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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman comes in with left-sided flank pain and nausea. A urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in with left-sided flank pain and nausea. A urine dipstick shows microscopic blood in the urine. She is later diagnosed with renal colic.
      What is the most frequently occurring type of kidney stone?

      Your Answer: Cystine stones

      Correct Answer: Calcium containing stones

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract stones form when the concentration of salt and minerals in the urine becomes too high. These stones can be classified into five types based on their mineral composition and how they develop.

      The most common type of stone is the calcium stone, which can be further divided into calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate stones. These account for 60-80% of all urinary tract stones.

      Another type is the struvite or magnesium ammonium phosphate stone, making up about 10-15% of cases. Uric acid stones, also known as urate stones, occur in 3-10% of cases.

      Cystine stones are less common, accounting for less than 2% of urinary tract stones. Finally, there are drug-induced stones, which are caused by certain medications such as triamterene, protease inhibitors like indinavir sulphate, and sulfa drugs. These account for approximately 1% of cases.

      By understanding the different types of urinary tract stones, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old man presents with decreased visual acuity and 'floaters' in his right...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with decreased visual acuity and 'floaters' in his right eye. You conduct a fundoscopy and observe a sheet of sensory retina bulging towards the center of the eye. A diagnosis of retinal detachment is made.
      Which of the following statements about retinal detachment is NOT true?

      Your Answer: Hypermetropia is a significant risk factor

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina separates from the retinal pigment epithelium, resulting in a fluid-filled space between them. This case presents a classic description of retinal detachment. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including myopia, being male, having a family history of retinal detachment, previous episodes of retinal detachment, blunt ocular trauma, previous cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus (especially if proliferative retinopathy is present), glaucoma, and cataracts.

      The clinical features commonly associated with retinal detachment include flashes of light, particularly at the edges of vision (known as photopsia), a dense shadow in the peripheral vision that spreads towards the center, a sensation of a curtain drawing across the eye, and central visual loss. Fundoscopy, a procedure to examine the back of the eye, reveals a sheet of sensory retina billowing towards the center of the eye. Additionally, a positive Amsler grid test, where straight lines appear curved or wavy, may indicate retinal detachment.

      Other possible causes of floaters include posterior vitreous detachment, retinal tears, vitreous hemorrhage, and migraine with aura. However, in this case, the retinal appearance described is consistent with retinal detachment.

      It is crucial to arrange an urgent same-day ophthalmology referral for this patient. Fortunately, approximately 90% of retinal detachments can be successfully repaired with one operation, and an additional 6% can be salvaged with subsequent procedures. If the retina remains fixed six months after surgery, the likelihood of it becoming detached again is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old diving instructor complains of pain and discharge in his right ear....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old diving instructor complains of pain and discharge in his right ear. Upon examination, you observe redness in the ear canal along with a significant amount of pus and debris.
      What is the SINGLE most probable organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Otitis externa, also known as swimmer’s ear, is a condition characterized by infection and inflammation of the ear canal. Common symptoms include pain, itching, and discharge from the ear. Upon examination with an otoscope, the ear canal will appear red and there may be pus and debris present.

      There are several factors that can increase the risk of developing otitis externa, including skin conditions like psoriasis and eczema. Additionally, individuals who regularly expose their ears to water, such as swimmers, are more prone to this condition.

      The most common organisms that cause otitis externa are Pseudomonas aeruginosa (50%), Staphylococcus aureus (23%), Gram-negative bacteria like E.coli (12%), and fungal species like Aspergillus and Candida (12%).

      Treatment for otitis externa typically involves the use of topical antibiotic and corticosteroid combinations, such as Betnesol-N or Sofradex. In some cases, when the condition persists, referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist may be necessary for auditory cleaning and the placement of an antibiotic-soaked wick.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      60.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 42 year old woman is brought into the emergency department by ambulance...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old woman is brought into the emergency department by ambulance after confessing to consuming a significant amount of amitriptyline following a breakup. The patient then experiences a seizure. Which medication is the most suitable for managing the seizure?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing seizures in cases of TCA overdose, benzodiazepines are considered the most effective treatment. Diazepam or lorazepam are commonly administered for this purpose. However, it’s important to note that lamotrigine and carbamazepine are typically used for preventing seizures rather than for immediate seizure control.

      Further Reading:

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.

      TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.

      Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.

      Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.

      There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are requested to assess a 52-year-old individual who has experienced cyanosis and...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a 52-year-old individual who has experienced cyanosis and a severe headache after receiving a local anesthetic injection for a regional block. The junior doctor is currently collecting a venous blood sample for analysis. What would be the most suitable course of treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: IV glucagon 50 micrograms/kg over 15 minutes

      Correct Answer: IV methylene blue 1-2 mg/kg over 5 mins

      Explanation:

      If a patient is critically ill and shows symptoms highly indicative of methemoglobinemia, treatment may be started before the blood results are available.

      Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.

      Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.

      During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.

      There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You evaluate a 62-year-old woman with a painful swollen left big toe. The...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 62-year-old woman with a painful swollen left big toe. The pain began this morning and is described as the most severe pain she has ever experienced. It has progressively worsened over the past 8 hours. She is unable to wear socks or shoes and had to attend the appointment wearing open-toe sandals. The skin over the affected area appears red and shiny.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      The guidelines from the European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR) regarding the diagnosis of gout state that if a joint becomes swollen, tender, and red, accompanied by acute pain that intensifies over a period of 6-12 hours, it is highly likely to be a crystal arthropathy. While pseudogout is also a possibility, it is much less probable, with gout being the most likely diagnosis in such cases.

      In cases of acute gout, the joint most commonly affected is the first metatarsal-phalangeal joint, accounting for 50-75% of cases. The underlying cause of gout is hyperuricaemia, and the clinical diagnosis can be confirmed by the presence of negatively birefringent crystals in the synovial fluid aspirate.

      For the treatment of acute gout attacks, the usual approach involves the use of either NSAIDs or colchicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      61.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old male patient presents with a history of dizziness and fainting episodes....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male patient presents with a history of dizziness and fainting episodes. He has also been suffering from a mild flu-like illness for the past few days. He had a syncopal episode in the department and was moved into the resuscitation area. His observations are as follows: Temperature 38.4°C, HR 112, BP 78/44, oxygen saturation 98% on high-flow oxygen, GCS 14/15, BM 1.5.
      His initial blood results are shown below:
      Na+: 118 mmol/l
      K+: 6.1 mmol/l
      Urea: 11.6 mmol/l
      Creatinine: 132 mmol/l
      Which of the following investigations is most appropriate to confirm the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test

      Correct Answer: Synacthen test

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with an Addisonian crisis, which is a rare but potentially catastrophic condition if not diagnosed promptly. It is more commonly seen in women than men and typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 50.

      Addison’s disease is caused by insufficient production of steroid hormones by the adrenal glands, affecting the production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids. The main causes of Addison’s disease include autoimmune adrenalitis (accounting for 80% of cases), bilateral adrenalectomy, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (hemorrhage into the adrenal glands), and tuberculosis.

      The most common trigger for an Addisonian crisis in patients with Addison’s disease is the intentional or accidental withdrawal of steroid therapy. Other factors that can precipitate a crisis include infection, trauma, myocardial infarction, cerebral infarction, asthma, hypothermia, and alcohol abuse.

      Clinical features of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, hypotension (especially orthostatic hypotension), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced axillary and pubic hair, depression, and hyperpigmentation (particularly in palmar creases, buccal mucosa, and exposed areas). In an Addisonian crisis, the main symptoms are usually hypoglycemia and shock, characterized by tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, hypotension, altered consciousness, and even coma.

      Biochemical markers of Addison’s disease typically include increased ACTH levels (as a compensatory response to stimulate the adrenal glands), elevated serum renin levels, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Confirmatory investigations may involve the Synacthen test, plasma ACTH level measurement, plasma renin level measurement, and testing for adrenocortical antibodies.

      Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Treatment usually involves the administration of hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also require thyroxine if there is concurrent hypothalamic-pituitary disease. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and MedicAlert bracelet to alert healthcare professionals about their condition and the potential for an Addisonian crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      62.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man is brought in by ambulance following a car crash. A...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man is brought in by ambulance following a car crash. A FAST scan is conducted to evaluate for a haemoperitoneum.
      Which of the following anatomical regions is NOT examined as part of a typical 4 view FAST scan?

