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  • Question 1 - Which illness is most commonly caused by adenovirus infection from the list provided?...

    Correct

    • Which illness is most commonly caused by adenovirus infection from the list provided?

      Your Answer: Respiratory infection

      Explanation:

      Adenovirus: A Highly Contagious and Diverse Virus

      Adenovirus is a DNA virus that was first discovered in the 1950s and is named after the adenoid tissue-derived cell cultures in which it was isolated. This virus is extremely hardy and can survive outside a host for long periods, making it ubiquitous in human and animal populations throughout the year. With 52 serotypes, adenovirus is responsible for causing various syndromes and is transmitted through direct inoculation, the faecal-oral route, aerosol droplets, or exposure to infected tissue or blood. Although it most commonly affects infants and children, severe morbidity and mortality associated with adenovirus infections are rare in immunocompetent hosts.

      Adenovirus infections are highly contagious and most commonly occur in the spring and winter months. While approximately half of respiratory infections caused by adenovirus do not cause symptoms, acute respiratory disease is the most common presentation. Symptoms of adenoviral infection include fever, rhinorrhoea, cough, and sore throat, which typically last for 3-5 days. Tonsillitis and otitis media may also occur, and adenoviruses account for 10% of all childhood lower respiratory tract infections. Additionally, adenovirus can cause conjunctivitis, gastroenteritis, and acute haemorrhagic cystitis, especially in young children.

      In conclusion, adenovirus is a highly contagious and diverse virus that can cause a range of symptoms and complications. It is important to take precautions to prevent its spread, especially during peak seasons, and to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old man seeks guidance from his General Practitioner. He has struggled with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man seeks guidance from his General Practitioner. He has struggled with alcoholism for 8 years, but has recently completed a successful in-patient drug rehabilitation program. What advice can the GP offer to help him maintain sobriety?

      Your Answer: Take naltrexone before attending parties, as even one drink will make him nauseous

      Correct Answer: Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Alcoholics

      For individuals struggling with alcoholism, active involvement in Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is often the most effective way to prevent relapses. AA requires complete abstinence from alcohol, which is crucial for those with a high tolerance to alcohol who are at risk of relapsing even with moderate drinking. However, medications such as disulfiram should only be administered under medical supervision due to potentially fatal side effects. Naltrexone can be prescribed in conjunction with a support program to aid in recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You see a 13-year-old boy who has burns on his hands. Three months...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 13-year-old boy who has burns on his hands. Three months ago he had a fractured radius.

      You talk to him and he reveals that his father has been causing the injuries. You inform him that you will be referring him to child protection services, but he pleads with you not to. He comprehends the situation and the role of the child protection team, but he expresses his love for his family and doesn't want to be separated from them. You are familiar with his father and his grandfather, as they are all patients of yours.

      What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer: Contact her mother and ask her to consent to the referral

      Correct Answer: Refer her to the child protection team

      Explanation:

      Referring Child Abuse Cases: A Doctor’s Responsibility

      As a doctor, it is your responsibility to protect children and young people from abuse. In cases where there is ongoing risk of serious abuse, it is important to refer the child in a timely manner, even if it goes against their wishes. This is because the safety of the child should always be the top priority.

      According to the General Medical Council (UK), doctors have a duty to protect children and young people from harm. Referring cases of abuse is a crucial step in ensuring their safety. It is important to act quickly and make the necessary referrals to safeguard the child’s well-being. Even if the child expresses reluctance or resistance to the referral, it is important to prioritize their safety and take appropriate action. By doing so, doctors can fulfill their responsibility to protect vulnerable children and young people from harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      65.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A study of 1000 participants aims to determine the normal range for a...

    Incorrect

    • A study of 1000 participants aims to determine the normal range for a number of parameters in a South East London population.

      It is found in the analysis there is a strong positive correlation between age and blood pressure.

      Which statistical technique may be used to predict blood pressure at any given age in this cohort?

      Your Answer: Chi-square test

      Correct Answer: Linear regression

      Explanation:

      Linear regression is a statistical method used to model the relationship between two variables by fitting a linear equation to observed data. This equation takes the form y = mx + c, where ‘y’ is the dependent variable, ‘x’ is the independent variable, ‘m’ is the slope of the line and ‘c’ is the intercept. By analyzing a scatter plot, linear regression can be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed. For example, a line of best fit can be mapped to a scatter plot of heights and forced expiratory volume (FEV1) to predict an individual’s FEV1 based on their height.

