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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old teacher has recently been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection, following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old teacher has recently been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection, following a referral to the local gastroenterologist.

      You have not yet received their clinic letter but the patient says that they explained to him that he will be starting treatment soon and wanted to ask you a few questions about the likely success.

      Which of the following factors is associated with a good response to interferon alpha in patients with hepatitis C?

      Your Answer: Short duration of disease

      Correct Answer: Presence of cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Response to Interferon Alpha in Hepatitis C Treatment

      A high viral load, obesity, old age, cirrhosis, continued alcohol use, immune deficiency, poor adherence to treatment, and significant steatosis on liver biopsy are all factors that can affect the response rate to interferon alpha in hepatitis C treatment. Patients with genotype 1 infection and a high viral load are particularly at risk for a poor response to interferon alpha. On the other hand, patients with genotypes 2 or 3 infection and a short duration of disease have a better chance of responding well to treatment. The recommended duration of therapy also varies depending on the genotype. It is important to address these factors when considering treatment options for hepatitis C patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      82.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman has been experiencing cyclical mood swings and irritability before her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has been experiencing cyclical mood swings and irritability before her periods, which resolve a few days after menstruation. She visited her GP, who prescribed a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after reviewing her symptom diary. However, after three months of treatment, she returns to her GP reporting that her symptoms have not improved and it is affecting her ability to be a good mother. What is the most suitable treatment option for her?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      The use of SSRI medications, either continuously or during the luteal phase, may be beneficial in managing premenstrual syndrome (PMS). This is especially true for patients who have not seen improvement with first-line treatments such as combined oral contraceptive pills. Co-cyprindiol, levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine systems, mirtazapine, and copper coils are not indicated for the management of PMS.

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and doesn’t occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      718.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old male presents with bilateral gynaecomastia. He reports a noticeable increase in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents with bilateral gynaecomastia. He reports a noticeable increase in breast tissue over the past several months. His medical history includes a congenital right-sided crypto-orchidism, which was corrected with orchidopexy during childhood. He also experiences migraines and uses sumatriptan as needed. What is the probable underlying cause of his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mondor's disease

      Correct Answer: Drug-induced

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia and Testicular Tumour

      This man is likely to have a testicular tumour as the cause of his gynaecomastia. While bilateral breast cancer in a male his age is highly unusual, gynaecomastia can develop due to the hormonal influence of a tumour. Sumatriptan doesn’t cause gynaecomastia, and Mondor’s disease is a thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the breast or chest wall. Physiological changes of puberty occur during puberty and not in the mid-20s, making testicular tumour the most likely option.

      The patient’s history of crypto-orchidism is a risk factor for the development of testicular cancer, and he is in the typical age range. However, it should be noted that only a minority of testicular cancers present with gynaecomastia. According to the American Family Physician, approximately 10% of males present with gynaecomastia from tumours that secrete beta human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG). Therefore, further investigation and genital examination are necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      106.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old man presents with a history of epigastric pain typical of dyspepsia...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents with a history of epigastric pain typical of dyspepsia which had been present for three months, together with weight loss of 2 stone over the same period.

      He had been treated with a proton pump inhibitor but had not benefited from this therapy. More recently he had noticed a difficulty when trying to eat solids and frequently vomited after meals.

      On examination he had a palpable mass in the epigastrium and his full blood count revealed a haemoglobin of 85 g/L (130-180).

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carcinoma of stomach

      Explanation:

      Alarm Symptoms of Foregut Malignancy

      The presence of alarm symptoms in patients over 55 years old, such as weight loss, bleeding, dysphagia, vomiting, blood loss, and a mass, are indicative of a malignancy of the foregut. It is crucial to refer these patients for urgent endoscopy, especially if dysphagia is a new onset symptom.

      However, it is unfortunate that patients with alarm symptoms are often treated with PPIs instead of being referred for further evaluation. Although PPIs may provide temporary relief, they only delay the diagnosis of the underlying tumor. Therefore, it is important to recognize the significance of alarm symptoms and promptly refer patients for appropriate diagnostic testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      52.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A mother arrives with her 3-year-old daughter who was diagnosed with cow's milk...

    Incorrect

    • A mother arrives with her 3-year-old daughter who was diagnosed with cow's milk protein allergy (CMPA) at 6 months old. She has been on a dairy-free diet and fed hydrolysed milk until she turned 2. Recently, she successfully completed the milk ladder and has been drinking raw milk for the past month without any adverse reactions. The mother is curious if this is typical or if her daughter was misdiagnosed earlier. IgE testing was conducted and came back normal.

      What advice would you give to the mother of the 3-year-old girl?

      Your Answer: Lactose intolerance is more likely

      Correct Answer: Milk tolerance is common by 3 years

      Explanation:

      It is common for children with non-IgE-mediated cow’s milk protein allergy to become milk tolerant by the age of 3. This is typically achieved through exposure to increasing levels of milk protein via the milk ladder. Diagnosis of CMPA is based on clinical symptoms and withdrawal of cow’s milk protein-containing substances, followed by re-exposure. Lactose intolerance is rare in children under 3 years old. Milk tolerance is only uncommon in cases of IgE-mediated cow’s milk protein allergy.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      151.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - During a localised outbreak of measles your practice is inundated with requests for...

    Correct

    • During a localised outbreak of measles your practice is inundated with requests for MMR vaccine from worried parents of young children.

      In which of the following age groups is MMR vaccine contraindicated?

      Your Answer: Pregnant women

      Explanation:

      Who Should Not Receive the MMR Vaccine?

      There are only a few circumstances where the MMR vaccine cannot be given. Firstly, pregnant women should not receive the vaccine. Secondly, those with a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to gelatin or neomycin should not receive the vaccine. Thirdly, those who are immunocompromised should not receive the vaccine. Lastly, those who have had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of measles, mumps or rubella-containing vaccine should not receive the vaccine.

      Breastfeeding is not a contraindication to MMR immunisation, and MMR can be given to breastfeeding mothers without any risk to the baby. While two MMR vaccinations are needed for 99% protection, there is no limit to the number of MMR vaccinations an individual can receive. The risk of adverse reactions becomes less with increasing doses of MMR. Additionally, there is no upper age limit to receiving the MMR vaccine, and a 1-year-old child could theoretically receive the vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      87.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 18-year-old, non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is discovered to...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old, non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is discovered to have >100,000 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli/ml urine during a routine health examination.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Treat with oral trimethoprim for 3 days

      Correct Answer: No antibiotics are indicated

      Explanation:

      Asymptomatic Bacteriuria and Treatment Considerations

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common occurrence in non-pregnant women, affecting approximately 3% of the population. While it doesn’t require treatment as it poses no risk of morbidity or mortality, treatment may increase the frequency of symptomatic infections. However, treatment is necessary if there are comorbid factors such as diabetes, renal transplantation, invasive GU investigations, or a renal stone.

      Pregnancy is an absolute indication for treatment as asymptomatic bacteriuria increases the risk of pyelonephritis, pre-eclampsia, prematurity, and perinatal death. However, a single finding of asymptomatic bacteriuria is not an indication for renal tract investigation.

      For individuals with long-term urinary catheters in place, administering antibiotics may cause additional problems. These patients invariably have bacteriuria, and the bacteria may be more difficult to treat, leading to the development of a yeast infection. Therefore, treatment considerations should be carefully evaluated in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old woman with no past medical history has been struggling to lose...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with no past medical history has been struggling to lose weight. She has been attending supervised weight loss sessions and gym classes, but has not been successful in her efforts. She was prescribed orlistat 120 mg, to be taken after each meal, 10 weeks ago when she weighed 100 kg (BMI 37 kg/m2). After 10 weeks of taking orlistat, she now weighs 97.5 kg. What would be the most appropriate management in this situation?

      Your Answer: Increase the dose to 180 mg with meals

      Correct Answer: Discontinue orlistat

      Explanation:

      Options for Managing Inadequate Weight Loss with Orlistat

      Orlistat is a medication used to aid weight loss by reducing the absorption of dietary fat. However, if a patient fails to lose at least 5% of their body weight after 12 weeks of treatment, orlistat should be discontinued. Here are some options for managing inadequate weight loss with orlistat:

      1. Discontinue orlistat: If a patient has not lost at least 5% of their starting weight, orlistat should be discontinued. A lower weight loss target may be considered for patients with type II diabetes.

      2. Increase activity levels: Increasing physical activity can help with weight loss. However, it is important to address any underlying issues that may be hindering weight loss.

      3. Refer for bariatric surgery: Bariatric surgery may be an option for patients with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 or more, or 35–40 kg/m2 with significant comorbidity that could be improved with weight loss. Non-surgical methods of weight loss should be attempted prior to referral.

      4. Increase the dose to 180 mg with meals: The maximum dose of orlistat is 120 mg up to three times a day. A 60 mg preparation is available over the counter. However, increasing the dose beyond the recommended maximum is not advised.