      Your Answer: Parasternal

      Explanation:

      A Focussed Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) scan is a point-of-care ultrasound examination conducted when a trauma patient arrives. Its primary purpose is to identify the presence of intra-abdominal free fluid, which is typically assumed to be haemoperitoneum in the context of trauma. This information helps healthcare providers make decisions regarding further management of the patient.

      The sensitivity of FAST scanning for detecting intraperitoneal fluid is approximately 90%, while its specificity is around 95%. However, its sensitivity for detecting solid organ injuries is much lower. As a result, FAST scanning has largely replaced diagnostic peritoneal lavage as the preferred initial method for assessing haemoperitoneum.

      During a standard FAST scan, four regions are assessed. The first is the subxiphoid transverse view, which is used to check for pericardial effusion and left lobe liver injuries. The second is the longitudinal view of the right upper quadrant, which helps identify right liver injuries, right kidney injuries, and fluid in the hepatorenal recess (Morison’s pouch). The third is the longitudinal view of the left upper quadrant, which is used to assess for splenic injury and left kidney injury. Lastly, the transverse and longitudinal views of the suprapubic region are examined to assess the bladder and fluid in the pouch of Douglas.

      In addition to the standard FAST scan, an extended FAST or eFAST may also be performed. This involves examining the left and right thoracic regions to assess for the presence of pneumothorax and haemothorax.

      The hepatorenal recess is the deepest part of the peritoneal cavity when a patient is lying flat. Therefore, it is the most likely area for fluid to accumulate in a supine position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following an episode of fainting at home. The parents noticed that the girl suddenly collapsed and appeared pale. After lifting her up, she quickly regained consciousness and her color returned. After a thorough examination and investigation by the pediatric team, a diagnosis of a brief resolved unexplained event (BRUE) is made.
      Which of the following is NOT a recognized risk factor for a BRUE?

      Your Answer: Maxillofacial abnormalities

      Correct Answer: High birth weight

      Explanation:

      The term Apparent Life-Threatening Event (ALTE) has traditionally been used to describe a specific type of event. However, in 2016, the American Academy of Paediatrics (AAP) recommended replacing ALTE with a new term called Brief Resolved Unexplained Event (BRUE).

      An ALTE is defined as an episode that is frightening to the observer and is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as apnoea (central or occasionally obstructive), color change (usually cyanotic or pallid but occasionally erythematous or plethoric), significant change in muscle tone (usually marked limpness), choking, or gagging. In some cases, the observer may even fear that the infant has died.

      On the other hand, BRUE has stricter criteria and is only applicable to episodes that occur in infants under 12 months old. A BRUE is characterized by being brief (lasting less than 1 minute, typically 2-30 seconds), resolved (the infant must have returned to their baseline state), and not explained by any identifiable medical condition. It must also exhibit at least one of the following symptoms: cyanosis or pallor, absent, decreased, or irregular breathing, marked change in muscle tone (hyper- or hypotonia), or altered level of responsiveness.

      To diagnose a BRUE, a thorough history and physical examination of the infant must be conducted, and no explanation for the event should be found. Additionally, there are several risk factors associated with the development of a BRUE, including prematurity, age less than ten weeks, recent anesthesia, airway or maxillofacial abnormalities, history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, previous apnoeic episode, recent upper respiratory tract infection. Low birth weight may also be a risk factor, while high birth weight has no recognized association with BRUEs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45 year old female patient has been brought to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old female patient has been brought to the emergency department with multiple injuries following a fall while hiking in the mountains. You observe significant injuries to the face. There is also bruising to the chest wall and a fracture dislocation to the ankle. The patient has undergone rapid sequence induction with Propofol and Suxamethonium. A chest X-ray shows multiple rib fractures but no pneumothorax or visible pulmonary contusion. You notice that the patient's end tidal CO2 has steadily increased since being intubated from 4.5 KPa to 7.4 KPa. You observe esophageal temperature is 39.3ºC. What is the likely cause of these readings?

      Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Explanation:

      The earliest and most frequent clinical indication of malignant hyperthermia is typically an increase in end tidal CO2. An unexplained elevation in end tidal CO2 is often the initial and most reliable sign of this condition.

      Further Reading:

      Malignant hyperthermia is a rare and life-threatening syndrome that can be triggered by certain medications in individuals who are genetically susceptible. The most common triggers are suxamethonium and inhalational anaesthetic agents. The syndrome is caused by the release of stored calcium ions from skeletal muscle cells, leading to uncontrolled muscle contraction and excessive heat production. This results in symptoms such as high fever, sweating, flushed skin, rapid heartbeat, and muscle rigidity. It can also lead to complications such as acute kidney injury, rhabdomyolysis, and metabolic acidosis. Treatment involves discontinuing the trigger medication, administering dantrolene to inhibit calcium release and promote muscle relaxation, and managing any associated complications such as hyperkalemia and acidosis. Referral to a malignant hyperthermia center for further investigation is also recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      40.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 42 year old male is brought into the ED resuscitation room. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old male is brought into the ED resuscitation room. The paramedics report the patient was discovered outdoors and unconscious. CPR was initiated in the ambulance. You observe that the patient is hypothermic with a temperature of 30.4ºC. What modifications would you make to the management of cardio-respiratory arrest based on this finding?

      Your Answer: Do not use defibrillation until core temperature is above 34ºC

      Correct Answer: Pulse check for up to 1 minute

      Explanation:

      In patients with hypothermia, the pulse check during CPR should be extended to 1 minute. Additionally, several adjustments need to be made to the CPR protocol. Firstly, mechanical ventilation should be used due to the stiffness of the chest wall. Secondly, the dosing or omission of cardiac arrest drugs should be adjusted based on the patient’s temperature. The defibrillation pattern should also be modified, with 3 shocks attempted before re-attempting defibrillation only when the body temperature is above 30ºC. Certain electrolyte disturbances, such as mild hypokalemia, should not be treated as potassium levels typically rise with Rewarming. It is important to plan for prolonged resuscitation in these cases. Lastly, uncorrected ABG results should be used, without adjusting for temperature.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermic cardiac arrest is a rare situation that requires a tailored approach. Resuscitation is typically prolonged, but the prognosis for young, previously healthy individuals can be good. Hypothermic cardiac arrest may be associated with drowning. Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, basal metabolic rate falls and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. Signs and symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, initially presenting as compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, but eventually ceasing as the temperature drops into moderate hypothermia territory.

      ECG changes associated with hypothermia include bradyarrhythmias, Osborn waves, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics, and cardiac arrest. When managing hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated as per the standard ALS algorithm, but with modifications. It is important to check for signs of life, re-warm the patient, consider mechanical ventilation due to chest wall stiffness, adjust dosing or withhold drugs due to slowed drug metabolism, and correct electrolyte disturbances. The resuscitation of hypothermic patients is often prolonged and may continue for a number of hours.

      Pulse checks during CPR may be difficult due to low blood pressure, and the pulse check is prolonged to 1 minute for this reason. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, leading to a build-up of potentially toxic plasma concentrations of administered drugs. Current guidance advises withholding drugs if the core temperature is below 30ºC and doubling the drug interval at core temperatures between 30 and 35ºC. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients, and it is important to interpret results keeping the setting in mind. Hypoglycemia should be treated, hypokalemia will often correct as the patient re-warms, ABG analyzers may not reflect the reality of the hypothermic patient, and severe hyperkalemia is a poor prognostic indicator.

      Different warming measures can be used to increase the core body temperature, including external passive measures such as removal of wet clothes and insulation with blankets, external active measures such as forced heated air or hot-water immersion, and internal active measures such as inhalation of warm air, warmed intravenous fluids, gastric, bladder, peritoneal and/or pleural lavage and high volume renal haemofilter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      62.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You ask your consultant to review a patient you have seen with knee...

    Incorrect

    • You ask your consultant to review a patient you have seen with knee pain. Following a history and examination, the consultant makes a diagnosis of patellofemoral pain syndrome.