      Correlation, measured by Pearson’s correlation or Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient, indicates the strength of an association between two continuous variables but cannot be used to predict the change in one variable when a second variable is altered. The chi-square test and Fisher’s exact test are used to assess whether an association exists between two categorical variables, such as social class and body mass index (BMI) category. The Kaplan-Meier estimate is used to measure survival over time, such as the number of patients still alive in the five years after commencing chemotherapy for lung cancer. A forest plot is a graphical display that summarizes results from a number of studies, such as a meta-analysis of a series of randomized controlled trials.

      Understanding Correlation and Linear Regression

      Correlation and linear regression are two statistical methods used to analyze the relationship between variables. While they are related, they are not interchangeable. Correlation is used to determine if there is a relationship between two variables, while regression is used to predict the value of one variable based on the value of another variable.

      The degree of correlation is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can range from -1 to +1. A coefficient of 1 indicates a strong positive correlation, while a coefficient of -1 indicates a strong negative correlation. A coefficient of 0 indicates no correlation between the variables. However, correlation coefficients do not provide information on how much the variable will change or the cause and effect relationship between the variables.

      Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable will change when another variable is changed. A regression equation can be formed to calculate the value of the dependent variable based on the value of the independent variable. The equation takes the form of y = a + bx, where y is the dependent variable, a is the intercept value, b is the slope of the line or regression coefficient, and x is the independent variable.

      In summary, correlation and linear regression are both useful tools for analyzing the relationship between variables. Correlation determines if there is a relationship, while regression predicts the value of one variable based on the value of another variable. Understanding these concepts can help in making informed decisions and drawing accurate conclusions from data analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      263.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old male with type 1 diabetes has been diagnosed with microalbuminuria during...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male with type 1 diabetes has been diagnosed with microalbuminuria during his yearly check-up. He is aware of other patients with type 1 diabetes who have developed renal failure and required dialysis a few years after being diagnosed with nephropathy. When examining his vascular risk profile, which parameter is most likely to decrease the risk of future renal failure?

      Your Answer: BP <145 systolic

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Managing Nephropathy Progression

      Tight control of blood pressure and glucose levels is crucial in managing the progression of nephropathy. The recommended target for systolic blood pressure is 130 or less, while the HbA1c target should be less than 53 mmol/mol. Although BMI, diastolic blood pressure, and cholesterol are relevant factors, they are less significant compared to blood pressure and glucose control.

      Among all antihypertensives, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) have the strongest evidence for reducing nephropathy progression. Therefore, it is important to prioritize these medications in the management of nephropathy. Proper management of blood pressure and glucose levels, along with the use of ACE inhibitors and ARBs, can significantly slow down the progression of nephropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      192
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 4-year-old child presents to the out of hours service with a two-night...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child presents to the out of hours service with a two-night history of earache. The child has a fever, but no ear discharge. There is no vomiting, but loose stool was reported twice today and the child passed urine four hours ago. The child had a similar episode six months ago that resolved with antibiotics. The child has no significant medical history. On examination, the child is well hydrated, has no rash, and clear chest. The left ear has an erythematous bulging eardrum with no perforation or discharge. The right ear and throat show no abnormalities, and there is no cervical lymphadenopathy or mastoid tenderness. The child has a fever of 39°C, HR 130, RR 30, CRT <2 sec. Based on the NICE 'traffic light' system, what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Admit to paediatrics as child is at high risk of serious illness

      Correct Answer: Advise on fluids and regular analgesia and send home with worsening advice as low risk of serious illness

      Explanation:

      Management of Unilateral Otitis Media in Primary Care

      This child doesn’t exhibit any life-threatening symptoms or signs of serious illness. Based on the NICE ‘traffic light’ system, there are no ‘red’ or ‘amber’ indicators. The most probable diagnosis is unilateral otitis media, which can be safely managed in primary care. Parents should be advised to administer Calpol and/or Nurofen for pain relief and encourage oral fluids. The average duration of acute otitis media is four days.

      Immediate antibiotics are only necessary for children with bilateral acute otitis media under the age of two, otorrhoea, systemic illness, symptoms and signs of serious illness and/or complications, or high risk of complications due to pre-existing comorbidity. Despite national guidelines, a large primary care study has shown that antibiotic prescribing remains high. Antibiotic prescriptions for otitis media have increased from 77% in 1995 to 85% in 2011. Therefore, it is crucial to educate patients on the natural duration of common infections and the potential harm of inappropriate antibiotic use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      101
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 57-year-old woman comes to your clinic concerned about her bone health. She...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman comes to your clinic concerned about her bone health. She underwent a private DEXA scan after her sister was diagnosed with osteoporosis and the results showed a T-score of -1.9 for the femoral neck. Upon physical examination, there are no notable findings. What would be the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Do a FRAX assessment