      It is important to regularly review progress and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      122.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - According to the PRACtICe study published by the GMC in May 2012, which...

    Incorrect

    • According to the PRACtICe study published by the GMC in May 2012, which drug was frequently linked to monitoring errors in general practice prescribing?

      Your Answer: Lithium carbonate

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Errors in General Practice

      The PRACtICe study commissioned by the GMC has revealed that simvastatin, warfarin, ramipril, and bendroflumethiazide are the drugs most associated with monitoring errors in general practice. Simvastatin was found to be associated with the most frequent drug monitoring errors at 18.2%. Ramipril followed closely at 14.6%. Carbimazole, levothyroxine, lithium carbonate, and methotrexate were also found to be associated with monitoring errors, albeit at a lower frequency of 1.8%.

      As healthcare professionals, it is crucial to be aware of the drugs that require monitoring and how often they need to be monitored. It is especially important to exercise extra caution when prescribing and monitoring simvastatin, warfarin, ramipril, and bendroflumethiazide, as these drugs account for most monitoring errors. By being vigilant and knowledgeable about these drugs, we can help prevent medication-related harm and ensure the safety of our patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      124.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation after experiencing some palpitations. She has no other medical history and only takes atorvastatin for high cholesterol. She has no symptoms currently and her observations are stable with a heart rate of 75 beats per minute. Her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.

      What would be the appropriate next step in managing Sophie's condition?

      Your Answer: Start him on aspirin

      Correct Answer: Arrange for an echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      When a patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score that suggests they do not need anticoagulation, it is recommended to perform a transthoracic echo to rule out valvular heart disease. The CHA2DS2-VASc score is used to assess the risk of stroke in AF patients, and anticoagulant treatment is generally indicated for those with a score of two or more. Rivaroxaban is an anticoagulant that can be used in AF, but it is not necessary in this scenario. Aspirin should not be used to prevent stroke in AF patients. If a patient requires rate control for fast AF, beta-blockers are the first line of treatment. Digoxin is only used for patients with a more sedentary lifestyle and doesn’t protect against stroke. It is important to perform a transthoracic echo in AF patients, especially if it may change their management or refine their risk of stroke and need for anticoagulation.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      105.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A man’s partner has Huntington’s disease. They wish to have children and seek...

    Incorrect

    • A man’s partner has Huntington’s disease. They wish to have children and seek genetic counselling. There is no history of the disease in his family tree.
      What is the most likely risk of disease transmission to his children?

      Your Answer: There is no risk of children being affected

      Correct Answer: There is a 50% chance of a child being affected

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inheritance Pattern of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is an autosomal-dominant disorder, which means that an affected person inherits one copy of the gene with an expanded trinucleotide repeat from their parent with the condition. This also means that each child of an affected person has a 50% chance of inheriting the gene and developing the disease. However, if the mother’s family has no history of the disease, the risk of children being affected is lower. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of Huntington’s disease to make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      140
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You see a 3-year-old girl who you suspect has asthma. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 3-year-old girl who you suspect has asthma. She has a moderate response to an inhaled short-acting beta-2-agonist (SABA) but you are planning to trial an inhaled corticosteroid to see if her control can be improved.

      How long should a trial of inhaled corticosteroid be for a child under three years of age with suspected asthma?

      Your Answer: 12 weeks

      Correct Answer: 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Children Under Five with Suspected Asthma

      For children under the age of five with suspected asthma, NICE recommends an eight week trial of a moderate dose of inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) if there are symptoms that clearly indicate the need for maintenance therapy. These symptoms include occurring three times a week or more, causing waking at night, or being uncontrolled with a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) alone.

      After the eight week trial, the ICS treatment should be stopped and the child’s symptoms monitored. If the symptoms did not resolve during the trial period, an alternative diagnosis should be considered. If the symptoms resolved but reoccurred within four weeks of stopping the ICS treatment, the ICS should be restarted at a low dose as first-line maintenance therapy. If the symptoms resolved but reoccurred beyond four weeks after stopping the ICS treatment, another eight week trial of a moderate dose of ICS should be repeated.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure proper management of asthma in young children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      116.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 14-year-old boy presents with intermittent epistaxis and no identifiable triggers. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with intermittent epistaxis and no identifiable triggers. He has a history of adenoid surgery and anaphylaxis to peanuts. On examination, no bleeding focus is found, and his lab results show:

      Hb 130 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 280 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      What would be the most appropriate suggestion for this patient?

      Your Answer: Perform cautery of the anterior nasal septum

      Correct Answer: Recommend first aid measures during nosebleeds

      Explanation:

      Given the patient’s normal examination and blood counts, the most suitable option would be to provide first aid measures for nosebleeds. It is important to note that Naseptin cream contains peanut oil, which is contraindicated for this patient due to her anaphylaxis to peanuts.

      Performing cautery of a bleeding focus can be considered by a primary care practitioner with experience, but only if a bleeding focus is identified and not bilaterally to avoid perforation. However, since no abnormalities were found during examination, cautery is not recommended.

      If the clinician is uncertain about management, referring the patient to an ENT surgeon is a viable option. This may not be the best initial management, but it is appropriate if the issue recurs.

      If the bleeding persists despite appropriate first aid measures, it is recommended to advise the patient to go to the emergency department. The first aid measures would include applying pressure below the nasal bones on the nasal cartilage while sitting forward for 20 minutes.

      Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management

      Epistaxis, commonly known as nosebleeds, can be categorized into anterior and posterior bleeds. Anterior bleeds usually have a visible source of bleeding and occur due to an injury to the network of capillaries that form Kiesselbach’s plexus. On the other hand, posterior haemorrhages tend to be more severe and originate from deeper structures. They are more common in older patients and pose a higher risk of aspiration and airway obstruction.

      Most cases of epistaxis are benign and self-limiting. However, exacerbation factors such as nose picking, nose blowing, trauma to the nose, insertion of foreign bodies, bleeding disorders, and immune thrombocytopenia can trigger nosebleeds. Other causes include hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and cocaine use.

      If the patient is haemodynamically stable, bleeding can be controlled with first aid measures such as sitting with their torso forward and their mouth open, pinching the cartilaginous area of the nose firmly for at least 20 minutes, and using a topical antiseptic to reduce crusting and the risk of vestibulitis. If bleeding persists, cautery or packing may be necessary. Cautery should be used initially if the source of the bleed is visible, while packing may be used if cautery is not viable or the bleeding point cannot be visualized.

      Patients that are haemodynamically unstable or compromised should be admitted to the emergency department, while those with a bleed from an unknown or posterior source should be admitted to the hospital. Epistaxis that has failed all emergency management may require sphenopalatine ligation in theatre. Overall, understanding the causes and management of epistaxis is crucial in providing effective care for patients experiencing nosebleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      80.9
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  • Question 14 - A 9-month-old boy has a temperature of 38.5°C. You first saw the child...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old boy has a temperature of 38.5°C. You first saw the child two days ago and the child has been febrile since then. He now has a faint erythematous macular rash that blanches on pressure. The parents are anxious.
      Which option would be MOST IMPORTANT in making the decision to admit the child to hospital?

      Your Answer: A temperature of 38.5°C

      Correct Answer: Increasing family anxiety

      Explanation:

      Identifying Red Flags in Febrile Children

      Febrile illness in children can be a cause of concern for parents and healthcare providers. While most cases are self-limiting and resolve without complications, some may require urgent medical attention. It is important to identify red flags that indicate a potentially serious underlying condition.

      Factors that may increase family anxiety include a history of serious illness or death due to feverish illness, other illnesses affecting the child or family members, and parental instinct. Parents should not ignore their intuition and seek medical advice if they are concerned.

      While there are no set rules about how long a fever should last, parents should seek further advice if their child has been febrile for five days without resolution. In infants aged 0-3 months, a temperature of >38°C is a red flag, while a temperature of >39°C in infants aged 3-6 months is an amber flag. After six months of age, the temperature alone is no longer an indicator of intermediate or high risk.

      Reduced fluid intake, dry mucous membranes, reduced urine output, and reduced skin turgor are amber warning signs that require medical attention. A blanching erythematous rash is likely to indicate a viral infection and is not a cause for concern. However, non-blanching petechiae and patches in a sick child suggest meningococcal disease and require urgent medical attention.

      In conclusion, identifying red flags in febrile children is crucial for timely diagnosis and management of potentially serious conditions. Parents should seek medical advice if they are concerned about their child’s health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      95.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old man who has not received measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccine...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man who has not received measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccine presents with temperature of 38.5oC, headache, orchitis and unilateral parotitis.
      Select the single most appropriate initial response.

      Your Answer: Arrange immediate hospital admission

      Correct Answer: Advise symptomatic treatment only

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Mumps

      Mumps is a viral infection that is usually diagnosed clinically without the need for further investigations. However, in cases where meningitis is present without parotitis, mumps-specific antibodies in the serum can confirm the diagnosis. Salivary IgM against mumps can also be detected, but it may take several days for antibody levels to rise. If the initial test is negative, it is recommended to repeat the test.

      There is no specific treatment for mumps, but symptomatic relief can be achieved with paracetamol and ibuprofen. Meningism, which occurs in about 10% of patients, is usually mild and self-limiting, even without parotitis. Orchitis, which occurs in approximately 25% of post-pubertal men, can be mistaken for testicular torsion in someone of this age. However, based on the given symptoms, hospital admission is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      282.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis takes oral steroids. She complains of watering...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis takes oral steroids. She complains of watering of both eyes and occasional blurred vision while working on a computer.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dry eyes

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Possible Eye Conditions Caused by Corticosteroid Treatment

      Corticosteroid treatment can cause various eye conditions, including dry eyes, cataracts, and glaucoma. Dry eye syndrome is characterized by a burning or gritty sensation, dryness, intermittent blurring of vision, redness, itching, and photosensitivity. Cataracts caused by corticosteroids are typically posterior and subcapsular, leading to gradually progressive blurring of vision. Glaucoma may also occur due to raised intraocular pressure, resulting in optic nerve damage and peripheral vision loss. However, any optic nerve damage is irreversible. In contrast, corticosteroid eye drops may be used to manage inflammatory eye disorders associated with dry eyes. Fluctuating blood sugar levels caused by corticosteroids can also result in osmotic swelling of the lens, leading to intermittent blurring of vision. Finally, a transient ischaemic attack may cause acute transient loss of vision or transient diplopia, but it is not related to corticosteroid treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      72
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Can you rearrange the following types of research studies in their correct order...

    Correct

    • Can you rearrange the following types of research studies in their correct order according to their level of evidence, starting with the highest level on the left and ending with the lowest level on the right: systematic review of RCTs, RCTs, cohort, case-control, cross-sectional, case-series? Take your time and try to recall the hierarchy.

      Your Answer: Systematic review of RCTs, RCTs, cohort, case-control, cross-sectional, case-series

      Explanation:

      Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine

      In order to evaluate the quality of evidence in evidence-based medicine, levels or grades are often used to organize the evidence. Traditional hierarchies placed systematic reviews or randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each. On the other hand, the GRADE system is a grading approach that classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, or very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical or important, and the evidence is gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence. Evidence can be promoted or downgraded based on certain circumstances. The use of levels and grades of evidence helps to evaluate the quality of evidence and make informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      80.8
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  • Question 18 - A 22-year-old woman presented with a history of 15 kg weight loss in...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presented with a history of 15 kg weight loss in the previous four months. She has been amenorrheic for some months.

      On examination she had fine lanugo hair and a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg.

      Which one of the following laboratory results would support the most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Suppressed T3 concentration

      Correct Answer: Low plasma testosterone concentration

      Explanation:

      Anorexia Nervosa and its Associated Hormonal Changes

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that affects many individuals. It is characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. Patients with anorexia often experience hormonal changes that can have significant effects on their health.

      One of the most common hormonal changes associated with anorexia is functional hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. This condition is characterized by low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH). Despite this, plasma testosterone levels are typically normal in females with anorexia.

      Cortisol levels may also be affected in patients with anorexia. While they may be within the normal range, they may fail to suppress with dexamethasone. Additionally, basal levels of T3 may be depressed, while thyroxine (T4) and TSH levels may be normal. Finally, ferritin levels are often low in a state of malnutrition.

      Overall, anorexia nervosa can have significant effects on a patient’s hormonal balance. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these changes and to monitor patients accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 19 - When prescribing the following drugs, which one requires the prescription to state the...

    Incorrect

    • When prescribing the following drugs, which one requires the prescription to state the total quantity in both words and figures?

      Your Answer: Subcutaneous somatropin

      Correct Answer: Buccal midazolam

      Explanation:

      In January 2008, midazolam was reclassified as a controlled drug under Schedule 3.

      Controlled drugs are medications that have the potential for abuse and are regulated by the 2001 Misuse of Drugs Regulations act. The act divides these drugs into five categories or schedules, each with its own rules on prescribing, supply, possession, and record keeping. When prescribing a controlled drug, certain information must be present on the prescription, including the patient’s name and address, the form and strength of the medication, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the prescriber’s name, signature, address, and current date.

      Schedule 1 drugs, such as cannabis and lysergide, have no recognized medical use and are strictly prohibited. Schedule 2 drugs, including diamorphine, morphine, pethidine, amphetamine, and cocaine, have recognized medical uses but are highly addictive and subject to strict regulations. Schedule 3 drugs, such as barbiturates, buprenorphine, midazolam, temazepam, tramadol, gabapentin, and pregabalin, have a lower potential for abuse but are still subject to regulation. Schedule 4 drugs are divided into two parts, with part 1 including benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam) and zolpidem, zopiclone, and part 2 including androgenic and anabolic steroids, hCG, and somatropin. Schedule 5 drugs, such as codeine, pholcodine, and Oramorph 10 mg/5ml, have a low potential for abuse and are exempt from most controlled drug requirements.

      Prescriptions for controlled drugs in schedules 2, 3, and 4 are valid for 28 days and must include all required information. Pharmacists are generally not allowed to dispense these medications unless all information is present, but they may amend the prescription if it specifies the total quantity only in words or figures or contains minor typographical errors. Safe custody requirements apply to schedules 2 and 3 drugs, but not to schedule 4 drugs. The BNF marks schedule 2 and 3 drugs with the abbreviation CD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old man presents with a complaint of a sore throat. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a complaint of a sore throat. What is not included in the Centor criteria for evaluating the probability of a bacterial origin?

      Your Answer: Presence of tonsillar exudate

      Correct Answer: Duration > 5 days

      Explanation:

      In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      362.8
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old female presents to your clinic with complaints of increased urgency to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents to your clinic with complaints of increased urgency to urinate and frequent leakage of urine. A urinary dipstick test shows no abnormalities, and a vaginal examination is unremarkable. Malignancy is not suspected. What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient's urgency urinary incontinence?

      Your Answer: Advise her to use absorbent products and toileting aids

      Correct Answer: Bladder retraining

      Explanation:

      The initial treatment for urge incontinence is bladder retraining, while pelvic floor muscle training is the first-line approach for stress incontinence. Toileting aids alone are not effective in resolving urge incontinence and should not be recommended as the primary treatment. Oxybutynin and botulin injections may be considered as secondary treatment options if necessary.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 22 - Anti-Ro (anti-SSA) antibodies are most commonly found in which of the following conditions?...

    Correct

    • Anti-Ro (anti-SSA) antibodies are most commonly found in which of the following conditions? Choose ONE option from the list.

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      The Role of Anti-Ro (Anti-SSA) Autoantibodies in Various Autoimmune Diseases

      Anti-Ro (anti-SSA) autoantibodies are a type of antinuclear antibody (ANA) that bind to the contents of the cell nucleus. These antibodies are associated with several autoimmune diseases, including systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and Sjögren syndrome. In SLE, up to 50% of ANA-positive patients have the anti-Ro subtype, particularly if there is cutaneous involvement. In Sjögren syndrome, up to 90% of patients have anti-Ro antibodies. Anti-La (anti-SS-B) is also typically present in Sjögren syndrome but only in about 15% of SLE patients. Inflammatory myopathy, rheumatoid arthritis, and seronegative arthropathy have lower rates of anti-Ro presence, while vitiligo is not typically associated with these antibodies. Understanding the role of anti-Ro antibodies in different autoimmune diseases can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of numbness and pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of numbness and pain in his left thigh. He reports feeling unsteady on his feet and has gained more than 6 kg in weight over the past six months. He also has chronic lower back pain. His family has a history of a neurological condition, with his uncle having multiple sclerosis (MS). He has no other medical conditions.
      During the examination, the patient is found to be overweight. He has reduced pinprick sensation over the anterior part of his left thigh, but no motor signs. His tendor reflexes are normal and there are no cerebellar signs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial MS

      Correct Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between causes of lower limb pain: A brief overview

      Lower limb pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own unique symptoms and diagnostic criteria. Here, we will briefly discuss four potential causes of lower limb pain and how they can be differentiated.

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by numbness, paraesthesia, and pain in the anterolateral thigh. It is caused by either an entrapment neuropathy or a neuroma of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. The pain can be reproduced by deep palpation just below the anterior superior iliac spine and by extension of the hip. Obesity and weight gain are risk factors.

      Diabetic lumbosacral plexopathy is a condition in which patients develop severe pain in the hip and thigh, followed by weakness and wasting of the thigh muscles. This often occurs asymmetrically and is accompanied by distal sensory neuropathy. However, this patient has no diagnosis of diabetes.

      Familial MS is a form of multiple sclerosis that usually presents as intermittent episodic sensory, motor, or autonomic disturbances. While a family history of MS may be present, it is not a definitive diagnostic criterion.

      Lumbar canal stenosis with nerve root entrapment typically causes pain in the buttocks or lower extremities, with or without back pain. Standing, walking, or lumbar extension often exacerbate the condition, while forward flexion, sitting, or lying flat often relieves the pain.

      Finally, lumbar facet arthropathy is characterized by facet joints causing back pain that can radiate to the buttocks and legs. The pain is worsened by retroflexion and lateral flexion of the spine and prolonged standing or walking. However, facet syndrome would not usually cause reduced sensation.

      In conclusion, a thorough clinical evaluation and diagnostic testing can help differentiate between these potential causes of lower limb pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 53-year-old woman who was diagnosed with lung cancer almost a year ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman who was diagnosed with lung cancer almost a year ago presents feeling progressively unwell over the last week or two.

      You review her notes and see that she is under the care of the local respiratory team with a histological diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma. The tumour is not suitable for surgical resection and the patient is being treated palliatively.

      Her current medication consists of: paracetamol 1 g QDS, morphine sulphate 30 mg BD, Oramorph PRN for breakthrough pain, lactulose 15 mls BD and metoclopramide 10 mg TDS.

      She describes feeling generally weak and lethargic and complains of thirst and widespread aches and pains. Her family reports that she has also been a bit more vague and slightly confused over the last few days.

      Further questioning reveals that she is also suffering from some generalised abdominal pain and despite taking a regular laxative has been very constipated.

      What is the underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Atypical pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Anaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia in a Patient with Squamous Cell Lung Carcinoma

      This patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of hypercalcaemia, including confusion, lethargy, musculoskeletal aches and pains, thirst, abdominal pain, and constipation. The underlying cause of her hypercalcaemia is likely ectopic parathyroid hormone production associated with her squamous cell lung carcinoma.

      It is important to consider other potential causes of her symptoms, such as anaemia or an infective cause like atypical pneumonia. However, her medication and superior vena caval obstruction are less likely to be the primary cause of her clinical picture.

      Managing hypercalcaemia in patients with advanced cancer is crucial for symptom control and improving quality of life. The Scottish Palliative Care Guidelines provide recommendations for the management of hypercalcaemia, including hydration, bisphosphonates, and corticosteroids. Close monitoring and communication with the patient’s healthcare team are also essential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 25 - An 82-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of worsening leg cramps for...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of worsening leg cramps for the past six months. What is true about leg cramps?

      Your Answer: Referral to secondary care should always be done for this presentation

      Correct Answer: Examination of legs in patients who complain of leg cramps tend to be normal

      Explanation:

      The use of quinine as the first line of treatment for leg cramps is not recommended due to its low success rate. Blood tests may not be necessary unless a specific cause is suspected, such as checking urea and electrolytes, thyroid function, and creatine kinase. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends self-care measures as the initial treatment for leg cramps. Referral to secondary care is only necessary if symptoms persist or significantly affect the patient’s quality of life despite self-care measures.

      Managing Leg Cramps

      Leg cramps are a frequent occurrence, particularly in individuals over the age of 60. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) doesn’t recommend quinine as the first line of treatment due to its poor benefit-to-risk ratio. Instead, self-care measures such as stretching exercises for the calves are recommended as the initial management approach. If leg cramps persist despite these measures, quinine may be tried for a short period, but it should be discontinued if no improvement is observed. If the symptoms continue to affect the individual’s quality of life significantly, referral to secondary care is necessary.

      To summarize, leg cramps are a common problem that can be managed with self-care measures such as stretching exercises. Quinine should only be used if the symptoms persist, and referral to secondary care is necessary if the symptoms continue to affect the individual’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 26 - A 15-year-old girl, with Down's syndrome, has complained of neck pain. The pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl, with Down's syndrome, has complained of neck pain. The pain began after she fell while playing basketball. Her parents have noticed that she has been experiencing more falls lately.
      During the examination, she displays tenderness throughout her neck muscles and limited neck mobility.

      What is the MOST SUITABLE course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Out patient cervical spine x ray

      Correct Answer: Refer to on-call orthopaedic spinal team

      Explanation:

      Warning Signs of Craniovertebral Instability in Down’s Syndrome

      Warning signs of craniovertebral instability or myelopathy in individuals with Down’s syndrome include neck pain, abnormal head posture, reduced neck movements, deterioration of gait, increased frequency of falls, and deterioration of manipulative skills. While the term atlantoaxial instability is sometimes used, occipitoatlantal subluxation is also a concern, making craniovertebral instability the preferred term.

      Cervical spine x-rays are often unreliable, and primary care referrals can result in delays in reporting. Therefore, any clinical abnormality should be enough to warrant a referral to a specialist team. While neck exercises, simple analgesia, and physiotherapy may be helpful in cases of muscular neck pain, it is important to rule out craniovertebral instability first. Early detection and intervention can prevent further complications and improve outcomes for individuals with Down’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 27 - You see a 4-year-old girl who has had a fever for the past...

    Correct

    • You see a 4-year-old girl who has had a fever for the past five days. Her mother reports her mouth looks more red and sore than usual. She also reports discomfort in her eyes.

      On examination, you note a widespread non-vesicular rash and cervical lymphadenopathy.

      What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki Disease Treatment and Follow-Up

      Patients diagnosed with Kawasaki disease typically require hospitalization for treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin and to monitor for potential myocardial events. Due to the risk of cardiac complications, follow-up echocardiograms are necessary to detect any coronary artery aneurysms. It is important to note that Kawasaki disease is not a notifiable disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is being discharged on lithium at a dose of 400 mg daily after a prolonged period of inpatient treatment. You receive a discharge summary requesting that you continue her blood monitoring in primary care as long term lithium treatment is planned.

      What would be the most suitable monitoring regimen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure renal function or thyroid function only if clinically indicated (for example, if intercurrent infection/dehydration or symptoms of hypothyroidism develop)

      Explanation:

      Lithium Monitoring

      Lithium is a medication with a narrow therapeutic index, which means that it requires close monitoring. The dosage is adjusted to achieve a serum lithium concentration of 0.4-1 mmol/L. Lithium toxicity can cause symptoms such as blurred vision, ataxia, coarse tremor, nystagmus, dysarthria, and gastrointestinal disturbance (vomiting and diarrhea). Severe toxicity can lead to convulsions, renal failure, and circulatory failure. Therefore, serum lithium levels should be measured every three months on stabilised regimens.

      Renal failure and hypothyroidism are potential side effects of lithium use. As such, renal and thyroid function should be measured six monthly on stabilised regimens. Patients should be informed of the symptoms of hypothyroidism and advised to seek medical review if these symptoms develop. It is also important to note that lithium should be prescribed by brand rather than generically because different lithium preparations vary widely in their bioavailability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 29 - A 45-year-old man presents to you after being involved in a car accident...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to you after being involved in a car accident 3 weeks ago. He reports experiencing flashbacks of the crash while watching car chase scenes on TV and has been avoiding such shows. He also mentions having trouble falling asleep and feeling more irritable than usual. However, his symptoms have not significantly impacted his work or relationships, and he is generally functioning well. What is the recommended next step in primary care management according to current NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a period of watchful waiting, ensuring a follow-up appointment within 1 month

      Explanation:

      If an individual is experiencing mild to moderate symptoms of PTSD for less than 4 weeks, it may be appropriate to suggest a period of watchful waiting, as per the current NICE guidelines. It is not recommended to use single session interventions that focus on the traumatic event, despite their common practice. Additionally, drug treatments should not be the first-line management for PTSD, whether used by general practitioners or specialist mental health professionals. There is no need for an urgent referral to the adult mental health team in this situation.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.

      Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 30 - A young female patient in her early twenties comes to see you in...

    Incorrect

    • A young female patient in her early twenties comes to see you in surgery and you notice that she is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      For which one of the following conditions, occurring in isolation, would you consider stopping her pill immediately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Migraine without focal aura

      Explanation:

      Contraception and the BNF

      Contraception questions are frequently asked in exams, and the British National Formulary (BNF) is a valuable resource for examiners. Many previous exam questions have focused on knowledge of contraindications and important adverse reactions.

      According to the BNF, jaundice is a reason to immediately stop taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other reasons to stop taking the pill immediately include sudden severe chest pain, sudden breathlessness, and blood pressure above 160/100.

      The other conditions listed are all cautions and would not warrant stopping the pill in isolation. However, if two or more cautions are present, there may be a need to stop taking the pill. It is important to be aware of these guidelines when prescribing or taking contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (3/4) 75%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/2) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/2) 0%
Genomic Medicine (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/2) 0%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/3) 67%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (0/2) 0%
Passmed