      Which SINGLE statement is correct regarding this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: It occurs most commonly in teenagers

      Correct Answer: It affects more than one tendon

      Explanation:

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and thickening of the sheath that contains the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus. This leads to pain on the radial side of the wrist. It is more commonly observed in women, particularly those aged between 30 and 50 years. The condition is often associated with repetitive activities that involve pinching and grasping.

      During examination, swelling and tenderness along the tendon sheath may be observed. The tendon sheath itself may also appear thickened. The most pronounced tenderness is usually felt over the tip of the radial styloid. A positive Finkelstein’s test, which involves flexing the wrist and moving it towards the ulnar side while the thumb is flexed across the palm, can help confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis involves avoiding movements that can trigger symptoms and using a thumb splint to immobilize the thumb. In cases where symptoms persist, a local corticosteroid injection or surgical decompression may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old patient presents with frequent bruising and recurrent nosebleeds. She informs you...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with frequent bruising and recurrent nosebleeds. She informs you that she has a rare platelet disorder and provides you with her outpatient letter from the hematology department, which includes details about the condition. According to the letter, her disorder is attributed to decreased levels of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopaenic purpura

      Correct Answer: Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

      Explanation:

      Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia is an uncommon condition affecting platelets, where they have a deficiency or abnormality in glycoprotein IIb/IIIa. This disorder leads to platelet dysfunction and can result in various complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 2-year-old girl presents with vomiting and diarrhea due to viral gastroenteritis. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl presents with vomiting and diarrhea due to viral gastroenteritis. Upon examination, she is found to be mildly dehydrated. You suggest treating her with oral rehydration therapy (ORT).
      Which SINGLE statement regarding the use of ORT in the management of gastroenteritis is FALSE?

      Your Answer: ORT is hypo-osmolar

      Correct Answer: ORT is sugar-free

      Explanation:

      Oral rehydration therapy (ORT) is a method used to prevent or treat dehydration by replacing fluids in the body. It is a less invasive approach compared to other methods and has been successful in reducing the mortality rate of diarrhea in developing nations.

      ORT includes glucose, such as 90 mmol/L in Dioralyte, which helps improve the absorption of sodium and water in the intestines and prevents low blood sugar levels. It also contains essential mineral salts.

      According to current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), for mild dehydration, it is recommended to administer 50 mL/kg of ORT over a period of 4 hours.

      Once a child has been rehydrated, they should continue their normal daily fluid intake and consume an additional 200 ml of ORT after each loose stool. For infants, ORT should be given at 1-1.5 times their regular feeding volume, while adults should consume 200-400 mL of ORT after each loose stool.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the diagnosis and management of diarrhea and vomiting caused by gastroenteritis in children under 5 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 3-year-old girl presents with a temperature of 39 degrees. She appears fussy,...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presents with a temperature of 39 degrees. She appears fussy, and a non-blanching rash is observed on her abdomen. Tragically, she passes away later that day from Meningococcal septicaemia.

      To whom should a report be submitted?

      Your Answer: NHS England

      Correct Answer: Consultant in Communicable Disease Control

      Explanation:

      Registered medical practitioners in England and Wales are legally obligated to inform a designated official from the Local Authority if they suspect a patient has contracted specific infectious diseases. For more information on which diseases and their causative organisms require reporting, please refer to the following resource: Notifiable diseases and causative organisms: how to report.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old man was involved in a car accident where his vehicle collided...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man was involved in a car accident where his vehicle collided with a wall. He was rescued at the scene and has been brought to the hospital by ambulance. He is currently wearing a cervical immobilization device. He is experiencing chest pain on the left side and is having difficulty breathing. As the leader of the trauma response team, his vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 110, blood pressure of 102/63, oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. His Glasgow Coma Scale score is 15 out of 15. Upon examination, he has extensive bruising on the left side of his chest and shows reduced chest expansion, dullness to percussion, and decreased breath sounds throughout the entire left hemithorax.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Massive haemothorax

      Explanation:

      A massive haemothorax occurs when more than 1500 mL of blood, which is about 1/3 of the patient’s blood volume, rapidly accumulates in the chest cavity. The classic signs of a massive haemothorax include decreased chest expansion, decreased breath sounds, and dullness to percussion. Both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds, but they can be differentiated through percussion. Hyperresonance indicates tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.

      The first step in managing a massive haemothorax is to simultaneously restore blood volume and decompress the chest cavity by inserting a chest drain. In most cases, the bleeding in a haemothorax has already stopped by the time management begins, and simple drainage is sufficient. It is important to use a chest drain of adequate size (preferably 36F) to ensure effective drainage of the haemothorax without clotting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45 year old patient presents to the emergency department with a head...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old patient presents to the emergency department with a head laceration sustained following a fall while under the influence of alcohol. You determine to evaluate the patient's alcohol consumption. Which screening tool does NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) recommend for assessing risky drinking?

      Your Answer: AUDIT

      Explanation:

      The AUDIT screening tool is recommended by NICE for identifying patients who may be at risk of hazardous drinking.

      Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.

      Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.

      The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.

      Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.

      Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.

      Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.

      Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.

      In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old woman has developed a thick cord of tissue on the sole...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has developed a thick cord of tissue on the sole of her left foot. She has developed a flexion deformity with her toes curled downwards. She is unable to straighten them. She has a history of epilepsy, which is well managed with her current anticonvulsant medication. A picture of her foot deformity is displayed below:
      What is the MOST LIKELY anticonvulsant that is responsible for this deformity?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      This individual has developed Dupuytren’s contracture, which is a hand deformity characterized by a fixed flexion caused by palmar fibromatosis. The only anticonvulsant treatment believed to be connected to the development of Dupuytren’s contracture is phenytoin. Additionally, other conditions associated with its occurrence include liver cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, alcoholism, and trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You are requested to evaluate a 42-year-old woman who has come in with...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 42-year-old woman who has come in with a nosebleed and was initially assessed by one of the medical students. You get ready to conduct rhinoscopy in order to locate the source of bleeding.

      What is the probable location of epistaxis?

      Your Answer: Kiesselbach plexus

      Explanation:

      Most nosebleeds, also known as epistaxis, occur at a specific area called Little’s area.

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.

      The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.

      If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.

      Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.

      In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 4-year-old girl is brought in by an emergency ambulance after being involved...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought in by an emergency ambulance after being involved in a car accident. A trauma call is made, and you are tasked with obtaining intravenous access and administering a fluid bolus. However, you are unable to successfully secure intravenous access and decide to set up for intraosseous access instead.

      Which of the following anatomical locations would be the LEAST suitable for insertion in this case?

      Your Answer: Distal tibia

      Correct Answer: Lateral malleolus

      Explanation:

      Intraosseous access is recommended in trauma, burns, or resuscitation situations when other attempts at venous access fail or would take longer than one minute. It is particularly recommended for circulatory access in pediatric cardiac arrest cases. This technique can also be used when urgent blood sampling or intravenous access is needed and traditional cannulation is difficult and time-consuming. It serves as a temporary measure to stabilize the patient and facilitate long-term intravenous access.

      Potential complications of intraosseous access include compartment syndrome, infection, and fracture. Therefore, it is contraindicated to use this method on the side of definitively fractured bones or limbs with possible proximal fractures. It should also not be used at sites of previous attempts or in patients with conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta or osteopetrosis.

      There are several possible sites for intraosseous access insertion. These include the proximal humerus, approximately 1 cm above the surgical neck; the proximal tibia, on the anterior surface, 2-3 cm below the tibial tuberosity; the distal tibia, 3 cm proximal to the most prominent aspect of the medial malleolus; the femoral region, on the anterolateral surface, 3 cm above the lateral condyle; the iliac crest; and the sternum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 42-year-old man is found to have 'Reed-Sternberg cells' on his peripheral blood...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man is found to have 'Reed-Sternberg cells' on his peripheral blood smear.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Reed-Sternberg cells are distinctive large cells that are typically observed in Hodgkin lymphoma. These cells are often found to have two nuclei or a nucleus with two lobes. Additionally, they possess noticeable nucleoli that resemble eosinophilic inclusion-like structures, giving them an appearance similar to that of an owl’s eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent falls. She is accompanied...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent falls. She is accompanied by her daughter, who tells you that the falls have been getting worse over the past year and that she has also been acting strangely and showing signs of memory decline. Recently, she has also experienced several episodes of urinary incontinence. On examination, you observe that she has a wide-based, shuffling gait.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal-pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms that are characteristic of normal-pressure hydrocephalus (NPH). NPH is a type of communicating hydrocephalus where the pressure inside the skull, as measured through lumbar puncture, is either normal or occasionally elevated. It primarily affects elderly individuals, and the likelihood of developing NPH increases with age.