      Explanation:

      To accurately evaluate the fracture risk of this woman, the FRAX assessment is necessary, which includes the crucial element of measuring bone mineral density.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      67
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old patient has a 3-day history of general malaise associated with nausea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient has a 3-day history of general malaise associated with nausea, diarrhoea and headache. On examination the patient looks unwell and has red/bluish petechiae on the extensor surfaces of both legs that do not blanch on pressure.
      Select the single most important immediate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Prehospital Antibiotic Treatment for Suspected Meningococcal Infection

      Health authorities in many countries recommend that general practitioners initiate prehospital antibiotic treatment, such as benzylpenicillin, in suspected cases of meningococcal infection. The primary objective of this strategy is to halt the rapid growth of meningococci in the bloodstream before intravascular inflammation becomes irreversible or causes severe complications. Patients who live far from the hospital and experience rapidly progressing symptoms, resulting in compromised circulation and extensive haemorrhagic skin lesions, are most likely to benefit from this approach if implemented early enough. Retrospective studies conducted in England and Wales indicate that prehospital penicillin treatment can reduce case fatality. In cases of penicillin allergy, cefotaxime is a viable alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up and reveals that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up and reveals that he consumes over 60 units of alcohol per week. The GP conducts an assessment to ascertain if the patient has alcohol dependence syndrome.
      If the diagnosis is accurate, what is the most probable indication?
      Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Withdrawal symptoms

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Dependence Syndrome: Symptoms and Behaviors

      Alcohol dependence syndrome is a serious condition that can have a significant impact on an individual’s life. Withdrawal symptoms are a common occurrence when someone tries to stop drinking, including feeling sick, trembling, sweating, and craving for alcohol. In some cases, convulsions and delirium tremens may occur. It is not uncommon for an individual to find it difficult to stop drinking due to these symptoms.

      Alcohol dependence syndrome can also have a negative impact on an individual’s family and career. The individual may find it difficult to function in both roles due to exhaustion and decreased sleep quality. Additionally, tolerance to alcohol tends to increase rather than decrease, requiring larger quantities to achieve the same effect.

      Reinstatement after a period of abstinence, commonly referred to as falling off the wagon, is a significant and common problem in addictive behavior. However, preferential drinking of spirits over beer is not necessarily an indication of alcohol dependence syndrome. It is important to understand the symptoms and behaviors associated with alcohol dependence syndrome to seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 76-year-old patient comes to you complaining of intense pain in their right...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old patient comes to you complaining of intense pain in their right shoulder. After an X-ray examination, it is discovered that they have a pathological fracture in their proximal humerus. Which primary solid tumor cancer groups are most prone to metastasizing to bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast, lung, thyroid, colorectal, cervix

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pathological Fractures in the Elderly

      Pathological fractures are fractures that occur due to weakened bones caused by underlying medical conditions. While any type of bone tumour can cause pathological fractures, the majority of cases in the elderly are due to metastatic carcinomas. This is because as people age, their risk of developing cancer increases. Multiple myeloma, a type of cancer that affects the bone marrow, is also common in the elderly and has a high incidence of pathological fractures. Lymphoma, although uncommon, can also cause pathological fractures.

      It is important to keep this information in mind when evaluating elderly patients who present with musculoskeletal problems such as shoulder or back pain. A thorough medical history and physical examination can help identify the underlying cause of the fracture and guide appropriate treatment. By understanding the common causes of pathological fractures in the elderly, healthcare providers can provide better care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 42-year-old woman requests a prescription for travel sickness medication.
    Select the single correct...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman requests a prescription for travel sickness medication.
      Select the single correct statement regarding the treatment of motion sickness.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cinnarazine should be started before travel

      Explanation:

      Preventing Travel Sickness: Effective Drugs and Side-Effects

      Travel sickness can be prevented by taking medication before experiencing nausea or vomiting. The most effective drug is hyoscine, which can be administered through a transdermal patch for prolonged activity. However, hyoscine may cause side-effects such as dry mouth, drowsiness, and blurred vision. Sedating antihistamines are slightly less effective but are generally better tolerated. Promethazine is useful for its sedative effect, but a less sedating antihistamine like cyclizine or cinnarizine is preferred. Domperidone, metoclopramide, 5HT3-receptor antagonists (e.g. ondansetron), and phenothiazines (e.g. prochlorperazine) except for promethazine are ineffective in preventing travel sickness. Prochlorperazine is commonly used to relieve nausea and vomiting but has not been proven to prevent motion sickness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What are the indications for tonsillectomy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the indications for tonsillectomy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parental pressure

      Explanation:

      Indications for Tonsillectomy

      The SIGN guidelines for tonsillectomy have been updated to suggest seven acute attacks of proven tonsillitis in one year or five in each of two successive years as an indication for the procedure. Weight loss alone is not a sufficient indication, but complications such as nephritis and rheumatic fever, as well as peritonsillar abscess, are. Children with obstructive sleep apnoea have also been shown to benefit from tonsillectomy. Malignancy is an absolute indication. However, three attacks in two years and two attacks in two months are considered too short a period to warrant tonsillectomy. It is important to note that while children may experience an improvement in general health post-tonsillectomy, weight loss alone is not a valid indication for the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation after experiencing some palpitations. She has no other medical history and only takes atorvastatin for high cholesterol. She has no symptoms currently and her observations are stable with a heart rate of 75 beats per minute. Her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.

      What would be the appropriate next step in managing Sophie's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for an echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      When a patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score that suggests they do not need anticoagulation, it is recommended to perform a transthoracic echo to rule out valvular heart disease. The CHA2DS2-VASc score is used to assess the risk of stroke in AF patients, and anticoagulant treatment is generally indicated for those with a score of two or more. Rivaroxaban is an anticoagulant that can be used in AF, but it is not necessary in this scenario. Aspirin should not be used to prevent stroke in AF patients. If a patient requires rate control for fast AF, beta-blockers are the first line of treatment. Digoxin is only used for patients with a more sedentary lifestyle and doesn’t protect against stroke. It is important to perform a transthoracic echo in AF patients, especially if it may change their management or refine their risk of stroke and need for anticoagulation.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old man presents to his GP for a review of his depression....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents to his GP for a review of his depression. He mentions that he recently applied for Universal Credit due to financial struggles after being made redundant. He requests a copy of his medical record to support his claim.

      The patient is currently single and resides alone in the UK. He was last employed six months ago with a private car detailing company, where he worked for over five years before leaving due to mental health issues. He has savings of approximately £20,000. He has no siblings or children, and his parents passed away in a car accident seven years ago.

      What is the probable outcome of his Universal Credit application?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He is not eligible as he has more than £16,000 in savings

      Explanation:

      If you have savings exceeding £16,000, you are not eligible to receive Universal Credit. To qualify for Universal Credit, you must be 18 or over (with some exceptions for 16 to 17-year-olds), have a low income or be unemployed, be under State Pension age (or have a partner who is), have savings of £16,000 or less between you and your partner, and live in the UK. While medical conditions or dependents do not impact your eligibility, they may affect the amount of payment you receive.

      Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies

      Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.

      The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.

      Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.

      Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
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  • Question 15 - Your patient, who has been discharged after a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction, is...

    Incorrect

    • Your patient, who has been discharged after a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction, is unsure if he has experienced a heart attack. Which statement from the list accurately describes non-ST elevation myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a risk of recurrent infarction in up to 10% in the first month

      Explanation:

      Understanding Non-ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI) and Unstable Angina

      Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) is a condition that is diagnosed in patients with chest pain who have elevated troponin T levels without the typical ECG changes of acute MI, such as Q-waves and ST elevation. Instead, there may be persistent or transient ST-segment depression or T-wave inversion, flat T waves, pseudo-normalisation of T waves, or no ECG changes at all. On the other hand, unstable angina is diagnosed when there is chest pain but no rise in troponin levels.

      Despite their differences, both NSTEMI and unstable angina are grouped together as acute coronary syndromes. In the acute phase, 5-10% of patients may experience death or re-infarction. Additionally, another 5-10% of patients may experience death due to recurrent myocardial infarction in the month after an acute episode.

      To manage these patients, many units take an aggressive approach with early angiography and angioplasty. By understanding the differences between NSTEMI and unstable angina, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate and timely treatment to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 16-year-old male is brought to clinic as his parents are concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male is brought to clinic as his parents are concerned about changes in his behaviour.

