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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old emaciated woman arrives at the ER complaining of breathing difficulties. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old emaciated woman arrives at the ER complaining of breathing difficulties. She has a history of smoking since the age of 14. Upon examination, a significant pleural effusion is detected on the right side of her chest. An ultrasound-guided sample is taken for analysis, but a CT scan fails to identify the underlying cause. The results of the pleural aspiration reveal an exudative effusion, and the histology suggests the presence of adenocarcinoma with a positive TTF-1 stain. What is the most probable reason for the effusion?

      Your Answer: Ovarian carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Non-small cell lung cancer

      Explanation:

      TTF-1, also known as thyroid transcription factor 1, is a protein that plays a role in regulating the transcription of genes that are specific to the thyroid and lungs. When lung adenocarcinomas and small cell carcinomas are present, they typically test positive for TTF-1. Based on the histology results indicating adenocarcinoma and the patient’s history of smoking, it is likely that this is a primary lung cancer. Non-small cell lung cancers can include adenocarcinoma, large cell carcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma.

      Understanding Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer

      Non-small cell lung cancer is a type of lung cancer that has three main subtypes: squamous cell cancer, adenocarcinoma, and large cell lung carcinoma. Squamous cell cancer is typically found in the central part of the lung and is associated with the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP), which can lead to hypercalcemia. This subtype is also strongly associated with finger clubbing and cavitating lesions are more common than other types. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA) is also a common feature of squamous cell cancer.

      Adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, is typically found in the peripheral part of the lung and is the most common type of lung cancer in non-smokers. However, the majority of patients who develop lung adenocarcinoma are smokers. Lastly, large cell lung carcinoma is also found in the peripheral part of the lung and is anaplastic, poorly differentiated tumors with a poor prognosis. This subtype may also secrete β-hCG.

      Understanding the different subtypes of non-small cell lung cancer is important in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients. Early detection and diagnosis can greatly improve the chances of successful treatment and recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old woman has been referred to the Rheumatology Clinic after experiencing her...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman has been referred to the Rheumatology Clinic after experiencing her second Colles’ fracture. DEXA scanning confirms osteoporosis with a T-score of -2.8. The patient is eager to begin preventive treatment.
      Based on the following investigations, which initial therapy would be the most appropriate for this patient?

      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Phosphate (PO43-) 0.9 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Corrected Calcium (Ca2+) 2.27 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 180 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Urea 3.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 75 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l

      Your Answer: Bisphosphonate therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density and an increased risk of fractures. Bisphosphonate therapy, such as alendronate, is recommended by NICE guidelines as a treatment option for both primary and secondary prevention of osteoporotic fragility fractures in postmenopausal women. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation may also be used alongside bisphosphonates. Hormone-replacement therapy (HRT) has been proven to reduce bone mineral density loss and fracture risk, but its risks of thrombosis, cardiovascular disease, and cancers have raised concerns. Calcitonin therapy is rarely used due to the risks of osteosarcoma associated with its long-term use. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modifier, is recommended for the secondary prevention of osteoporotic fragility fractures in postmenopausal women who cannot comply with or have a contraindication to other treatments. It is important to consider individual patient factors and risks when selecting a treatment option for osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      226.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of intermittent fever and flu-like symptoms. She complains of general malaise and myalgia. There is no significant medical history and she has otherwise been healthy, having recently returned from a hiking vacation. She has no known allergies.

      Upon examination, she appears fatigued. She has a heart rate of 98 bpm and blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. The rest of her vital signs are normal. On her right arm, there is a circular lesion with a red center and a pale ring around it. There is no evidence of crusting or bleeding and the rest of her skin and mucosa are unaffected.

      She is prescribed an antimicrobial medication. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Inhibits 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics and their Mechanisms of Action for Lyme Disease Treatment

      Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness that can be treated with antibiotics. The most effective treatment is doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S subunit of ribosomes. Aminoglycosides also have a similar mechanism of action. Metronidazole damages bacterial DNA, but it is not used in the treatment of Lyme disease. Penicillin antibiotics disrupt cell membrane function by binding to and inhibiting proteins in the bacterial cell wall, but they are not used as first-line treatment for Lyme disease. Macrolides, such as erythromycin, clindamycin, and linezolid, block the 50S subunit of ribosomes, while quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, inhibit DNA synthesis by binding to the enzyme DNA gyrase. Understanding the mechanisms of action of antibiotics can help in selecting the appropriate treatment for Lyme disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      290.9
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  • Question 4 - A 57-year-old woman presented to the hospital with symptoms of sweating, nausea, palpitations,...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presented to the hospital with symptoms of sweating, nausea, palpitations, and intermittent crawling sensations in her hands and feet spreading up her arms and legs. She had recently visited her GP due to severe nausea and vomiting, and as a result, her GP had stopped all her medications. The patient had a medical history of hyperthyroidism, anxiety, depression, and atrial fibrillation, for which she was taking carbimazole, propranolol, paroxetine, amiodarone, and aspirin. Within two days of stopping her medications, she developed the aforementioned symptoms, along with anxiety, erratic behavior, and vivid dreams. On examination, her blood pressure was 140/78 mmHg, pulse was 97/min and irregularly irregular, and neurological examination revealed poor attention and concentration. Investigations showed abnormal levels of haemoglobin, white cell count, and serum potassium. Based on this information, which medication withdrawal is likely responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Carbimazole