      Around 50% of NPH cases are idiopathic, meaning that no clear cause can be identified. The remaining cases are secondary to various conditions such as head injury, meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, central nervous system tumors, and radiotherapy.

      The typical presentation of NPH includes a classic triad of symptoms: gait disturbance (often characterized by a broad-based and shuffling gait), sphincter disturbance leading to incontinence (usually urinary incontinence), and progressive dementia with memory loss, inattention, inertia, and bradyphrenia.

      Diagnosing NPH primarily relies on identifying the classic clinical triad mentioned above. Additional investigations can provide supportive evidence and may involve CT and MRI scans, which reveal enlarged ventricles and periventricular lucency. Lumbar puncture can also be performed to assess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) levels, which are typically normal or intermittently elevated. Intraventricular monitoring may show beta waves present for more than 5% of a 24-hour period.

      NPH is one of the few reversible causes of dementia, making early recognition and treatment crucial. Medical treatment options include the use of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (such as acetazolamide) and repeated lumbar punctures as temporary measures. However, the definitive treatment for NPH involves surgically inserting a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) shunt. This procedure provides lasting clinical benefits for 70% to 90% of patients compared to their pre-operative state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department anxious, confused, and agitated. He...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department anxious, confused, and agitated. He has also vomited several times. He has recently been prescribed a course of amoxicillin for a suspected chest infection by his primary care physician. You are unable to obtain a coherent medical history from him, but he has brought his regular medications with him, which include: aspirin, simvastatin, and carbimazole. His friend who accompanied him states that he stopped taking his medications a few days ago. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.9°C, heart rate 138, respiratory rate 23, blood pressure 173/96, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air.

      Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer: Potassium iodide

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm is a rare condition that affects only 1-2% of patients with hyperthyroidism. However, it is crucial to diagnose it promptly because it has a high mortality rate of approximately 10%. Thyroid storm is often triggered by a physiological stressor, such as stopping antithyroid therapy prematurely, recent surgery or radio-iodine treatment, infections (especially chest infections), trauma, diabetic ketoacidosis or hyperosmolar diabetic crisis, thyroid hormone overdose, pre-eclampsia. It typically occurs in patients with Graves’ disease or toxic multinodular goitre and presents with sudden and severe hyperthyroidism. Symptoms include high fever (over 41°C), dehydration, rapid heart rate (greater than 140 beats per minute) with or without irregular heart rhythms, low blood pressure, congestive heart failure, nausea, jaundice, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, confusion, agitation, delirium, psychosis, seizures, or coma.

      To diagnose thyroid storm, various blood tests should be conducted, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, blood glucose, coagulation screen, CRP, and thyroid profile (T4/T3 and TSH). A bone profile/calcium test should also be done as 10% of patients develop hypocalcemia. Blood cultures should be taken as well. Other important investigations include a urine dipstick/MC&S, chest X-ray, and ECG.

      The management of thyroid storm involves several steps. Intravenous fluids, such as 1-2 liters of 0.9% saline, should be administered. Airway support and management should be provided as necessary. A nasogastric tube should be inserted if the patient is vomiting. Urgent referral for inpatient management is essential. Paracetamol (1 g PO/IV) can be given to reduce fever. Benzodiazepines, such as diazepam (5-20 mg PO/IV), can be used for sedation. Steroids, like hydrocortisone (100 mg IV), may be necessary if there is co-existing adrenal suppression. Antibiotics should be prescribed if there is an intercurrent infection. Beta-blockers, such as propranolol (80 mg PO), can help control heart rate. High-dose carbimazole (45-60 mg/day) is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old individual presents with an arthropathy affecting the metatarsophalangeal joint on their...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old individual presents with an arthropathy affecting the metatarsophalangeal joint on their left foot. Gout is suspected, and a joint aspirate is sent to the lab for analysis.
      What type of crystals are deposited in the joints during gout?

      Your Answer: Urate crystals

      Explanation:

      Gout and pseudogout are both characterized by the presence of crystal deposits in the joints that are affected. Gout occurs when urate crystals are deposited, while pseudogout occurs when calcium pyrophosphate crystals are deposited. Under a microscope, these crystals can be distinguished by their appearance. Urate crystals are needle-shaped and negatively birefringent, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals are brick-shaped and positively birefringent.

      Gout can affect any joint in the body, but it most commonly manifests in the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint, which is the joint at the base of the big toe. This joint is affected in approximately 50% of gout cases. On the other hand, pseudogout primarily affects the larger joints, such as the knee.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You evaluate a 45-year-old woman with a swollen and red left calf. Her...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 45-year-old woman with a swollen and red left calf. Her D-dimer levels are elevated, and you schedule an ultrasound scan, which confirms the presence of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in her left calf. She has no significant medical history and no reported drug allergies.
      According to the current NICE guidelines, which of the following anticoagulants is recommended as the initial treatment for DVT?

      Your Answer: Apixaban

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines from NICE recommend that the first-line treatment for confirmed deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolus (PE) should be either apixaban or rivaroxaban, which are direct oral anticoagulants.

      If neither of these options is suitable, the following alternatives should be considered:

      1. LMWH (low molecular weight heparin) should be administered for at least 5 days, followed by dabigatran or edoxaban.

      2. LMWH should be combined with a vitamin K antagonist (VKA), such as warfarin, for at least 5 days or until the international normalized ratio (INR) reaches at least 2.0 on 2 consecutive readings. Afterward, the VKA can be continued alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You evaluate a 70 year old male who complains of chest tightness during...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 70 year old male who complains of chest tightness during physical activity. The patient reports a gradual increase in shortness of breath during exertion over the past half year. During the examination, you observe a murmur and suspect aortic stenosis. Which of the following characteristics is commonly seen in symptomatic individuals with aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer: Slow rising pulse

      Explanation:

      Severe aortic stenosis is characterized by several distinct features. These include a narrow pulse pressure, which refers to the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings. Additionally, individuals with severe aortic stenosis may exhibit a slow rising pulse, meaning that the pulse wave takes longer to reach its peak. Another common feature is a delayed ejection systolic murmur, which is a heart sound that occurs during the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle. The second heart sound (S2) may also be soft or absent in individuals with severe aortic stenosis. Another potential finding is the presence of an S4 heart sound, which occurs during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle. A thrill, which is a palpable vibration, may also be felt in severe cases. The duration of the murmur, as well as the presence of left ventricular hypertrophy or failure, are additional features that may be observed in individuals with severe aortic stenosis.

      Further Reading:

      Valvular heart disease refers to conditions that affect the valves of the heart. In the case of aortic valve disease, there are two main conditions: aortic regurgitation and aortic stenosis.

      Aortic regurgitation is characterized by an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse (also known as a water hammer pulse), and a wide pulse pressure. In severe cases, there may be a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur due to partial closure of the anterior mitral valve cusps caused by the regurgitation streams. The first and second heart sounds (S1 and S2) may be soft, and S2 may even be absent. Additionally, there may be a hyperdynamic apical pulse. Causes of aortic regurgitation include rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis, connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus, and a bicuspid aortic valve. Aortic root diseases such as aortic dissection, spondyloarthropathies like ankylosing spondylitis, hypertension, syphilis, and genetic conditions like Marfan’s syndrome and Ehler-Danlos syndrome can also lead to aortic regurgitation.

      Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by a narrow pulse pressure, a slow rising pulse, and a delayed ESM (ejection systolic murmur). The second heart sound (S2) may be soft or absent, and there may be an S4 (atrial gallop) that occurs just before S1. A thrill may also be felt. The duration of the murmur is an important factor in determining the severity of aortic stenosis. Causes of aortic stenosis include degenerative calcification (most common in older patients), a bicuspid aortic valve (most common in younger patients), William’s syndrome (supravalvular aortic stenosis), post-rheumatic disease, and subvalvular conditions like hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).

      Management of aortic valve disease depends on the severity of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are generally observed, while symptomatic patients may require valve replacement. Surgery may also be considered for asymptomatic patients with a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg and features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction. Balloon valvuloplasty is limited to patients with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial injuries. X-rays and CT scans of her face show that she has a Le Fort III fracture.

      Which of the following options most accurately describes a Le Fort III fracture?

      Your Answer: Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

      Correct Answer: Craniofacial disjunction

      Explanation:

      Le Fort fractures are complex fractures of the midface that involve the maxillary bone and surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the traumatic separation of the pterygomaxillary region. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening injuries and disfigurement.

      The Le Fort classification system categorizes midface fractures into three groups based on the plane of injury. As the classification level increases, the location of the maxillary fracture moves from inferior to superior within the maxilla.

      Le Fort I fractures are horizontal fractures that occur across the lower aspect of the maxilla. These fractures cause the teeth to separate from the upper face and extend through the lower nasal septum, the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus, and into the palatine bones and pterygoid plates. They are sometimes referred to as a floating palate because they often result in the mobility of the hard palate from the midface. Common accompanying symptoms include facial swelling, loose teeth, dental fractures, and misalignment of the teeth.

      Le Fort II fractures are pyramidal-shaped fractures, with the base of the pyramid located at the level of the teeth and the apex at the nasofrontal suture. The fracture line extends from the nasal bridge and passes through the superior wall of the maxilla, the lacrimal bones, the inferior orbital floor and rim, and the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus. These fractures are sometimes called a floating maxilla because they typically result in the mobility of the maxilla from the midface. Common symptoms include facial swelling, nosebleeds, subconjunctival hemorrhage, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the nose, and widening and flattening of the nasal bridge.

      Le Fort III fractures are transverse fractures of the midface. The fracture line passes through the nasofrontal suture, the maxillo frontal suture, the orbital wall, and the zygomatic arch and zygomaticofrontal suture. These fractures cause separation of all facial bones from the cranial base, earning them the nickname craniofacial disjunction or floating face fractures. They are the rarest and most severe type of Le Fort fracture. Common symptoms include significant facial swelling, bruising around the eyes, facial flattening, and the entire face can be shifted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old woman develops a severe skin rash two weeks after starting a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman develops a severe skin rash two weeks after starting a course of vancomycin. Initially, she experienced general malaise with a mild fever and flu-like symptoms. Subsequently, she developed a rash characterized by multiple 'target lesions' which have now progressed to severe bullous, ulcerating skin lesions with areas of epidermal detachment. It is estimated that the epidermal detachment is affecting 35% of her total body surface area.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a severe and potentially life-threatening form of erythema multiforme. This condition leads to the detachment of the dermis from the lower layers of the skin. In some cases, it can result in death due to sepsis and failure of multiple organs.

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are considered to be different stages of the same mucocutaneous disease, with toxic epidermal necrolysis being more severe. The degree of epidermal detachment is used to differentiate between the two conditions. In Stevens-Johnson syndrome, less than 10% of the body surface area is affected by epidermal detachment, while in toxic epidermal necrolysis, it is greater than 30%. An overlap syndrome occurs when the detachment is between 10-30% of the body surface area.

      Certain medications can trigger Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. These include tetracyclines, penicillins, vancomycin, sulphonamides, NSAIDs, and barbiturates. It is important to be aware of these potential triggers and seek medical attention if any symptoms or signs of these conditions develop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old man has been brought into the Emergency Department, experiencing seizures that...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man has been brought into the Emergency Department, experiencing seizures that have lasted for 40 minutes before his arrival. On arrival, he is still having a tonic-clonic seizure. He is a known epileptic and is currently taking lamotrigine for seizure prevention. He has received a single dose of rectal diazepam by the paramedics en route approximately 15 minutes ago. His vital signs are as follows: HR 92, BP 120/70, SaO2 98% on high flow oxygen, temperature is 36.8°C. His blood glucose level is 4.5 mmol/L, and he has an intravenous line in place.
      Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer next?

      Your Answer: Intravenous lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Status epilepticus is a condition characterized by continuous seizure activity lasting for 5 minutes or more without the return of consciousness, or recurrent seizures (2 or more) without a period of neurological recovery in between. In such cases, the next step in managing the patient would be to administer a second dose of benzodiazepine. Since the patient already has an intravenous line in place, this would be the most appropriate route to choose.

      The management of status epilepticus involves several general measures, which are outlined in the following table:

      1st stage (Early status, 0-10 minutes):
      – Secure the airway and provide resuscitation
      – Administer oxygen
      – Assess cardiorespiratory function
      – Establish intravenous access

      2nd stage (0-30 minutes):
      – Institute regular monitoring
      – Consider the possibility of non-epileptic status
      – Start emergency antiepileptic drug (AED) therapy
      – Perform emergency investigations
      – Administer glucose (50 ml of 50% solution) and/or intravenous thiamine as Pabrinex if there is any suggestion of alcohol abuse or impaired nutrition
      – Treat severe acidosis if present

      3rd stage (0-60 minutes):
      – Determine the underlying cause of status epilepticus
      – Alert the anaesthetist and intensive care unit (ITU)
      – Identify and treat any medical complications
      – Consider pressor therapy when appropriate

      4th stage (30-90 minutes):
      – Transfer the patient to the intensive care unit
      – Establish intensive care and EEG monitoring
      – Initiate intracranial pressure monitoring if necessary
      – Start initial long-term, maintenance AED therapy

      Emergency investigations for status epilepticus include blood tests for gases, glucose, renal and liver function, calcium and magnesium, full blood count (including platelets), blood clotting, and AED drug levels. Serum and urine samples should be saved for future analysis, including toxicology if the cause of the convulsive status epilepticus is uncertain. A chest radiograph may be performed to evaluate the possibility of aspiration. Additional investigations, such as brain imaging or lumbar puncture, depend on the clinical circumstances.

      Monitoring during the management of status epilepticus involves regular neurological observations and measurements of pulse, blood pressure, and temperature. ECG, biochemistry, blood gases, clotting, and blood count should also be monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremors, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her vital...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremors, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her vital signs reveal an elevated heart rate of 119 bpm. She typically consumes 2-3 large bottles of strong cider daily but has recently run out of money and has not had an alcoholic beverage since the previous evening.
      Which ONE of the following medications, not belonging to the benzodiazepine class, is commonly prescribed in the UK for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are commonly used in the UK to manage symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Currently, only diazepam and chlordiazepoxide have been authorized for this purpose. Other benzodiazepines like alprazolam, clobazam, and lorazepam do not currently have authorization for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms in the UK.

      Carbamazepine is also used in the UK to manage alcohol-related withdrawal symptoms, but it does not have official authorization for this use.

      Clomethiazole, on the other hand, does have UK marketing authorization for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms, but it is only recommended for use in a hospital setting with close supervision. The product information for clomethiazole advises caution when prescribing it to individuals with a history of addiction or outpatient alcoholics. It is also not recommended for patients who continue to drink or abuse alcohol. Combining alcohol with clomethiazole, especially in alcoholics with cirrhosis, can lead to fatal respiratory depression even with short-term use. Therefore, clomethiazole should only be used in a hospital under close supervision or, in rare cases, by specialist units on an outpatient basis with careful monitoring of the daily dosage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 25-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car crash where...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car crash where she was a passenger in a vehicle struck by a truck at a high velocity. She is 32 weeks pregnant.

      What is the primary cause of fetal demise in traumatic incidents during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Uterine trauma

      Correct Answer: Maternal shock

      Explanation:

      The primary reason for foetal death in trauma during pregnancy is maternal shock and maternal mortality. The second most prevalent cause of foetal death is placental abruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 42-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea. On examination, he has marked abdominal tenderness that is maximal in the epigastric area. Following his blood results, you make a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. He is a non-drinker.
      His venous bloods are shown below:
      Hb: 12.2 g/dL
      White cell count: 16.7 x 109/L
      Blood glucose 8.7 mmol/L
      AST 458 IU/L
      LDH 375 IU/L
      Amylase: 1045 IU/L
      What is the most likely underlying cause for his pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a frequently encountered and serious source of acute abdominal pain. It involves the sudden inflammation of the pancreas, leading to the release of enzymes that cause self-digestion of the organ.

      The clinical manifestations of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain, accompanied by feelings of nausea and vomiting. The pain may radiate to the T6-T10 dermatomes or even to the shoulder tip through the phrenic nerve if the diaphragm is irritated. Other symptoms may include fever or sepsis, tenderness in the epigastric region, jaundice, and the presence of Gray-Turner sign (bruising on the flank) or Cullen sign (bruising around the belly button).

      The most common causes of acute pancreatitis are gallstones and alcohol consumption. Additionally, many cases are considered idiopathic, meaning the cause is unknown. To aid in remembering the various causes, the mnemonic ‘I GET SMASHED’ can be helpful. Each letter represents a potential cause: Idiopathic, Gallstones, Ethanol, Trauma, Steroids, Mumps, Autoimmune, Scorpion stings, Hyperlipidemia/hypercalcemia, ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography), and Drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 30-year-old woman is given carbamazepine for her epilepsy during her pregnancy. As...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is given carbamazepine for her epilepsy during her pregnancy. As a result of this medication, the newborn develops a defect.
      What is the most probable defect that will occur as a result of using this drug during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Grey baby syndrome

      Correct Answer: Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn

      Explanation:

      There is an increased risk of neural tube defects in women with epilepsy who take carbamazepine during pregnancy, ranging from 2 to 10 times higher. Additionally, there is a risk of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn associated with this medication. It is crucial to have discussions about epilepsy treatments with women of childbearing age during the planning stages so that they can start early supplementation of folic acid.

      Below is a list outlining the most commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimester, these medications can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can lead to ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can cause first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, these medications can result in respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This medication is associated with haemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug can cause grey baby syndrome in newborns.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts in the fetus.

      Danazol: When administered in the first trimester, danazol can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride tablets. Crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development in the fetus.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, haloperidol may cause limb malformations. In the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: Use of heparin during pregnancy is associated with an acceptable bleeding rate and a low rate of thrombotic recurrence in the mother.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with complaints of painful urination and frequent urination....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with complaints of painful urination and frequent urination. A urine dipstick test is conducted, which shows the presence of blood, protein, white blood cells, and nitrites. Based on these findings, you diagnose her with a urinary tract infection and prescribe antibiotics.
      Which antibiotic has the highest resistance rate against E.coli in the UK?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Nitrofurantoin is currently the preferred antibiotic for treating uncomplicated urinary tract infections in non-pregnant women. However, antibiotic resistance is becoming a significant concern in the management of urinary tract infections and pyelonephritis in the UK. In England, the resistance of E. coli (the main bacteria causing these infections) to certain antibiotics is as follows:

      Trimethoprim: 30.3% (varies between areas from 27.1% to 33.4%)
      Co-amoxiclav: 19.8% (varies between areas from 10.8% to 30.7%)
      Ciprofloxacin: 10.6% (varies between areas from 7.8% to 13.7%)
      Cefalexin: 9.9% (varies between areas from 8.1% to 11.4%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a 72-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a 72-year-old patient who is undergoing treatment for cardiac arrest. After three shocks, the patient experiences a return of spontaneous circulation.

      What are the recommended blood pressure goals following a return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) after cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: Mean arterial pressure 60-90 mmHg

      Correct Answer: Mean arterial pressure 65-100 mmHg

      Explanation:

      After the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), there are two specific blood pressure targets that need to be achieved. The first target is to maintain a systolic blood pressure above 100 mmHg. The second target is to maintain the mean arterial pressure (MAP) within the range of 65 to 100 mmHg.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with anxiety. She also exhibits symptoms of dry...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with anxiety. She also exhibits symptoms of dry mouth, coughing, lower body temperature, altered perception of time and space, and bloodshot eyes. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Opiate dependency

      Correct Answer: Cannabis use

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of cannabis use encompass various aspects. Firstly, it can amplify pre-existing mood states, leading to feelings of euphoria, depression, or anxiety. Additionally, cannabis can distort one’s perception of time and space, creating a sense of disorientation. It also enhances the enjoyment of aesthetic experiences, making them more pleasurable. Visual hallucinations may also occur as a result of cannabis use. Physiological effects include dry mouth, coughing, and irritation of the respiratory tract. Furthermore, cannabis use often leads to an increased appetite and a decrease in body temperature. Reddened eyes and respiratory tract irritation are also common symptoms associated with cannabis use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a deliberate overdose of the medication she takes for insomnia. She tells you that the medication she takes for this condition is zolpidem 10 mg. She took the medication about 2 hours ago. She is now hypotensive, with her most recent blood pressure reading being 82/56 mmHg. She weighs 70 kg.
      The consultant in charge suggests that you administer a bolus dose of calcium to increase her blood pressure. Which of the following should you administer?

      Your Answer: 10% calcium chloride 20 mL IV

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that can be life-threatening. The most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into cells. These channels are important for the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.

      When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, it is crucial to follow the standard ABC approach for resuscitation. If there is a risk of life-threatening toxicity, early intubation and ventilation should be considered. Invasive blood pressure monitoring is also necessary if hypotension and shock are developing.

      The specific treatments for calcium-channel blocker overdose primarily focus on supporting the cardiovascular system. These treatments include:

      1. Fluid resuscitation: Administer up to 20 mL/kg of crystalloid solution.

      2. Calcium administration: This can temporarily increase blood pressure and heart rate. Options include 10% calcium gluconate (60 mL IV) or 10% calcium chloride (20 mL IV) via central venous access. Repeat boluses can be given up to three times, and a calcium infusion may be necessary to maintain serum calcium levels above 2.0 mEq/L.

      3. Atropine: Consider administering 0.6 mg every 2 minutes, up to a total of 1.8 mg. However, atropine is often ineffective in these cases.

      4. High dose insulin – euglycemic therapy (HIET): The use of HIET in managing cardiovascular toxicity has evolved. It used to be a last-resort measure, but early administration is now increasingly recommended. This involves giving a bolus of short-acting insulin (1 U/kg) and 50 mL of 50% glucose IV (unless there is marked hyperglycemia). Therapy should be continued with a short-acting insulin/dextrose infusion. Glucose levels should be monitored frequently, and potassium should be replaced if levels drop below 2.5 mmol/L.

      5. Vasoactive infusions: Catecholamines such as dopamine, adrenaline, and/or noradrenaline can be titrated to achieve the desired inotropic and chronotropic effects.

      6. Sodium bicarbonate: Consider using sodium bicarbonate in cases where a severe metabolic acidosis develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 65 year old is brought into the emergency department (ED) after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old is brought into the emergency department (ED) after experiencing a head injury. As part of the initial assessment, you evaluate the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score. In an adult patient, what is the minimum GCS score that necessitates an urgent CT scan of the head?

      Your Answer: 13

      Explanation:

      In an adult patient, a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13 or lower necessitates an urgent CT scan of the head. The GCS is a neurological assessment tool that evaluates a patient’s level of consciousness and neurological functioning. It consists of three components: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Each component is assigned a score ranging from 1 to 4 or 5, with a higher score indicating a higher level of consciousness.

      A GCS score of 15 is considered normal and indicates that the patient is fully conscious. A score of 14 or 13 suggests a mild impairment in consciousness, but it may not necessarily require an urgent CT scan unless there are other concerning symptoms or signs. However, a GCS score of 11 or 9 indicates a moderate to severe impairment in consciousness, which raises concerns for a potentially serious head injury. In these cases, an urgent CT scan of the head is necessary to assess for any structural brain abnormalities or bleeding that may require immediate intervention.

      Therefore, in this case, the minimum GCS score that necessitates an urgent CT scan of the head is 13.

      Further Reading:

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Adults):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the following features are present:
      – GCS < 13 on initial assessment in the ED
      – GCS < 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – Post-traumatic seizure
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – > 1 episode of vomiting

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Children):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the features in List 1 are present:
      – Suspicion of non-accidental injury
      – Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
      – GCS < 14 on initial assessment in the ED for children more than 1 year of age
      – Paediatric GCS < 15 on initial assessment in the ED for children under 1 year of age
      – At 2 hours after the injury, GCS < 15
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – For children under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head

      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if none of the above features are present but two or more of the features in List 2 are present:
      – Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
      – Abnormal drowsiness
      – Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
      – Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident, fall from a height of

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old individual is brought to the emergency department by a companion who...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old individual is brought to the emergency department by a companion who discovered the patient in tears next to a bottle of tablets. The patient claims to have ingested about 40 aspirin tablets approximately 1 hour ago. A blood gas sample is collected for testing. Which of the following acid-base imbalances is linked to an overdose of aspirin?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis followed by a metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Salicylate poisoning initially leads to respiratory alkalosis, followed by metabolic acidosis. Salicylates, like aspirin, stimulate the respiratory center in the medulla, causing hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. This is usually the first acid-base imbalance observed in salicylate poisoning. As aspirin is metabolized, it disrupts oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria, leading to an increase in lactate levels due to anaerobic metabolism. The accumulation of lactic acid and acidic metabolites then causes metabolic acidosis.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      70.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 68-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation (AF) presents with a...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation (AF) presents with a head injury and decreased level of consciousness. He is currently taking warfarin for his AF, and his INR was 2.5 a few days ago. A CT scan of his head reveals the presence of a subdural hematoma.
      What is the most suitable approach to manage the reversal of warfarin in this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop warfarin and give IV vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate

      Explanation:

      The current recommendations from NICE for managing warfarin in the presence of bleeding or an abnormal INR are as follows:

      In cases of major active bleeding, regardless of the INR level, the first step is to stop administering warfarin. Next, 5 mg of vitamin K (phytomenadione) should be given intravenously. Additionally, dried prothrombin complex concentrate, which contains factors II, VII, IX, and X, should be administered. If dried prothrombin complex is not available, fresh frozen plasma can be given at a dose of 15 ml/kg.

      If the INR is greater than 8.0 and there is minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Slow injection of 1-3 mg of vitamin K can be given, and this dose can be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.

      If the INR is greater than 8.0 with no bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Oral administration of 1-5 mg of vitamin K can be given, and this dose can be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.

      If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Slow injection of 1-3 mg of vitamin K can be given, and warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.

      If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 with no bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld, and the subsequent maintenance dose should be reduced.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of warfarin therapy and the BNF guidance on the use of phytomenadione.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - You are asked to assess a 68-year-old male in the resuscitation room due...

    Correct

    • You are asked to assess a 68-year-old male in the resuscitation room due to bradycardia. The patient complained of increased shortness of breath, dizziness, and chest discomfort. The recorded vital signs are as follows:

      Parameter Result
      Blood pressure 80/52 mmHg
      Pulse rate 40 bpm
      Respiration rate 18 rpm
      SpO2 98% on 12 liters Oxygen

      You are concerned about the possibility of this patient progressing to asystole. Which of the following indicators would suggest that this patient is at a high risk of developing asystole?

      Your Answer: Ventricular pause of 3.5 seconds

      Explanation:

      Patients who have bradycardia and show ventricular pauses longer than 3 seconds on an electrocardiogram (ECG) are at a high risk of developing asystole. The following characteristics are indicators of a high risk for asystole: recent episodes of asystole, Mobitz II AV block, third-degree AV block (also known as complete heart block) with a broad QRS complex, and ventricular pauses longer than 3 seconds.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      155
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 70 year old type 2 diabetic visits the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old type 2 diabetic visits the emergency department with a foot injury. You suspect neuropathy and conduct sensory testing. Which of the following senses is usually the first to be lost in diabetic neuropathy?

      Your Answer: Hot temperature sensation

      Correct Answer: Vibration

      Explanation:

      The initial noticeable abnormality in sensory testing for diabetic neuropathy is often the loss of vibration sense. Reduced sensation, particularly in vibration sense, is typically the first symptom to be observed in diabetic neuropathy.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic foot is a complication that can occur in individuals with diabetes due to long-standing high blood sugar levels. This leads to a process called glycation or glycosylation, where glucose binds to proteins and lipids in the body. Abnormal protein glycation can cause cellular dysfunction and various complications.

      One of the main problems in diabetic foot is peripheral vascular disease and peripheral neuropathy. These conditions can result in significant foot issues, as trauma to the feet may go unnoticed and untreated. Vascular disease also impairs wound healing and increases the risk of developing ulcers.

      Clinical features of diabetic foot include reduced sensation, especially to vibration, non-dermatomal sensory loss, foot deformities such as pes cavus and claw toes, and weak or absent foot pulses. It is important for diabetic patients to have their feet assessed regularly, at least annually, to identify any potential problems. Additional foot assessments should also be conducted during hospital admissions.

      During a diabetic foot assessment, the healthcare provider should remove shoes, socks, and any bandages or dressings to examine both feet. They should assess for neuropathy using a 10 g monofilament to test foot sensation and check for limb ischemia by examining pulses and performing ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) measurements. Any abnormal tissue, such as ulcers, calluses, infections, inflammation, deformities, or gangrene, should be documented. The risk of Charcot arthropathy should also be assessed.

      The severity of foot ulcers in diabetic patients can be documented using standardized systems such as SINBAD or the University of Texas classification. The presence and severity of diabetic foot infection can be determined based on criteria such as local swelling, induration, erythema, tenderness, pain, warmth, and purulent discharge.

      Management of foot ulcers involves offloading, control of foot infection, control of ischemia, wound debridement, and appropriate wound dressings. Antibiotics may be necessary depending on the severity of the infection. Diabetic patients with foot ulcers should undergo initial investigations including blood tests, wound swabs, and imaging to assess for possible osteomyelitis.

      Charcot foot is a serious complication of diabetic peripheral neuropathy that results in progressive destructive arthropathy and foot deformity. Signs of Charcot foot include redness, swelling, warm skin, pain, and deformity. The hallmark deformity is midfoot collapse, known as the rocker-bottom foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 35-year-old woman was diagnosed two years ago with multiple sclerosis (MS). She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman was diagnosed two years ago with multiple sclerosis (MS). She has had three relapses in that time, and with each relapse, her symptoms are getting worse. She does have periods of remission, but they don't last long.
      Which SINGLE pattern of MS is she experiencing?

      Your Answer: Progressive relapsing MS

      Correct Answer: Primary progressive MS

      Explanation:

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition characterized by the demyelination of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. It is an autoimmune disease caused by recurring inflammation, primarily affecting individuals in early adulthood. The ratio of affected females to males is 3:2.

      There are several risk factors associated with MS, including being of Caucasian race, living at a greater distance from the equator (as the risk increases), having a family history of the disease (with approximately 20% of MS patients having an affected relative), and smoking. Interestingly, the rates of relapse tend to decrease during pregnancy.

      MS can present in three main patterns. The most common is relapsing and remitting MS, characterized by periods of no symptoms followed by relapses (present in 80% of patients at diagnosis). Primary progressive MS is less common, with symptoms developing and worsening from the beginning and few remissions (present in 10-15% of patients at diagnosis). Secondary progressive MS follows relapsing/remitting MS, with worsening symptoms and fewer remissions (approximately 50% of those with relapsing/remitting MS will develop this within 10 years of diagnosis). Progressive relapsing MS is rare and involves a steady decline in neurological function from the onset of the disease, with superimposed attacks also occurring.

      Certain factors can indicate a more favorable prognosis for individuals with MS. These include having a relapsing/remitting course, being female, experiencing sensory symptoms, and having an early age at onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - You attend the unexpected delivery of a baby in one of the cubicles...

    Correct

    • You attend the unexpected delivery of a baby in one of the cubicles in the Emergency Department. Your consultant assesses the neonate five minutes after delivery and informs you that:
      The extremities are blue, but the body is pink
      The heart rate is 110 per minute
      The baby cries with stimulation
      There is some flexion of the limbs
      The baby has a strong, robust cry
      When should the next Apgar assessment be made?

      Your Answer: At 5 minutes after delivery

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a straightforward way to evaluate the well-being of a newborn baby right after birth. It consists of five criteria, each assigned a score ranging from zero to two. Typically, the assessment is conducted at one and five minutes after delivery, with the possibility of repeating it later if the score remains low. A score of 7 or higher is considered normal, while a score of 4-6 is considered fairly low, and a score of 3 or below is regarded as critically low. To remember the five criteria, you can use the acronym APGAR:

      Appearance
      Pulse rate
      Grimace
      Activity
      Respiratory effort

      The Apgar score criteria are as follows:

      Score of 0:
      Appearance (skin color): Blue or pale all over
      Pulse rate: Absent
      Reflex irritability (grimace): No response to stimulation
      Activity: None
      Respiratory effort: Absent

      Score of 1:
      Appearance (skin color): Blue at extremities (acrocyanosis)
      Pulse rate: Less than 100 per minute
      Reflex irritability (grimace): Grimace on suction or aggressive stimulation
      Activity: Some flexion
      Respiratory effort: Weak, irregular, gasping

      Score of 2:
      Appearance (skin color): No cyanosis, body and extremities pink
      Pulse rate: More than 100 per minute
      Reflex irritability (grimace): Cry on stimulation
      Activity: Flexed arms and legs that resist extension
      Respiratory effort: Strong, robust cry

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 70-year-old nursing home resident is brought to the Emergency Department because she...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old nursing home resident is brought to the Emergency Department because she has rapidly declined in the past 24 hours. She appears extremely ill and has a temperature of 39.3°C. She has a history of stroke, is typically confined to bed, and struggles with communication. During the examination, she exhibits rapid heart rate, rapid breathing, and coarse crackles in the right middle and lower areas.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspiration pneumonia

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with clinical features that are indicative of a right middle/lower lobe pneumonia. Considering her past medical history of a stroke and the specific location of the chest signs, it is highly probable that she is suffering from aspiration pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      69.1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 45-year-old man presents with rigidity and slowness of movement. Following a referral...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with rigidity and slowness of movement. Following a referral to a specialist, a diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease is made. The patient is in the early stages of the disease at present.

      Which of the following clinical features is most likely to also be present?

      Your Answer: Hypokinesia

      Explanation:

      Patients with Parkinson’s disease (PD) typically exhibit the following clinical features:

      – Hypokinesia (reduced movement)
      – Bradykinesia (slow movement)
      – Rest tremor (usually occurring at a rate of 4-6 cycles per second)
      – Rigidity (increased muscle tone and ‘cogwheel rigidity’)

      Other commonly observed clinical features include:

      – Gait disturbance (characterized by a shuffling gait and loss of arm swing)
      – Loss of facial expression
      – Monotonous, slurred speech
      – Micrographia (small, cramped handwriting)
      – Increased salivation and dribbling
      – Difficulty with fine movements

      Initially, these signs are typically seen on one side of the body at the time of diagnosis, but they progressively worsen and may eventually affect both sides. In later stages of the disease, additional clinical features may become evident, including:

      – Postural instability
      – Cognitive impairment
      – Orthostatic hypotension

      Although PD primarily affects movement, patients often experience psychiatric issues such as depression and dementia. Autonomic disturbances and pain can also occur, leading to significant disability and reduced quality of life for the affected individual. Additionally, family members and caregivers may also be indirectly affected by the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      59.3
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - You evaluate a 32-year-old woman with grip weakness. During your examination, you find...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 32-year-old woman with grip weakness. During your examination, you find that 'Froment's sign' is positive.
      Which nerve is most likely to be affected in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Ulnar nerve lesions can be assessed using Froment’s sign. To perform this test, a piece of paper is placed between the patient’s thumb and index finger. The examiner then tries to pull the paper out of the patient’s pinched grip. If the patient has an ulnar nerve palsy, they will struggle to maintain the grip and may compensate by flexing the flexor pollicis longus muscle of the thumb to maintain pressure. This compensation is evident when the patient’s interphalangeal joint of the thumb flexes. Froment’s sign is a useful indicator of ulnar nerve dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 62-year-old woman comes in with a gout flare-up after starting a new...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman comes in with a gout flare-up after starting a new antihypertensive medication prescribed by her doctor. Which of the following antihypertensives is the LEAST likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Losartan

      Explanation:

      Thiazide diuretics, like bendroflumethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide, have the potential to raise levels of uric acid in the blood, which can worsen gout symptoms in individuals who are susceptible to the condition.

      Other medications, such as diuretics, beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and non-losartan ARBs, are also linked to an increased risk of gout.

      On the other hand, calcium-channel blockers like amlodipine and verapamil, as well as losartan, have been found to lower uric acid levels and are associated with a reduced risk of gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 4 year old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of a limp that has developed in the last 24 hours. The patient appears to be in good overall health and has no notable medical history. Upon examination, you observe that the child is not putting full weight on her left side and shows signs of discomfort when you try to internally rotate her hip. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dislocated dysplastic hip

      Correct Answer: Transient synovitis

      Explanation:

      The age of the child can help determine the most probable diagnosis. Transient synovitis (irritable hip) is commonly observed in children aged 3 to 10. Septic arthritis is more prevalent in children under 4 years old, while Perthes disease is typically diagnosed between the ages of 4 and 8. SUFE is usually seen in girls around the age of 12 and boys around the age of 13.

      Further Reading:

      – Transient Synovitis (irritable hip):
      – Most common hip problem in children
      – Causes transient inflammation of the synovium
      – Presents with thigh, groin, and/or hip pain with impaired weight bearing
      – Mild to moderate restriction of hip internal rotation is common
      – Symptoms usually resolve quickly with rest and anti-inflammatory treatment

      – Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis (SUFE):
      – Displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly
      – Usually affects adolescents
      – Can present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms
      – Associated with loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion
      – Treatment involves surgical fixation by pinning

      – Perthes disease:
      – Degenerative condition affecting the hip joints of children
      – Avascular necrosis of the femoral head is the cause
      – Presents with hip pain, limp, stiffness, and reduced range of hip movements
      – X-ray changes include widening of joint space and decreased femoral head size/flattening
      – Treatment can be conservative or operative, depending on the severity

      – Important differentials:
      – Septic arthritis: Acute hip pain associated with systemic upset and severe limitation of affected joint
      – Non-accidental injury (NAI): Should be considered in younger children and toddlers presenting with a limp, even without a trauma history
      – Malignancy: Rare, but osteosarcoma may present with hip pain or limp, especially in tall teenage boys
      – Developmental dysplasia of the hip: Often picked up on newborn examination with positive Barlow and Ortolani tests
      – Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA): Joint pain and swelling, limp, positive ANA in some cases
      – Coagulopathy: Haemophilia, HSP, and sickle cell disease can cause hip pain through different mechanisms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 45-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a painful rash that...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a painful rash that seems to be indicative of shingles.
      What is the most suitable method to confirm a shingles diagnosis in the Emergency Department?

      Your Answer: History and examination alone

      Explanation:

      Shingles is caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV), which primarily infects individuals during childhood as chickenpox. However, the initial infection can also be subclinical. After the primary infection, the virus remains dormant in the sensory nervous system, specifically in the geniculate, trigeminal, or dorsal root ganglia.

      During the dormant phase, the virus is kept under control by the immune system for many years. However, it can later become active and cause a flare-up in a specific dermatomal segment. This reactivation occurs when the virus travels down the affected nerve over a period of 3 to 5 days, leading to inflammation within and around the nerve. The decline in cell-mediated immunity is believed to trigger the virus’s reactivation.

      Several factors can trigger the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, including advancing age (with most patients being older than 50), immunosuppressive illnesses, physical trauma, and psychological stress. In immunocompetent patients, the most common site of reactivation is the thoracic nerves, followed by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.

      Diagnosing shingles can usually be done based on the patient’s history and clinical examination alone, as it has a distinct history and appearance. While various techniques can be used to detect the virus or antibodies, they are often unnecessary. Microscopy and culture tests using scrapings and smears typically yield negative results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      9.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Urology (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (3/6) 50%
Basic Anaesthetics (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (2/3) 67%
Endocrinology (1/3) 33%
Trauma (2/3) 67%
Paediatric Emergencies (0/2) 0%
Resus (0/1) 0%
Haematology (2/3) 67%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Elderly Care / Frailty (1/1) 100%
Vascular (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (2/3) 67%
Maxillofacial & Dental (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (3/5) 60%
Mental Health (0/2) 0%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Surgical Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Neonatal Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Passmed