      Which of the following suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Feelings of panic in buses and shops

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Schizophrenia, Anxiety Disorder, and Mania

      Incongruity of affect is a symptom of schizophrenia where the emotion expressed is inappropriate to the circumstances. Although it is not considered a primary symptom, it is consistent with the diagnosis. Auditory hallucinations, particularly third person, are typical of schizophrenia, but clouding of consciousness is not. On the other hand, panic in crowds is indicative of an anxiety disorder, while grandiose ideations suggest mania. It is important to note that these symptoms may overlap and coexist in some cases, making it crucial to seek professional help for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
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  • Question 17 - What is the appropriate management for post-herpetic neuralgia in a 75-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate management for post-herpetic neuralgia in a 75-year-old man who is still experiencing it three months after suffering an attack of thoracic herpes zoster?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline is the first line treatment for neuropathic pain uncontrolled by simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      Managing Neuropathic Pain: NICE Guidelines and Recommended Treatments

      Neuropathic pain can be a challenging condition to manage, but the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines to help healthcare professionals choose the most effective treatments. According to NICE, the first-line treatments for neuropathic pain (excluding trigeminal neuralgia) are oral amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. These medications should be tried one at a time, and the dosage can be gradually increased until pain is controlled or side effects occur.

      It’s important to note that using amitriptyline for neuropathic pain is an unlicensed indication, but it has been shown to be effective. If the first-line treatments don’t work, another one should be tried. Tramadol is not recommended for regular use in a non-specialist setting, but it can be used as rescue therapy. Strong opioids like morphine should also be avoided.

      For people with localized neuropathic pain who cannot tolerate oral treatments, capsaicin cream may be a good option. However, the intense burning sensation may limit its use. Versatis® is licensed for post-herpetic neuralgia, but it should only be used for 12 hours a day, followed by a 12-hour plaster-free period. If there is no response after four weeks, it should be discontinued. While NICE doesn’t comment on its use, the Scottish Medicines Consortium accepts it as a treatment option when first-line therapies are ineffective or not tolerated.

      In summary, managing neuropathic pain requires a tailored approach, and healthcare professionals should work closely with their patients to find the most effective treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 18 - A 38-year-old woman contacts the surgery regarding an ESA113 form for employment support...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman contacts the surgery regarding an ESA113 form for employment support allowance.

      She has type 1 diabetes, has had a partial amputation of her left leg and is having to attend the haemodialysis clinic.

      Which one of the following is true with respect to completing the form?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You are obliged to fill in the form under terms of service

      Explanation:

      Importance of Completing Employment Support Allowance Form

      The Employment Support Allowance (ESA) form is included in Schedule 9 of the BMA’s guidance document on medical certificates and reports. This means that GPs are required to complete the form as part of their terms and conditions of service. Refusing to complete the form or charging for it would greatly disadvantage the patient.

      It is important for GPs to complete the ESA form as it is a crucial document for patients who are unable to work due to illness or disability. Without this form, patients may not be able to receive the financial support they need to cover their living expenses. Therefore, it is essential that GPs fulfill their obligation to complete the ESA form and do not charge patients for it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
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  • Question 19 - You receive a 'friend request' on Facebook from a patient of a similar...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a 'friend request' on Facebook from a patient of a similar age to yourself who you had a consult with earlier that day. What would be the most appropriate course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decline friendship request and write a polite letter to the patient explaining it would be inappropriate

      Explanation:

      The General Medical Council has issued specific guidelines regarding the use of social media by doctors. According to these guidelines, if a patient contacts a doctor through their private profile regarding their care or other professional matters, the doctor should make it clear that they cannot mix social and professional relationships. The text implies that there is a risk of blurring boundaries if a doctor finds a patient attractive and receives a friend request from them. Therefore, it would be appropriate to decline the request. However, this doesn’t warrant removing the patient from the practice list. As long as professional boundaries are maintained, the patient can continue to receive care from the doctor.

      Duties of a Doctor According to the General Medical Council

      The General Medical Council has outlined the duties of a doctor in providing care to patients. The first and foremost duty is to prioritize the care of the patient. This includes protecting and promoting the health of patients and the public, providing a good standard of practice and care, and keeping professional knowledge and skills up to date. Doctors must also recognize and work within the limits of their competence and work with colleagues in the best interest of patients.

      In addition to providing medical care, doctors must treat patients with respect and dignity. This includes treating patients politely and considerately and respecting their right to confidentiality. Doctors must also work in partnership with patients, listening to their concerns and preferences, providing information in a way they can understand, and respecting their right to make decisions about their treatment and care.

      Finally, doctors must act with honesty, integrity, and without discrimination. They must act without delay if they believe that they or a colleague may be putting patients at risk and never abuse the trust of patients or the public’s trust in the profession.

      Overall, the duties of a doctor are to provide the best possible care to patients while respecting their rights and acting with honesty and integrity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 20 - You see a 28-year-old female patient with painful mouth ulcers. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 28-year-old female patient with painful mouth ulcers. She has been experiencing coryzal symptoms for the past week. The patient has around 5 small shallow ulcers scattered around her gums and inside her cheeks. The ulcers have been present for 2 days, and she is having difficulty eating and drinking. The patient has no significant medical history and is generally healthy. She smokes 5-10 cigarettes daily.

      What is the accurate statement about aphthous mouth ulcers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aphthous ulcers are more common in non-smokers

      Explanation:

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 21 - A 56-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and ischaemic heart disease presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and ischaemic heart disease presents to the clinic with a complaint of lethargy lasting for 3 months. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Hb: 9.6 g/dl
      - MCV: 123 fl
      - Plt: 164 * 109/l
      - WCC: 4.6 *109/l

      Which medication is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Adverse Effects of Phenytoin

      Phenytoin is a medication commonly used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects that can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic.

      Acute adverse effects of phenytoin include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic adverse effects may include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia.

      Idiosyncratic adverse effects of phenytoin may include fever, rashes, including severe reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Finally, teratogenic adverse effects of phenytoin are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease.

      It is important to note that phenytoin is also an inducer of the P450 system. While routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked immediately before a dose if there is a need for adjustment of the phenytoin dose, suspected toxicity, or detection of non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 49-year-old woman who breeds parrots presents with a dry cough, fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman who breeds parrots presents with a dry cough, fever and myalgia. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.8°C and there are no other notable findings. You advise her to take fluids and paracetamol and to contact you if her symptoms do not improve. She returns after a week with a worsening cough that is now accompanied by blood and a severe headache. During the examination, you observe a faint macular rash on her face, and she has mild tachypnoea but minimal chest signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psittacosis

      Explanation:

      Psittacosis: A Rare Illness Caused by Bird Exposure

      Psittacosis is a rare illness caused by Chlamydophila psittaci, which is carried by birds, particularly parrots. The incubation period is 1-4 weeks, and symptoms include myalgia, cough, headache, and flu-like symptoms. It presents as a community-acquired pneumonia with marked signs of systemic illness, including fever and lassitude. Other symptoms include a non-productive cough, dyspnoea, sore throat, nosebleeds, and occasionally pleuritic chest pain. Severe headache and photophobia are common, and gastrointestinal symptoms may occur. Rose spots, called Horder’s spots, can appear on the face. The chest x-ray may look worse than the clinical signs suggest, and bradycardia and splenomegaly are common. Treatment is with tetracycline, and the prognosis is good if early antibiotic therapy is given.

      Compared to influenza, which typically lasts for 3-5 days, psittacosis has a more gradual onset and lasts longer. L pneumophila is another possible cause of atypical pneumonia, but exposure to birds points to psittacosis. Typical community-acquired pneumonia, such as pneumococcal pneumonia, has a more acute onset and significant focal chest signs. Therefore, it is important to consider psittacosis in patients with bird exposure and atypical pneumonia symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 23 - A 79-year-old male patient of yours scores 7/10 on the abbreviated mental test...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old male patient of yours scores 7/10 on the abbreviated mental test score.
      He says he is a bit worried about his memory. He is a retired lawyer. The three questions he got wrong related to short-term memory loss.
      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diagnose dementia

      Explanation:

      Management of Memory Loss in the Elderly

      MRCGP candidates are expected to have an understanding of the management of conditions commonly associated with old age, including memory loss. However, the correct course of management for memory loss would be to undertake a full assessment in the first instance. The abbreviated mental test is only a screening test and should not be used alone to form a diagnosis. If a significant problem is found, it is usual to refer to memory assessment services, which may be provided by a memory assessment clinic or community mental health teams. This should be the single point of referral for all people with a possible diagnosis of dementia. GPs would not normally initiate prescribing in this manner, although they may be involved in a shared care arrangement with specialist initiation and supervision of medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 24 - A father brings his 10-year-old daughter to the GP surgery with heel pain....

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 10-year-old daughter to the GP surgery with heel pain. It started two-weeks ago on both heels. The pain is localised to the heel and is worse following exercise and gets better on resting. There is no reported swelling, stiffness or redness. There are no other joint complaints. She is well in herself with no temperature symptoms, night sweats or weight loss. There is no history of trauma. She is an active child and plays for the soccer team at school.

      On examination, her gait and range of movements of her ankle joints are normal. Her temperature is 37.2ºC. Apart from mild swelling over both heels, there is no redness on the heel or other swellings of the foot joints. There is no tenderness on palpation of the Achilles tendon and the plantar aspect of the foot. Pain is elicited on squeezing the sides of both heels.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcaneal apophysitis

      Explanation:

      Sever’s disease, also known as calcaneal apophysitis, should be considered as a possible cause of heel pain in children and adolescents. It is characterized by swelling and irritation of the growth plate in the heel, and is often seen in active kids who are going through a growth spurt. Tenderness and swelling in the affected area are common symptoms.

      Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the connective tissue supporting the arch of the foot. It typically presents as unilateral pain and tenderness in the plantar aspect of the foot, which was not observed in this case. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms.

      Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that usually affects the edges of long bones, such as the femur. It can cause bone pain and interfere with normal activities, but is often accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever, weight loss, and fatigue. Since the child did not exhibit these symptoms, osteosarcoma is an unlikely diagnosis.

      Achilles tendinitis is a condition that often develops after an injury, and is characterized by pain and swelling in the Achilles or ankle joints. However, since there was no history of trauma in this case, Achilles tendinitis is also an unlikely cause of the child’s symptoms.

      Understanding Calcaneal Apophysitis (Sever Disease)

      Calcaneal apophysitis, commonly known as Sever disease, is a condition that causes heel pain in active children. It is an overuse injury that occurs when the growth plate in the heel bone becomes inflamed due to repetitive stress. This condition is most common in children between the ages of 8 and 14 who participate in sports that involve running and jumping.

      The pain associated with Sever disease is typically felt in the back or bottom of the heel and can be severe enough to limit a child’s activity level. Rest, ice, and stretching exercises are often recommended as initial treatment options. In some cases, orthotics or heel lifts may be prescribed to help alleviate symptoms.

      It is important for parents and coaches to be aware of the signs and symptoms of Sever disease, as early intervention can prevent the condition from worsening and potentially causing long-term damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old healthcare worker receives a needlestick injury from a patient who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old healthcare worker receives a needlestick injury from a patient who is not known to be a carrier of blood-borne viral infections and is thought to be a low risk of having such an infection.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate action.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take blood for virology (HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C) from the injured worker

      Explanation:

      Risks and Guidelines for Healthcare Workers Exposed to Bloodborne Pathogens

      Healthcare workers are at risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. While the risk of transmission is low, it is important to follow clear guidelines from the Department of Health to ensure the safety of the worker.

      If a healthcare worker is exposed to blood, they should have blood taken for virology to check for HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. If there is a significant risk of HIV, post-exposure prophylaxis with antiretroviral therapy should be started as soon as possible. HIV status and hepatitis serology should be rechecked at 3 and 6 months, and liver function tests should be performed and repeated at these intervals as well. Female workers should also have their β-hCG level checked to exclude pregnancy.

      Ideally, a sample of blood should be obtained from the donor to determine if they are a potential source of infection. Healthcare workers should already be immune to hepatitis B from previous immunization, but if not, they may need to receive the vaccine.

      In summary, healthcare workers should be aware of the risks associated with exposure to bloodborne pathogens and follow the appropriate guidelines to ensure their safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of mouth pain and halitosis. During examination, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of mouth pain and halitosis. During examination, it is observed that he has poor dental hygiene, bleeding gums, and extensive gingival ulceration. He also has a fever of 38.0ºC. You suggest that he should visit a dentist. What other treatment alternatives should be provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol + oral metronidazole + chlorhexidine mouthwash

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gingivitis and its Management

      Gingivitis is a dental condition that is commonly caused by poor oral hygiene. It is characterized by red and swollen gums that bleed easily. In severe cases, it can lead to acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which is accompanied by painful bleeding gums, bad breath, and ulcers on the gums.

      For patients with simple gingivitis, regular dental check-ups are recommended, and antibiotics are usually not necessary. However, for those with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, it is important to seek immediate dental attention. In the meantime, oral metronidazole or amoxicillin may be prescribed for three days, along with chlorhexidine or hydrogen peroxide mouthwash and simple pain relief medication.

      It is crucial to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent gingivitis from developing or worsening. This includes brushing teeth twice a day, flossing daily, and using mouthwash regularly. By understanding the causes and management of gingivitis, individuals can take steps to protect their oral health and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 27 - An 68-year-old man is referred to you by the practice nurse. During a...

    Incorrect

    • An 68-year-old man is referred to you by the practice nurse. During a routine medical check-up, the nurse noticed an irregular pulse while taking his blood pressure. An ECG confirmed persistent atrial fibrillation. Despite being asymptomatic, he is surprised by the diagnosis as he has always been fairly fit and healthy. He has a medical history of childhood asthma and migraines, for which he uses salbutamol and ibuprofen PRN, respectively. His blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, and his clinical examination is otherwise normal. Recent blood tests show a HbA1c of 36 mmol/mol, total cholesterol of 5.2, LDL cholesterol of 2.6, and triglycerides of 2.2. What is the first-line antithrombotic treatment that should be considered for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral anticoagulation (for example, warfarin)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the CHA2DS2-VASc Score for Stroke Risk Assessment

      The CHA2DS2-VASc score is a tool used to assess the risk of stroke and guide the use of thromboprophylaxis. It takes into account various risk factors such as congestive heart failure, hypertension, age, diabetes, prior stroke or thromboembolism, vascular disease, and sex. Each factor is assigned a certain number of points, and the total score is used to determine whether oral anticoagulation is necessary.

      If the score is 1 or more, oral anticoagulation is recommended, while a score of 0 indicates that no anticoagulation is needed. However, if the score is 1 but the only point scored is for female gender, then it is treated as a score of 0. It is important to note that aspirin, clopidogrel, and dipyridamole are not recommended alone or in combination.

      In summary, the CHA2DS2-VASc score is a useful tool for assessing stroke risk and guiding thromboprophylaxis use. By taking into account various risk factors, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about the appropriate treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 28 - A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea and weight loss for the past four months. She describes the pain as dull, piercing and it radiates to her back. She has a history of anorexia. On physical examination, there is mild tenderness in the epigastric region but no palpable masses. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Abdominal Pain: A Case Study

      The patient presents with abdominal pain, and a differential diagnosis must be considered. The symptoms suggest carcinoma of the body or tail of the pancreas, as obstructive jaundice is not present. The pain is located in the epigastric region and radiates to the back, indicating retroperitoneal invasion of the splanchnic nerve plexus by the tumour.

      Cholangiocarcinoma, a malignancy of the biliary duct system, is unlikely as jaundice is not present. Pain in the right upper quadrant may occur in advanced disease. Early gastric carcinoma often presents with symptoms of uncomplicated dyspepsia, while advanced disease presents with weight loss, vomiting, anorexia, upper abdominal pain, and anaemia.

      Peptic ulcer disease is a possibility, with epigastric pain being the most common symptom. Duodenal ulcer pain often awakens the patient at night, and pain with radiation to the back can occur with posterior penetrating gastric ulcer complicated by pancreatitis. However, the presence of weight loss makes pancreatic carcinoma more likely.

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, caused by a non-beta-islet-cell, gastrin-secreting tumour of the pancreas, is also a possibility. Epigastric pain due to ulceration is a common symptom, particularly in sporadic cases and in men. Diarrhoea is the most common symptom in patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1, as well as in female patients.

      In conclusion, the differential diagnosis of abdominal pain in this case includes carcinoma of the pancreas, peptic ulcer disease, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Further diagnostic tests are necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic after slipping on ice and falling...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic after slipping on ice and falling backwards, hitting his head on the curb and landing on his right arm. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and takes bisoprolol and warfarin, with a recent INR of 2.2. There are no visible injuries to his arm or scalp. What is the best course of action for his head injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer the patient to hospital for a CT head scan to be performed within 8 hours

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for investigating head injuries in adults. These guidelines help healthcare professionals determine which patients need further CT head imaging and which patients can be safely discharged.

      The guidelines divide patients into two groups: those who require an immediate CT head scan and those who require a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury. Patients who require an immediate CT head scan include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, a suspected open or depressed skull fracture, or any sign of basal skull fracture. Other indications for an immediate CT head scan include post-traumatic seizure, focal neurological deficit, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      Patients who require a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury include those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, or have experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury. Patients with more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury also require a CT head scan within 8 hours.

      It is important to note that patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury. These guidelines help healthcare professionals determine the appropriate course of action for investigating head injuries in adults, ensuring that patients receive the necessary care and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - An 82-year-old man with advanced pancreatic cancer is experiencing widespread pruritus and has...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man with advanced pancreatic cancer is experiencing widespread pruritus and has tried several emollients, including one with menthol. He is jaundiced and has declined a biliary stent. What is the next most suitable medication to try for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydroxyzine

      Explanation:

      Management of Pruritus in Palliative Care Patients with Advanced Pancreatic Cancer

      When treating a patient with advanced pancreatic cancer who has declined stenting for relief of cholestasis, the focus should be on palliative symptom management. The underlying cause of widespread pruritus should be treated if possible, but in this case, emollients have been tried and a sedating antihistamine such as hydroxyzine or chlorphenamine is the next appropriate medication. While pregabalin and gabapentin may be considered, they should only be used after discussion with a specialist/dermatologist. Topical calamine lotion is not recommended by NICE for pruritus treatment. Hydralazine, a vasodilator antihypertensive drug, has no indication for use in pruritus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (0/2) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed