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  • Question 1 - A 65 yr. old male with a history of smoking and alcohol was...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old male with a history of smoking and alcohol was admitted with an ST elevation myocardial infarction. He was obese and lives a sedentary lifestyle. What is the non-pharmacological intervention which will be most helpful to reduce future ischaemic events?

      Your Answer: Diet control

      Correct Answer: Stopping smoking

      Explanation:

      Stopping smoking is the single most effective non-pharmacological intervention which will reduce future ischaemic events. But the rest of the responses are also important interventions with regards to reducing future ischaemic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      53.1
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 45 yr. old male was discharged recently after treatment of bleeding peptic...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 yr. old male was discharged recently after treatment of bleeding peptic ulcers. 3 days after discharge he was readmitted complaining of acute severe chest pain for the past 1 hour. His ECG showed an acute ST elevation myocardial infarction. His FBC, blood urea, serum electrolytes and serum creatinine were within normal ranges. Faecal occult blood was negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start intravenous nitrates and a beta-blocker but not heparin

      Correct Answer: Primary angioplasty

      Explanation:

      The patient has a recent history of bleeding peptic ulcer disease, which is an absolute contraindication for thrombolysis. So he should be offered primary angioplasty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      237.1
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A 28 yr. old male was admitted with palpitations and chest discomfort for...

    Correct

    • A 28 yr. old male was admitted with palpitations and chest discomfort for the past 1 hour. On examination his pulse rate was 200 bpm and blood pressure was 80/50 mmHg. His ECG revealed narrow complex tachycardia with a heart rate of 200 bpm. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Synchronised DC synchronised cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Narrow complex tachycardia with hypotension is a medical emergency. Immediate synchronized cardioversion is the ideal management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      22.3
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 30 yr. old male with Down's Syndrome was found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 yr. old male with Down's Syndrome was found to have a systolic murmur during routine clinical examination. Which of the following is the most common cardiac defect associated with Down's Syndrome which will explain this finding?

      Your Answer: Secundum atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Endocardial cushion defect

      Explanation:

      Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD) also known as endocardial cushion defect is the most common cardiac abnormality in Down’s Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      117.4
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy came for...

    Correct

    • A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy came for the routine follow up. She was asymptomatic at the time of examination. Her blood pressure was 152/92 mmHg and pulse rate was 90 bpm. Her blood pressure at the booking visit had been 132/80 mmHg. Her other examination findings were normal. Which of the following is the best method to use to treat her?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Methyldopa is the drug of first choice for the control of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy. Labetalol is also considered as a first line drug for hypertension in pregnancy. Calcium channel blockers and hydralazine are considered as second line drugs. Beta-blockers (except labetalol), angiotensin receptor blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and thiazides are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      25.1
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 32 yr. old previously well primigravida in her 16th week of pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 yr. old previously well primigravida in her 16th week of pregnancy came to the antenatal clinic for a routine review. Her blood pressure was 152/90 mmHg. On her last clinic visit 4 weeks ago her blood pressure was 148/86 mmHg. She was put on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring and her mean blood pressure was 148/88 mmHg. Her urine examination was negative for protein. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy-induced hypertension

      Correct Answer: Pre-existing hypertension

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia is excluded from negative proteinuria. White coat hypertension is excluded with ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. Pregnancy induced hypertension develops after 20 weeks of gestation. So the most likely answer is pre-existing hypertension. She should be investigated for a secondary cause for hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      91
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 72 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension for 15 years, presented with gradual onset difficulty in breathing on exertion and bilateral ankle swelling for the past 3 months. On examination he had mild ankle oedema. His JVP was not elevated. His heart sounds were normal but he had bibasal crepitations on auscultation. Which of the following clinical signs has the greatest sensitivity in detecting heart failure in this patient?

      Your Answer: Raised jugular venous pressure

      Correct Answer: Third heart sound

      Explanation:

      The presence of a third heart sound is the most sensitive indicator of heart failure. All of the other signs can be found in heart failure with varying degrees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      153.7
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A 60 yr. old male presented with ventricular tachycardia which was successfully cardioverted....

    Correct

    • A 60 yr. old male presented with ventricular tachycardia which was successfully cardioverted. To check whether he had prolonged QT interval, which of the following is the most appropriate method to measure the QT interval in ECG?

      Your Answer: Time between the start of the Q wave and the end of the T wave

      Explanation:

      The QT interval is the time from the start of the Q wave to the end of the T wave. It represents the time taken for ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation. The QT interval should be measured in either lead II or V5-6.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      384.9
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Which of the following is suggestive of co-existence of mitral regurgitation and mitral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is suggestive of co-existence of mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer: Loud P2

      Correct Answer: Displaced apex beat

      Explanation:

      Apex beat displacement is caused by mitral regurgitation and because it is not found in mitral stenosis, it is suggestive of mixed mitral disease. The other given responses occur in mitral stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      710.5
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 85 yr. old male with a history of hypertension presented with a...

    Correct

    • A 85 yr. old male with a history of hypertension presented with a couple of pre-syncopal episodes. He describes these episodes as him having felt as if he was going to faint and he has had to sit down. There were no precipitating factors, associated chest pain or palpitations. He doesn't have chest pain, shortness of breath on exertion, orthopnoea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. On examination he looked well. Blood pressure was 140/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 78 bpm which was irregular. His lungs were clear and heart sounds were normal. ECG showed sinus rhythm with occasional ventricular ectopic beats. Which of the following is an indication for permanent pacemaker implantation?

      Your Answer: Second-degree block associated with symptoms

      Explanation:

      Indications for permanent pacemaker implantation

      -Sinus node dysfunction
      -Acquired Atrioventricular(AV) block (Complete third-degree AV block with or without symptoms, Symptomatic second degree AV block, Mobitz type I and II, Exercise-induced second or third degree AV block in the absence of myocardial infarction, Mobitz II with widened QRS complex)
      -Chronic bifascicular block
      -After acute phase of myocardial infarction
      -Neurocardiogenic syncope and hypersensitive carotid sinus syndrome
      -Post cardiac transplantation
      -Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
      -Pacing to detect and terminate tachycardia
      -Cardiac resynchronization therapy in patients with severe systolic heart failure
      -Patients with congenital heart disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      71.8
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - A 80 yr. old male with hypertension presented with his second episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 80 yr. old male with hypertension presented with his second episode of atrial fibrillation. He was warfarinised and discharged. Later he was reviewed and found to be in sinus rhythm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Continue warfarin for 6 months

      Correct Answer: Continue lifelong warfarin

      Explanation:

      CHAâ‚‚DSâ‚‚-VASc score is used for atrial fibrillation stroke risk calculation.
      Congestive heart failure – 1 point
      Hypertension – 1 point
      Age ≥75 years – 2 points
      Diabetes mellitus – 1 point
      Stroke/Transient Ischemic Attack/Thromboembolic event – 2 points
      Vascular disease (prior MI, PAD, or aortic plaque) – 1 point
      Age 65 to 74 years – 1 point
      Sex category (i.e., female sex) – 1 point
      A score of 2 or more is considered as high risk and anticoagulation is indicated. This patient’s score is 3, so he needs life long warfarin to prevent stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      33.7
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 48 yr. old male presented with exertional angina for 2 weeks. He...

    Correct

    • A 48 yr. old male presented with exertional angina for 2 weeks. He has no significant past medical history or cardiac risk factors except a total cholesterol of 5.8 mmol/L. He has been already started on aspirin. Which of the following is the most suitable drug combination for him?

      Your Answer: B-blocker and statin

      Explanation:

      Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers have proven prognostic benefits. Nitrates don’t have any proven prognostic benefits. A statin is indicated for a patient with angina and cholesterol level of 5.5 to 8.5 to prevent risk of myocardial infarction. So the preferred combination from the given answers is beta blocker + statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      193.6
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A 60 yr. old man presented with severe central chest pain for the...

    Correct

    • A 60 yr. old man presented with severe central chest pain for the last 2 hours. He was on insulin for diabetes mellitus and he was dependent on haemodialysis because of end stage renal failure. He had undergone haemodialysis 48 hours prior to this presentation. His ECG showed an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Despite thrombolysis and other appropriate treatment, he continued to have chest pain after 6 hours from the initial presentation. His blood pressure was 88/54 mmHg and he had bibasal crepitations. His investigation results are given below. Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (137-144), Serum potassium 6.6 mmol/l (3.5-4.9), Serum urea 50 mmol/l (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 940 μmol/l (60-110), Haemoglobin 10.2g/dl (13.0-18.0), Troponin T >24 g/l (<0.04), Left ventricular ejection fraction was 20%. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Coronary angiography and rescue PCI

      Explanation:

      According to the history the patient has cardiogenic shock and pulmonary oedema. On-going ischaemia is indicated by persisting symptoms. So the most appropriate management is coronary angiography and rescue PCI. There are no indications for blood transfusion at this moment and it will aggravate the pulmonary oedema. Haemodialysis, beta blockers and furosemide cannot be given due to low blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      109.4
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A 35 yr. old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) was brought to...

    Correct

    • A 35 yr. old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) was brought to Casualty, complaining of chest pain and worsening difficulty in breathing for the past 36 hrs. On examination she was tachypnoeic, her BP was 85/65 mmHg and peripheral oxygen saturation was 98% on air. Her cardiac examination was normal but her jugular venous pressure was elevated. She didn't have ankle oedema. Her ECG showed sinus tachycardia and her CXR showed clear lung fields with a slightly enlarged heart. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Urgent transthoracic echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Acute breathlessness in SLE can be due to a pericardial effusion or a pulmonary embolism. Normal peripheral oxygen saturation and normal ECG, make the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism less likely. To exclude pericardial effusion, an urgent transthoracic echocardiogram is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      118.8
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A 60 yr. old man with previous history of myocardial infarction and hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old man with previous history of myocardial infarction and hypertension presented with severe retrosternal chest pain for the past 2 hours. During initial management he collapsed and pulseless ventricular tachycardia was detected. The external defibrillator arrived in 3 minutes. From the following answers, what is the most appropriate immediate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Continuous chest compressions should be started

      Correct Answer: He should be given a precordial thump

      Explanation:

      A precordial thumb is not routinely recommended because of its very low success rate for cardioversion of a shockable rhythm. It’s only recommended when there is a delay in getting the defibrillator.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      674.9
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - What is correct statement regarding pulsus alternans? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is correct statement regarding pulsus alternans?

      Your Answer: It is diagnosed electrocardiographically

      Correct Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound

      Explanation:

      Pulsus alternans is the alternation of one strong and one weak beat without a change in the cycle length. It occurs most commonly in heart failure due to increased resistance to LV ejection, as occurs in hypertension, aortic stenosis, coronary atherosclerosis, and dilated cardiomyopathy. Pulsus alternans is usually associated with an S3 gallop, which is associated with a poor prognosis. It usually disappears with treatment of the heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      298.1
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - A 50 yr. old male patient with schizophrenia complained of chest pain and...

    Correct

    • A 50 yr. old male patient with schizophrenia complained of chest pain and palpitations. His ECG revealed torsades de pointes ventricular tachycardia. He was on thioridazine for schizophrenia. What is the most appropriate management for his presentation?

      Your Answer: IV magnesium

      Explanation:

      Thioridazine has a quinidine-like action on the heart and is known to cause cardiac arrhythmias including prolonged PR and QT intervals and widening of QRS complexes. Intravenous magnesium sulphate is regarded as the treatment of choice for this arrhythmia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      6.8
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 30 yr. old male presented with exercise related syncope and dyspnoea for...

    Correct

    • A 30 yr. old male presented with exercise related syncope and dyspnoea for 2 weeks. His father passed away at the age of 40, due to sudden cardiac death. His ECG showed left ventricular hypertrophy with widespread T wave inversions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transthoracic echo

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy which is suggestive by the history, positive family history and ECG findings. Two-dimensional echocardiography is diagnostic for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. In general, a summary of echocardiography findings includes abnormal systolic anterior leaflet motion of the mitral valve, LV hypertrophy, left atrial enlargement, small ventricular chamber size, septal hypertrophy with septal-to-free wall ratio greater than 1.4:1, mitral valve prolapse and mitral regurgitation, decreased midaortic flow, and partial systolic closure of the aortic valve in midsystole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      61.9
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A 60 yr. old male patient with NSTEMI was started on low dose...

    Correct

    • A 60 yr. old male patient with NSTEMI was started on low dose aspirin as secondary prevention. Which of the following, describe the action of aspirin as an antiplatelet agent?

      Your Answer: Inhibits the production of thromboxane A2

      Explanation:

      The antithrombotic action of aspirin is due to inhibition of platelet function by acetylation of the platelet cyclooxygenase (COX) at the functionally important amino acid serine529. This prevents the access of the substrate (arachidonic aid) to the catalytic site of the enzyme at tyrosine385 and results in an irreversible inhibition of platelet-dependent thromboxane formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      33.2
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A 60 yr. old patient with hypertension attended his regular clinic. His compliance...

    Correct

    • A 60 yr. old patient with hypertension attended his regular clinic. His compliance was poor. His blood pressure was 180/100 mmHg. His pulse rate was 85 bpm which was irregularly irregular. On examination there was bibasal crepitation. No murmurs were heard. What is the most likely cause for these findings?

      Your Answer: Left ventricular hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Left ventricular hypertrophy due to long standing hypertension is the most probable cause. The irregularly irregular pulse was suggestive of atrial fibrillation, which is due to diastolic dysfunction. Poor ventricular filling causes pulmonary congestion which manifests as bibasal crepitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      77.8
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - A 70 yr. old female was brought in by the paramedics after she...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 yr. old female was brought in by the paramedics after she collapsed whilst shopping. She has a tachycardia of 150 bpm and her BP is 100/60 mmHg. Her ECG showed a broad complex tachycardia. Which of the following is more suggestive of a ventricular tachycardia (VT) over a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with aberrant conduction?

      Your Answer: A corrected QT interval of 420ms

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular dissociation

      Explanation:

      To differentiate VT from SVT with aberrant conduction the following electrocardiographic features should be looked for:

      Evidence of preceding atrial activity for SVT. Oesophageal leads are helpful if P waves are hidden in the QRS complex.
      QRS duration more than 140 ms for VT.
      QRS morphology: Features of QRS morphology that favour SVT are RBBB or triphasic patterns like rSR in V1 and qRS in V6. Monophasic pattern like R or qR in V1 and rS or QS in V6 or multiple morphology QRS complexes favour VT.
      AV dissociation for VT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      78.1
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation?

      Your Answer: Left posterior hemiblock

      Correct Answer: Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome with right-sided accessory pathway

      Explanation:

      Causes for right axis deviation:
      -Right ventricular hypertrophy and Left posterior fascicular block
      -Lateral myocardial infarction.
      -Acute or chronic lung diseases: Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cor pulmonale.
      -Congenital heart disease (e.g., dextrocardia, secundum atrial septal defect).
      -Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
      -Ventricular ectopic rhythms (e.g., ventricular tachycardia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      74.1
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A 25 yr. old previously well male presented with chest discomfort and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 yr. old previously well male presented with chest discomfort and difficulty in breathing while running to the bus. Symptoms disappeared after resting. But the symptoms reappeared whilst he was climbing the stairs. On examination he was not dyspnoeic at rest. BP was 110/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 72 bpm. His heart sounds were normal. There was an additional clicking noise in the fourth left intercostal space which is heard with each heart beat. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his presentation?

      Your Answer: Unstable angina

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      The given history is more compatible with spontaneous pneumothorax. Left-sided pneumothoraxes may be associated with a clicking noise, which is heard with each heart-beat and can sometimes be heard by the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      104
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - A 13 yr. old boy presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion. According...

    Incorrect

    • A 13 yr. old boy presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion. According to his mother who was also present, his exercise tolerance has been gradually worsening for the past weeks. It has reached the point where he is unable to participate in his weekly soccer match. Cardiac catherization was performed and the results are given below: (Anatomical site vs Oxygen saturation (%)vs Pressure (mmHg)) Superior vena cava: 73 ,–. Right atrium: 71, 6. Right ventricle: 72, –. Pulmonary artery: 86, 53/13. PCWP: –, 15. Left ventricle: 97, 111/10. Aorta: 96, 128/61. Which of the following is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      The oxygen saturation in the pulmonary artery is higher than that of the right ventricle. The pressure of the pulmonary artery and of the PCWP are also high. So patent ductus arteriosus is highly suggestive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      230.3
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A 65 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute central chest pain for...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute central chest pain for 2 hours. Which of the following ECG findings is an indication for thrombolysis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Q waves in any two leads

      Correct Answer: 1 mm ST elevation in 2 limb leads

      Explanation:

      Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in patients with evidence of ST-segment elevation MI (STEMI) or presumably new left bundle-branch block (LBBB) presenting within 12 hours of the onset of symptoms if there are no contraindications to fibrinolysis. STEMI is defined as new ST elevation at the J point in at least two contiguous leads of 2 mm (0.2 mV) or more in men or 1.5 mm (0.15 mV) in women in leads V2-V3 and/or 1 mm (0.1 mV) or more in other contiguous limb leads.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      57.1
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A 70 yr. old male patient presented with increased difficulty in breathing during...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 yr. old male patient presented with increased difficulty in breathing during the last 4 months. He was diagnosed with mitral stenosis. On examination his BP was 120/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 68 bpm. There were bibasal crepitations on auscultation. He was on bisoprolol, frusemide and ISDN. From the given answers, what is the most likely indication of worsening of his mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer: Elevated serum creatinine

      Correct Answer: Haemoptysis

      Explanation:

      Haemoptysis is a symptom which indicates the worsening of mitral stenosis. It occurs due to the rupture of pulmonary veins or the capillary system due to pulmonary venous hypertension. Elevated serum creatinine is seen in worsening aortic stenosis. Worsening of tricuspid regurgitation causes ascites and a pulsatile liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      112.8
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus...

    Correct

    • A 50 yr. old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for 2 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 145/80 mmHg. On auscultation reversed splitting of the second heart sound and bibasal crepitations were detected. What would be the most likely finding on his ECG?

      Your Answer: Left bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      When closure of the pulmonary valve occurs before the aortic valve, reversed splitting occurs. The causes of reversed splitting are aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block (LBBB), and a ventricular pacemaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      83.9
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A 75 yr. old male with rheumatoid arthritis underwent a colectomy 2 days...

    Correct

    • A 75 yr. old male with rheumatoid arthritis underwent a colectomy 2 days ago for colon cancer. He was put on a prophylactic dose of low molecular weight heparin post operatively as well as prednisolone. Now he complains of central chest pain and his ECG revealed an acute ST elevation myocardial infarction. He was given aspirin and oxygen as the initial treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: IV diamorphine + arrange percutaneous coronary intervention

      Explanation:

      There is a high risk of bleeding due to recent surgery and heparin. So thrombolysis is not an option. The most appropriate management is percutaneous coronary intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      146.9
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Which of the following describes the reason for the decline of the use...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following describes the reason for the decline of the use of betablockers as antihypertensives in last few years?

      Your Answer: Less likely to prevent myocardial infarctions + potential impairment of glucose tolerance

      Correct Answer: Less likely to prevent stroke + potential impairment of glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      According to the latest research, beta blockers are associated with higher incidence of fatal and non-fatal strokes, all cardiovascular events, and cardiovascular mortality. New-onset diabetes also associates with beta blockers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      76.7
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - A 65 yr. male patient was started on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation...

    Correct

    • A 65 yr. male patient was started on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation (AF). Which of the following clotting factors is not affected by warfarin?

      Your Answer: Factor XII

      Explanation:

      Carboxylation of factor II, VII, IX, X and protein C is affected by warfarin. Factor XII is not affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      10.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (14/30) 47%
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