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      SSRI Discontinuation Syndrome and Hyperthyroidism in a Patient

      This patient is experiencing SSRI discontinuation syndrome, which is a common occurrence following the abrupt withdrawal of SSRIs. The symptoms can manifest within days and can last for months before disappearing. The syndrome is characterized by a combination of psychiatric, gastrointestinal, and neurological symptoms, including anxiety, insomnia, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, headache, paraesthesia, dystonia, and tremor. It is believed that shorter-acting SSRIs can cause an anticholinergic rebound when discontinued or when the dosage is lowered, which interrupts the production of acetylcholine. There is no specific treatment for this syndrome.

      The patient is also taking a combination of medications for hyperthyroidism, including amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. Amiodarone can affect thyroid function, causing both hyper- and hypothyroidism. Although some of the patient’s symptoms may be consistent with hyperthyroidism, her thyroxine levels are within normal limits. Paraesthesia is a symptom of thyroid disease that is more commonly associated with hypothyroidism complicated by peripheral neuropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      924
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 49-year-old man presents with complaints of pain and limited range of motion...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man presents with complaints of pain and limited range of motion in his right elbow. He denies any recent injury or trauma. He has no significant medical history and works as a plumber. He is a non-smoker but consumes 35 units of alcohol per week and is not interested in exercising.

      Upon examination, there is no swelling or effusion present. The patient experiences increased pain during wrist extension and supination while the elbow is extended. There are no motor or sensory deficits noted.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences increased pain or weakness when extending or supinating their wrist during elbow extension, it may be a sign of lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow. This condition is often caused or worsened by repetitive movements in work or recreational activities, such as plumbing. Cubital tunnel syndrome, which results from ulnar nerve entrapment, typically causes medial elbow pain and ulnar nerve distribution paraesthesia, making it an incorrect answer. Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is also caused by repetitive activities and is characterized by pain that worsens with resisted wrist flexion and pronation, which is the opposite of lateral epicondylitis. Olecranon bursitis, which presents as a soft, painless swelling over the olecranon after trauma, is an incorrect answer as there was no evidence of swelling or effusion and no history of trauma.

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that usually occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged between 45 and 55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The condition is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle, which is worsened by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended.

      Episodes of lateral epicondylitis usually last between six months and two years, with patients experiencing acute pain for six to twelve weeks. To manage the condition, patients are advised to avoid muscle overload, take simple analgesia, undergo steroid injection, or receive physiotherapy. With proper management, patients can recover from lateral epicondylitis and return to their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      76.7
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman presents to rheumatology with newly developed Raynaud's phenomenon and no...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to rheumatology with newly developed Raynaud's phenomenon and no prior medical history. Upon examination, her fingers appear cool and pale, with hardened and thickened skin extending from her hands to mid-forearms. Additionally, small dilated blood vessels are present on her hands and face. Her blood test reveals a positive anti Scl-70 result. What is the leading cause of mortality associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Interstitial lung disease

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of death in systemic sclerosis is respiratory involvement, specifically interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension. In this case, the patient’s positive Scl-70 antibody suggests an increased risk for interstitial lung disease. While cardiac arrhythmias can occur in systemic sclerosis, they are not a significant cause of mortality. While primary biliary cirrhosis and autoimmune hepatitis can occur in this condition, they are relatively rare complications and not associated with the same mortality as interstitial lung disease. Although patients with systemic sclerosis are at higher risk of infectious complications, interstitial lung disease remains the most common cause of mortality in this condition.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is still unknown. It is more common in females than males, with three patterns of the disease. The first pattern is limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, scleroderma affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. A subtype of this pattern is CREST syndrome, which includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, Oesophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia.

      The second pattern is diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which affects the trunk and proximal limbs, and is associated with scl-70 antibodies. This pattern has a poor prognosis, with respiratory involvement being the most common cause of death, including interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension. Other complications include renal disease and hypertension, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor.

      The third pattern is scleroderma without internal organ involvement, which is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies play a significant role in systemic sclerosis, with ANA positive in 90% of cases, RF positive in 30%, anti-scl-70 antibodies associated with diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, and anti-centromere antibodies associated with limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      98.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are in the general medical clinic. A 35-year-old male has been referred...

    Correct

    • You are in the general medical clinic. A 35-year-old male has been referred by his GP with dyspnoea. His symptoms started about 6 months ago with dyspnea mostly on exertion which is progressively getting worse. He also has a dry cough for last 3 months. There is no orthopnoea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. There is also no history of chest pain. His past history includes Hodgkin’s lymphoma which was successfully treated 3 years ago with ABVD regimen. He is currently not taking any medications. He works in a printing press and does not smoke. On examination, there is no raised JVP or ankle oedema. Auscultation revealed normal heart sounds and bilateral fine crackles. Results of his investigations are as follows:

      Hb 120 g/l Na+ 140 mmol/l Bilirubin 10 µmol/l
      Platelets 190 * 109/l K+ 4.0 mmol/l ALP 90 u/l
      WBC 7.0 * 109/l Urea 4.5 mmol/l ALT 20 u/l
      Neuts 3.0 * 109/l Creatinine 90 µmol/l γGT 50 u/l
      Lymphs 2.5 * 109/l ESR 30 mm/hr Albumin 35 g/l
      Eosin 0.2 * 109/l

      Chest x-ray normal

      What is the next best investigation for evaluation of this patient?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary function tests

      Explanation:

      The patient’s medical history suggests that they may have interstitial lung disease caused by bleomycin, which is a known risk factor for pulmonary fibrosis. To confirm the diagnosis, pulmonary function tests should be performed to detect any restrictive patterns. It is important to conduct baseline pulmonary function testing in patients receiving bleomycin.

      Before resorting to invasive procedures like bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL), non-invasive investigations such as pulmonary function tests and high-resolution CT (HRCT) should be carried out.

      While a Mantoux test can help rule out tuberculosis, it is not the most likely diagnosis in this case.

      An echocardiogram can be used to exclude heart failure as a cause of dyspnea, but there are no indications of orthopnea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and no signs of raised JVP, abnormal heart sounds, or ankle edema.

      Chest ultrasound is not useful unless there is suspicion of a pleural effusion.

      Drugs that can lead to lung fibrosis

      Lung fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. There are several drugs that can cause lung fibrosis as a side effect. These drugs include amiodarone, which is used to treat heart rhythm problems, cytotoxic agents such as busulphan and bleomycin, which are used to treat cancer, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Nitrofurantoin, an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections, and ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists like bromocriptine, cabergoline, and pergolide, which are used to treat Parkinson’s disease, can also cause lung fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or minimize the risk of lung fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 29-year-old gentleman student from Germany presents to you with right foot drop...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old gentleman student from Germany presents to you with right foot drop ongoing for two weeks with some numbness and tingling of the foot. These symptoms developed after he knelt down to pick something up from the floor. Three years ago he woke up from sleep with clawing of his fourth and fifth digit after having been asleep in a prone position and this lasted a week. Eight years ago he also had a left wrist and finger drop lasting three weeks after he sat on the couch with his left arm draped over the back of the couch for ten minutes. He denies falling asleep or remaining on the couch for a prolonged period. He has no other past medical history of note and has never sought medical advice for his problems.

      On examination, there is right foot drop (2/5 power) and similar weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot. There is also sensory loss over the lower lateral part of the right leg and dorsum of the right foot in all modalities. Reflexes are intact. Neurological examination and general examination are otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following tests would confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nerve conduction studies

      Correct Answer: PMP22 gene testing

      Explanation:

      The patient has been diagnosed with Hereditary Neuropathy with Liability to Pressure Palsy (HNPP), a neurological syndrome that causes mononeuropathy due to minor trauma to a peripheral nerve. This condition is most commonly seen in families with Dutch or German ancestry and is caused by a deletion in the peripheral myelin protein 22 gene on chromosome 17. It is an autosomal dominant condition that usually presents in the second or third decade of life.

      The patient has previously experienced ulnar and radial nerve palsy, also known as Saturday night palsy. Nerve conduction studies in HNPP show slow conduction and small action potentials, indicating a demyelinating neuropathy. A nerve biopsy may also reveal a predominance of smaller fibers and localized thickening of the myelin sheath. Gene testing can confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of HNPP is conservative and includes the use of wrist splints, ankle-foot orthoses, and protective padding.

      Understanding Peripheral Neuropathy: Demyelinating vs. Axonal Pathology

      Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including alcohol, diabetes mellitus, vasculitis, vitamin B12 deficiency, and hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies. However, the pathology of peripheral neuropathy can be classified into two main types: demyelinating and axonal.

      Demyelinating pathology is characterized by damage to the myelin sheath, which is the protective covering around nerve fibers. This type of neuropathy can be caused by conditions such as Guillain-Barre syndrome, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP), amiodarone, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) type I, and paraprotein neuropathy.

      On the other hand, axonal pathology is characterized by damage to the nerve fibers themselves. This type of neuropathy can be caused by factors such as alcohol, diabetes mellitus, vasculitis, vitamin B12 deficiency, and hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) type II.

      It is important to note that some conditions, such as diabetes mellitus and vitamin B12 deficiency, can cause both demyelinating and axonal pathology. Understanding the type of pathology involved in peripheral neuropathy can help with diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      128.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 78-year-old woman is being evaluated in cardiology clinic for potential intervention for...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old woman is being evaluated in cardiology clinic for potential intervention for severe aortic stenosis. She was diagnosed with the condition four months ago after experiencing progressive exertional breathlessness and reduced exercise tolerance. The patient expressed interest in undergoing either surgical aortic valve replacement (SAVR) or transcatheter aortic valve insertion (TAVI) at her initial review. She has since undergone various assessments to determine her suitability for the procedures.

      The patient has a good functional status, lives independently with her daughter, and participates in a wide range of community activities. She has a long-standing diagnosis of hypertension and suffered a left cortical stroke three years ago. Additionally, she has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease but quit smoking 30 years ago. Her regular medications include amlodipine, ramipril, clopidogrel, simvastatin, and an ipratropium inhaler. She uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed and has no known drug allergies.

      The patient's investigations revealed severe aortic stenosis with no other valve disease, normal systolic function, and no anatomic contraindications to TAVI. Coronary angiography showed no evidence of coronary artery disease, while iliofemoral angiography revealed severe calcification and tortuosity of iliac arteries, making her unsuitable for transfemoral TAVI. Pulmonary function tests indicated moderate obstructive lung disease.

      Based on the assessment, surgical aortic valve replacement was estimated to carry a 4.1% risk of mortality and 3.7% risk of permanent stroke (intermediate risk). No contraindications to transapical transcatheter aortic valve insertion were identified.

      What is the recommended intervention for this patient's severe aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer: Surgical aortic valve replacement with bioprosthetic valve

      Explanation:

      The patient’s comorbidities put her at an intermediate risk for SAVR, which was calculated using the STS risk calculator. While TAVI was initially developed for patients who were deemed unfit for SAVR due to high predicted mortality, recent research has shown that transfemoral TAVI can be a suitable intervention for some patients with a low or intermediate risk associated with SAVR. As patients age, transfemoral TAVI is increasingly preferred over SAVR.

      However, transapical TAVI outcomes are inferior to SAVR, and this intervention is only appropriate for individuals with an unacceptably high surgical risk. When both SAVR and transapical TAVI are possible, SAVR is strongly recommended for patients of all ages.

      Therefore, for this patient, bioprosthetic SAVR is the preferred intervention over transapical TAVI. Unfortunately, the anatomy of her iliac arteries makes transfemoral TAVI technically impossible.

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope or presyncope, and a distinct ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, duration of murmur, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The condition can be caused by degenerative calcification, bicuspid aortic valve, William’s syndrome, post-rheumatic disease, or subvalvular HOCM.

      Management of aortic stenosis depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are usually observed, while symptomatic patients require valve replacement. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement. If the valvular gradient is greater than 40 mmHg and there are features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, surgery may be considered even if the patient is asymptomatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      83.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old man is hospitalized due to the development of abnormal movements on...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is hospitalized due to the development of abnormal movements on his left side. He has a history of hypertension, which is managed with atenolol, but is otherwise in good health. During the central nervous system examination, he displays sudden and forceful involuntary flinging movements of his left arm. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Tetrabenazine

      Explanation:

      Hemiballismus Caused by Lesion in Contralateral Subthalamic Nucleus

      Hemiballismus is a medical condition characterized by involuntary and violent movements of one side of the body. This condition is caused by a lesion in the subthalamic nucleus, which is located in the brain. In the case of hemiballismus, the lesion is found in the contralateral subthalamic nucleus, which means that the affected side of the body is opposite to the side of the brain where the lesion is located.

      The subthalamic nucleus is a small structure located deep within the brain, and it plays a crucial role in controlling movement. When a lesion occurs in this area, it can disrupt the normal functioning of the brain and lead to the development of hemiballismus. The symptoms of this condition can be severe and can significantly impact a person’s quality of life.

      In summary, hemiballismus is a condition that results from a lesion in the subthalamic nucleus, specifically in the contralateral side of the brain. This condition can cause involuntary and violent movements on one side of the body and can significantly affect a person’s daily activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      177.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Oncology (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (3/3) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics (2/2) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed