare professionals who treat them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old sheep farmer presents to the Emergency Department with jaundice, fevers and right upper quadrant pain, which has developed over the past 24 hours. He also has diarrhoea and feels that he is passing much smaller amounts of dark urine compared to his normal toilet habits. He tells you that he has been clearing dead wood out of some flooded hedges over the past few days. Examination reveals a temperature of 38.9 °C and his blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg; pulse is 95 bpm. He is jaundiced. Abdominal palpation reveals marked right upper quadrant tenderness. Investigations show abnormal results for Haemoglobin (Hb), White cell count (WCC), Platelets (PLT), Sodium (Na+), Potassium (K+), Creatinine (Cr), International normalised ratio (INR), Glucose, Alanine aminotransferase (ALT), Alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and Bilirubin. The patient's urine shows Blood ++ and Protein ++. What is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy for this patient?
Your Answer: Oral doxycycline
Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Severe Leptospirosis: Choosing the Right Antibiotic
Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection that can cause severe symptoms such as fever, jaundice, and renal impairment. When treating severe cases of leptospirosis, intravenous antibiotics are the appropriate choice. Oral antibiotics like amoxicillin or doxycycline are only effective for mild to moderate forms of the infection.
The first choice for severe leptospirosis treatment is IV benzylpenicillin or IV cephalosporins. In this case, the patient requires IV benzylpenicillin due to the severity of their condition. Other supportive measures, such as correcting clotting abnormalities, should also be considered.
While macrolides like clarithromycin or azithromycin can be used in mild to moderate disease, they are not appropriate for severe cases. Similarly, doxycycline is only indicated for mild to moderate forms of the infection.
It is important to note that the role of steroids in treating leptospirosis has not been fully established. However, they may reduce the risk of vasculitic complications such as pulmonary haemorrhage and acute renal failure. Overall, choosing the right antibiotic is crucial in effectively treating severe leptospirosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department for review. She returned from a trip to Thailand a few days ago, during which she had unprotected sexual intercourse with a number of men. She had an onset of multiple vesicles which has now formed into multiple ulcers and she has developed burning and tingling over her vulva. On examination she is pyrexial 38.2°C, her BP is 120/80 mmHg; pulse is 80/min and regular. There are multiple small, shallow, painful ulcers over the vulva and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. The ulcers are swabbed and she is referred to the GUM clinic.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Oral Aciclovir
Explanation:Treatment Options for Genital Herpes: Oral Aciclovir
Genital herpes is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by the herpes simplex virus. The standard treatment for genital herpes is oral Aciclovir, which is administered at a dose of 200 mg five times daily or 400 mg three times daily for five days. In patients with a history of HIV, a more prolonged course of aciclovir may be required. Anti-viral therapy with Aciclovir reduces the severity and duration of herpes episodes, but does not impact on the overall course of the disease.
It is important to note that chancroid is a differential diagnosis of genital herpes, but it usually presents with a single deep purulent ulcer, although in less common cases multiple can be present. Lymphadenopathy occurs usually 1 week after the onset of the initial ulcer in such cases.
Other treatment options such as IM Penicillin, Oral Azithromycin, Topical Aciclovir, and Oral Famciclovir are not recommended for the treatment of primary genital herpes. IM Penicillin is the standard treatment for syphilis, while Azithromycin is an alternative therapy for primary syphilis. Topical Aciclovir is ineffective for the treatment of primary genital herpes versus oral options. Oral Famciclovir is an option for recurrent herpes, but is not usually considered as an initial therapy. Therefore, oral Aciclovir remains the preferred treatment option for genital herpes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman visits her doctor with concerns about her potential exposure to chickenpox at a family gathering she attended two days ago. She reports no prior history of chickenpox and is anxious about the potential impact on her unborn child. She is currently feeling well and has no notable symptoms.
Upon examination, her vital signs are within normal limits. Her lungs are clear and her heart sounds regular. Her abdomen is soft, and her uterus is palpable, consistent with 22 weeks of gestation.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Varicella antibody testing
Explanation:Management options for varicella-zoster infection in pregnancy
Varicella-zoster infection during pregnancy can have serious consequences for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, prompt identification of immunity is crucial to determine the appropriate management option. Here are the different options available:
Varicella antibody testing: This test determines whether the patient has immunity to the varicella-zoster virus. If the result is negative, treatment with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin may be indicated.
Neonatal varicella immunoglobulin: This treatment is only necessary if the mother develops chickenpox seven days before to seven days after delivery.
Aciclovir prophylaxis: This medication is given as prophylaxis to patients who are over 20 weeks pregnant and have been exposed to varicella-zoster infection. It can also be administered as treatment for acute infection.
Varicella immunisation: This live vaccine should be used with caution in pregnant women. It is not effective in the acute setting and is not the most appropriate management option.
Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin: This treatment is the correct option if the patient has a negative varicella antibody result. However, it should only be given after the patient has been tested for varicella-zoster.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits the Sexual Health Clinic for evaluation. She is five months’ pregnant and has had dysuria and vague lower abdominal pain for the past few days. She recently ended a long-term relationship after discovering her partner had been unfaithful.
During the examination, her temperature is 37.2 °C, blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, and abdomen appear normal. Chlamydia testing is positive, but urine culture is negative for common urinary tract infection pathogens.
What is the best course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Azithromycin PO
Explanation:Azithromycin is the recommended treatment for chlamydia in pregnant women due to its safety and effectiveness as a single 1 g dose. Ofloxacin is not recommended in pregnancy due to the risk of arthropathy in animal models. Amoxicillin is safe but has the potential to cause latency and re-emergence of infection. Benzylpenicillin is not indicated for chlamydia. Doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the risk of fetal bone growth suppression and teeth staining. A test of cure is recommended six weeks after azithromycin treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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