00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A trial is conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new screening test...

    Incorrect

    • A trial is conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new screening test for detecting heart disease in patients over the age of 50. The contingency table below shows the results for a group of patients who were tested:

      Heart disease present Heart disease absent
      Test positive 120 15
      Test negative 10 255

      What is the positive predictive value of the new screening test for detecting heart disease (rounded to 2 decimal places)?

      Your Answer: 0.96

      Correct Answer: 0.94

      Explanation:

      The positive predictive value (PPV) is a measure of the probability that a patient has a particular condition (such as pancreatic cancer) if a diagnostic test (such as a tumour marker test) is positive. To calculate the PPV, the formula TP / (TP + FP) is used, where TP represents the number of true positives (patients who have the condition and test positive) and FP represents the number of false positives (patients who test positive but do not have the condition). For example, if there are 155 true positives and 10 false positives, the PPV would be calculated as 0.94.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman has a two-month history of pain in her right hip...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman has a two-month history of pain in her right hip radiating to her buttock, thigh, calf and ankle. She has a good range of movement in the hip and no focal tenderness.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sciatica

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Sciatica from Other Causes of Leg Pain

      Leg pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to accurately diagnose the underlying issue in order to provide appropriate treatment. Sciatica is a common cause of leg pain, but it is not a diagnosis in itself. Rather, it is a description of symptoms that can be caused by pressure on the sciatic nerve. Other conditions that can cause leg pain include osteoarthritis of the hip, polymyalgia rheumatica, sacroiliitis, and trochanteric bursitis. Each of these conditions presents with unique symptoms and requires a different approach to treatment. By carefully evaluating a patient’s symptoms and conducting appropriate diagnostic tests, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose the underlying cause of leg pain and provide effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A GP receives a shared care document from the dementia specialist team, requesting...

    Correct

    • A GP receives a shared care document from the dementia specialist team, requesting him to take over the prescribing of donepezil for a patient with Alzheimer's disease. If the patient's repeat prescription includes which medication, it may pose the most significant potential contraindication to donepezil?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      The acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine and galantamine) can cause bradycardia, SA block or AV block, which are important potential side effects. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing these medications to patients with conduction abnormalities or those taking negatively chronotropic medications such as beta blockers, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers or digoxin. Other possible side effects include gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, vomiting, anorexia, diarrhea), agitation, hallucinations, syncope, and less commonly gastrointestinal ulcers, seizures, conduction disorders, urinary retention and extrapyramidal symptoms. The BNF also lists neuroleptic malignant syndrome as a very rare adverse reaction.

      Currently, only specialists with expertise in prescribing these medications (such as Psychiatrists, Elderly Care specialists, Neurologists) are authorized to initiate their use. However, GPs may be asked to take over prescribing and monitoring of these medications under Shared Care Agreements. Therefore, it is important for GPs to be aware of the potential prescribing issues.

      Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.

      In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old man is being treated for an exacerbation of his asthma. His...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is being treated for an exacerbation of his asthma. His doctor prescribes him prednisolone 40 mg once daily for 5 days. What is the recommended course of action after the 5 day treatment?

      Your Answer: Stop the prednisolone with no further doses

      Explanation:

      According to the BNF, if patients have been taking systemic corticosteroids at a dosage of more than 40 mg prednisolone daily for over a week, or have been on treatment for more than 3 weeks, or have received repeated courses recently, it is recommended to gradually withdraw the medication.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man with no previous medical history of note complains of sudden-onset...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with no previous medical history of note complains of sudden-onset double vision that came on while he was playing basketball. He had a transient episode of weakness in his right arm 3 months ago that lasted several days. On examination he has a right-sided lateral rectus palsy.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis (MS)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis and Differential Diagnosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is diagnosed based on the presence of two distinct neurological lesions separated by time. While other conditions may present similar symptoms, MS is the most likely diagnosis in the absence of other symptoms. An MRI scan is used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Other conditions that may be considered in the differential diagnosis include midline meningioma and AION, which tend to cause visual field or other neurological signs. Lyme disease may cause facial and other cranial nerve palsies, but lesions would not be separated by time as they are in MS. Cerebral aneurysms typically present as subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      In summary, a diagnosis of MS is made based on the presence of two distinct neurological lesions separated by time, and other conditions must be ruled out through differential diagnosis. An MRI scan is used to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      61.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old female complains of mild mouth swelling and itching after consuming raw...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female complains of mild mouth swelling and itching after consuming raw spinach, apple, and strawberries, which subsides within 15 minutes. She has a history of birch pollen allergy but no other medical conditions.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral allergy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Urticarial reactions can be caused by various factors, including drug-induced angioedema or C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency. Contact irritant dermatitis is usually the result of prolonged exposure to a mild irritant, but it doesn’t typically produce a rapid and predictable response that resolves quickly. Lip licking dermatitis is a form of skin inflammation that occurs when saliva from repeated lip licking causes redness, scaling, and dryness of the lips.

      Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome

      Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.

      It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.

      OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.

      In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 44-year-old man collapsed with sudden onset breathlessness associated with haemoptysis earlier that...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man collapsed with sudden onset breathlessness associated with haemoptysis earlier that day. He is usually fit and well with no significant past medical history and is not on any regular medication.

      His family brought him, unannounced, to the surgery reception and when you see him he appears pale and he feels noticeably short of breath at rest. He is complaining of sharp pains in the right side of his chest when he breathes in.

      Clinical examination reveals a patient who is short of breath at rest. His blood pressure is 98/68, pulse rate is 108 bpm and his respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute. Oxygen saturations are 93 % in room air. His temperature is 36.2 °C. Auscultation of the heart and lungs is normal. He has no calf swelling.

      There is no history of gastric ulceration or drug allergies.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate immediate next step in the assessment and management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange an immediate 'blue-light ambulance' for rapid transfer to hospital without any delay

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Pulmonary Embolism

      When a patient presents with sudden onset breathlessness, haemoptysis, pleuritic pain, hypotension, tachycardia, increased respiratory rate, and low oxygen saturations, pulmonary embolism (PE) should be suspected. It is important to note any risk factors that may increase the likelihood of an embolism. The absence of signs of deep vein thrombosis doesn’t exclude the possibility of a PE.

      Immediate admission to the hospital should be arranged for patients with suspected PE who have signs of haemodynamic instability or are pregnant or have given birth within the past 6 weeks. Management should not be delayed for results of a chest X-ray or ECG. Therefore, the correct option is to arrange immediate transfer to the hospital by blue light. Prescribing a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug fails to appreciate the possibility of pulmonary embolism and should not be selected.

      In summary, prompt recognition and management of suspected PE is crucial to prevent morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old woman presents with a leg ulcer above the right medial malleolus....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman presents with a leg ulcer above the right medial malleolus. Compression bandaging is being considered as a treatment option. Without diabetes, what is the minimum ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) recommended by SIGN guidelines to ensure the safety of compression bandaging?

      Your Answer: 0.8

      Explanation:

      It is safe to use compression therapy for patients with leg ulcers who have an ABPI of 0.8 or higher.

      Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index for Evaluating Peripheral Arterial Disease

      The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate peripheral arterial disease (PAD). It measures the ratio of systolic blood pressure in the lower leg to that in the arms. A lower blood pressure in the legs, resulting in an ABPI of less than 1, is an indicator of PAD. This test is particularly useful in evaluating patients with suspected PAD, such as a male smoker who presents with intermittent claudication.

      In addition, it is important to determine the ABPI in patients with leg ulcers. Compression bandaging is often used to treat venous ulcers, but it can be harmful in patients with PAD as it further restricts blood supply to the foot. Therefore, ABPIs should always be measured in patients with leg ulcers to determine if compression bandaging is appropriate.

      The interpretation of ABPI values is as follows: a value greater than 1.2 may indicate calcified, stiff arteries, which can be seen in advanced age or PAD. A value between 1.0 and 1.2 is considered normal, while a value between 0.9 and 1.0 is acceptable. A value less than 0.9 is likely indicative of PAD, and values less than 0.5 indicate severe disease that requires urgent referral. The ABPI is a reliable test, with values less than 0.90 having a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 98% for PAD. Compression bandaging is generally considered acceptable if the ABPI is greater than or equal to 0.8.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old woman presents to you with sudden loss of vision in her...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to you with sudden loss of vision in her left eye while shopping. She reports two similar episodes in the past month that resolved within minutes. She has no other symptoms and is generally healthy, with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease. Her vision is reduced to counting fingers. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      Visual Disturbances: Causes and Management

      Visual disturbances can be caused by various conditions, including retinal transient ischaemic attack (TIA), central retinal artery occlusion, retinal vein occlusion, middle cerebral artery infarct, and migraine. Amaurosis fugax, or transient monocular blindness, may precede a central retinal artery occlusion or a stroke. Urgent referral to ophthalmology is necessary within the first 24 hours, and methods such as anterior chamber paracentesis, intravenous Diamox®, ocular massage, and breathing into a paper bag may help restore vision. Retinal vein occlusion causes sudden painless unilateral loss of vision, while middle cerebral artery infarct produces a wide variety of neurological deficits, including visual consequences such as gaze preference towards the side of the lesion and contralateral homonymous hemianopia. Migraine visual aura consists of an area that is not well seen, surrounded by shimmering zig-zag lines, that gradually enlarges and then breaks up over a period of 15-30 minutes. Proper management and investigation are necessary to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 14-month-old boy presents with eye-rolling followed by generalised shaking of the limbs...

    Correct

    • A 14-month-old boy presents with eye-rolling followed by generalised shaking of the limbs for three minutes. He has had a cold for two days, but became very warm this morning just prior to the episode. He has no previous history of note, and had a full term normal delivery with no neonatal complications. His immunisations are up to date. There is no family history of note. On examination he is alert though febrile at 39.2°C, with flushed cheeks. He has a runny nose. Respiratory rate is 22/min and heart rate 130/min. His chest is clear and urinalysis is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Febrile convulsion, simple

      Explanation:
      • Febrile Convulsion, Simple:
        • Characteristics:
          • Occurs between 6 months and 5 years of age.
          • Associated with fever, often due to viral infections.
          • Generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting less than 15 minutes.
          • No recurrence within 24 hours.
          • Rapid return to baseline consciousness.
        • In this case: The seizure lasted three minutes and was generalized, fitting the criteria for a simple febrile seizure.
      • Febrile Convulsion, Complex:
        • Characteristics:
          • Lasts longer than 15 minutes.
          • Focal (affects only part of the body) or recurrent within 24 hours.
          • May not return to baseline quickly.
        • In this case: The seizure was generalized and lasted only three minutes, making it unlikely to be a complex febrile seizure.
      • Encephalitis:
        • Characteristics:
          • Typically presents with fever, seizures, altered mental status, and focal neurological deficits.
          • Seizures may be recurrent or focal.
        • In this case: The child does not exhibit altered mental status or focal neurological signs post-seizure.
      • Meningitis:
        • Characteristics:
          • Presents with fever, irritability, poor feeding, lethargy, and possibly neck stiffness or bulging fontanelle in infants.
          • May include seizures, but other symptoms like irritability and lethargy are more pronounced.
        • In this case: The child is alert post-seizure, and there are no signs of meningismus or altered mental status.
      • Cerebral Abscess:
        • Characteristics:
          • Usually presents with focal neurological signs, headache, fever, and possibly seizures.
          • More common in children with a history of sinusitis or otitis media.
        • In this case: There is no focal neurological deficit or history suggestive of conditions leading to an abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old woman with hyperthyroidism is diagnosed with Graves' disease and prescribed carbimazole...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with hyperthyroidism is diagnosed with Graves' disease and prescribed carbimazole for treatment. During counselling, she is informed about the potential side-effects of the medication.
      What is the most severe adverse reaction of carbimazole?

      Your Answer: Agranulocytosis

      Explanation:

      Carbimazole: Potential Side Effects and Risks

      Carbimazole is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism, but it can also cause several side effects and risks. One of the most serious risks is agranulocytosis, which occurs in 0.3-0.6% of patients and has a mortality rate of 21.5%. Patients taking carbimazole should be aware of symptoms of infection, such as a sore throat, and seek medical attention if they experience them. Hypoprothrombinaemia, which can cause bleeding, is another potential side effect. While less serious than agranulocytosis, it is important to check a patient’s prothrombin time before invasive procedures. Cholestatic jaundice is a rare side effect that typically resolves after stopping carbimazole. Hepatitis has also been reported, but is not listed as a side effect in the British National Formulary (BNF). Finally, alopecia is a listed side effect, but is not as serious as agranulocytosis. Patients taking carbimazole should be aware of these potential risks and side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A new medication aimed at preventing outbreaks of shingles is being tested in...

    Incorrect

    • A new medication aimed at preventing outbreaks of shingles is being tested in clinical trials. One hundred participants are administered the new medication. Over a three-month period, 10 of the participants experience a shingles outbreak. Meanwhile, in the control group, 300 participants are given a placebo. During the same time frame, 50 individuals in the control group experience a shingles outbreak. What is the relative risk of experiencing a shingles outbreak while taking the new medication?

      Your Answer: 0.8

      Correct Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      The experimental event rate (EER) is calculated as 10 events out of 100, resulting in a rate of 0.10. The control event rate (CER) is calculated as 50 events out of 300, resulting in a rate of 0.166. The relative risk is then calculated as the ratio of EER to CER, which is 0.6.

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 19-year-old sexually active female who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old sexually active female who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill presents with breakthrough bleeding between her periods.

      She has been on the same pill for almost three years and noticed breakthrough bleeding for the first time two months ago. She denies post-coital bleeding. On further questioning she has not missed any pills and has had no recent illnesses or medical problems.

      What is the most probable reason for her breakthrough bleeding?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia infection

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough Bleeding on Combined Oral Contraceptive

      In patients experiencing breakthrough bleeding while on the combined oral contraceptive, it is crucial to check their compliance and potential illness. However, if these factors are not the cause, breakthrough bleeding may indicate an alternative issue and prompt further investigation for gynaecological causes. This is especially true for patients who have been taking the pill for an extended period.

      To assess potential gynaecological causes, a pelvic examination and swabs are necessary. It is also important to ensure that the patient’s smear is up-to-date and to take one if overdue. While cervical cancer is rare in this age group, swabs should be taken to check for chlamydial cervicitis, the most common cause of breakthrough bleeding in young sexually active women.

      Additionally, it is crucial to consider the possibility of pregnancy and perform a pregnancy test. However, in cases where compliance and regular usage of the combined pill are confirmed, the likelihood of pregnancy is remote. Proper investigation and assessment can help identify the underlying cause of breakthrough bleeding and ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 47-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of constant right-sided hearing difficulty, tinnitus,...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of constant right-sided hearing difficulty, tinnitus, and vertigo that have been present for the past two months and have worsened recently. Upon examination, there is no wax in either auditory canal, and the tympanic membranes appear normal.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to ENT

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected to have an acoustic neuroma, it is crucial to refer them to an ENT specialist as soon as possible. The ENT specialist can conduct necessary tests such as audiograms and imaging to confirm or rule out the diagnosis. An ECG is not required based on the patient’s history, and hospitalization is not necessary. While an audiogram may be helpful, it is best to refer the patient directly to ENT for an MRI Head and audiogram together. A trial of medication and follow-up would not be appropriate in this case, as prompt initiation of further investigations is necessary. Meniere’s disease is a potential alternative diagnosis, but the constant and progressive nature of the patient’s symptoms is not typical of Meniere’s, which is usually episodic.

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are studying the measurement of a new biomarker for cognitive decline in...

    Incorrect

    • You are studying the measurement of a new biomarker for cognitive decline in elderly patients, and how it might be applied to geriatric medicine. You assume that the data for this particular biomarker are likely to be normally distributed.

      When considering the normal distribution, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Data with a tail of values which is greater than the upper end of the distribution are normally distributed

      Correct Answer: The mean, median and mode are the same value

      Explanation:

      Understanding Normal Distribution and Parametric Tests

      The normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical on both sides. Its mean, median, and mode are equal, making it a useful tool for analyzing data. For instance, the probability that a normally distributed random variable x, with mean sigma, and standard deviation µ, lies between (sigma – 1.96 µ) and (sigma + 1.96 µ) is 0.95, while the probability that it lies between (sigma – µ) and (sigma + µ) is 0.68. Additionally, 95% of the distribution of sample means lie within 1.96 standard deviations of the population mean.

      Parametric tests are statistical tests that assume the data are normally distributed. However, data that are not normally distributed can still be subject to a parametric test, but they need to be transformed first. Understanding normal distribution and parametric tests is crucial for researchers and analysts who want to make accurate inferences from their data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      141.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following statements best describes a type I statistical error?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements best describes a type I statistical error?

      Your Answer: The null hypothesis is rejected when it is true

      Explanation:

      Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true is known as a Type I error.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic after being diagnosed with breast cancer....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic after being diagnosed with breast cancer. Her oncologist has recommended starting anastrozole due to the cancer being oestrogen-receptor positive. You are asked to discuss bone health with the patient.

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Calculate her FRAX score then arrange a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan depending on results

      Correct Answer: Arrange a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen may cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flashes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors may cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flashes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      63.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - At what stage of pregnancy is the ideal timing for administering the pertussis...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage of pregnancy is the ideal timing for administering the pertussis vaccine to protect infants prior to their initial primary immunisation?

      Your Answer: With the fetal anomaly scan (at 20 weeks)

      Correct Answer: As soon as the pregnancy is confirmed

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Vaccination for Pregnant Women

      Pregnant women are now recommended to receive a pertussis vaccination during late pregnancy, between 16-32 weeks, to protect their unborn infants against pertussis. Antibody levels in adults reach their peak two weeks after the booster but then significantly decline. Therefore, immunizations given early in pregnancy would likely be less effective and could be falsely associated with any adverse effects identified at the anomaly scan. Additionally, transplacental antibody transfer is minimal after 34 weeks of pregnancy. Immunization after 16 weeks would also provide protection to infants born prematurely who may be particularly vulnerable. The vaccine can be offered up until labor, but just prior to labor is not the optimal time as antibody levels peak at two weeks after the booster. It is important for pregnant women to consider receiving the pertussis vaccine to protect their unborn infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Following NICE guidance, which one of the following patients should undergo screening for...

    Correct

    • Following NICE guidance, which one of the following patients should undergo screening for hereditary thrombophilia?

      Your Answer: A 54-year-old woman with an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis. Her sister was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism three years ago

      Explanation:

      The probability of an underlying hereditary thrombophilia is high in the 54-year-old woman who has an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis and a first-degree relative with the same condition.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 49-year-old man seeks guidance on Universal Credit benefits. He had to quit...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man seeks guidance on Universal Credit benefits. He had to quit his job as an engineer due to a motorcycle accident that resulted in a fractured femur. His orthopaedic surgeon predicts that his recovery will take several months. Currently, he works part-time as a freelance web developer, earning less than £200 per month.

      He resides in the UK with his wife and two young children. They have a combined savings of £30,000, and his wife is currently unemployed, taking care of their children.

      What advice would you offer him regarding his eligibility for Universal Credit?

      Your Answer: He is not eligible for Universal Credit owing to his age

      Correct Answer: He is not eligible for Universal Credit owing to his collective savings

      Explanation:

      To be eligible for Universal Credit, an individual must have savings below £16,000. However, in the case of co-habiting couples, the partner’s income and savings will also be taken into consideration. It is important to note that intentionally transferring or reducing savings to increase the amount of Universal Credit received is considered deprivation of capital and will be investigated by the Department of Work and Pensions. Employment doesn’t disqualify an individual from receiving Universal Credit, as long as their earnings do not exceed the administrative earnings threshold of £338 per individual or £541 for a household. Age and marital status also do not affect eligibility for Universal Credit.

      Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies

      Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.

      The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.

      Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.

      Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which renal disorder is most likely to occur in elderly patients with gouty...

    Incorrect

    • Which renal disorder is most likely to occur in elderly patients with gouty arthritis?

      Your Answer: Glomerulosclerosis

      Correct Answer: Urolithiasis

      Explanation:

      Gout and Kidney Disease: Prevalence and Risks

      Gout, a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, is associated with an increased risk of kidney disease. The prevalence of nephrolithiasis (kidney stones) in people with gout is higher than in the general population, and chronic urate nephropathy can lead to inflammation and fibrosis in the kidneys. Screening for kidney disease is important for patients with gout, as the prevalence of CKD stage ≥3 is 24%. However, end-stage CKD is less common in gout patients. It is important to note that glomerulosclerosis is associated with diabetes mellitus, while glomerulonephritis is an acute inflammation of the kidney caused by an immune response, and pyelonephritis is due to bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy patch on...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy patch on her back that has been present for six months. She also experiences pins and needles in the same area. The patch is located over the border of her left scapula. Upon examination, the skin sensation seems normal, and there is a clearly defined hyperpigmented patch without any scaling.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pityriasis versicolor

      Correct Answer: Notalgia paraesthetica

      Explanation:

      Notalgia paraesthetica is a condition that causes chronic itching or tingling on the medial border of the scapula. This can lead to the development of post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation due to repeated rubbing and scratching of the affected area. The exact cause of this sensory neuropathy is not fully understood.

      Causes of Pruritus

      Pruritus, commonly known as itching, can be caused by various underlying conditions. Liver disease, often associated with a history of alcohol excess, can present with stigmata of chronic liver disease such as spider naevi, bruising, palmar erythema, and gynaecomastia. Evidence of decompensation such as ascites, jaundice, and encephalopathy may also be present. Iron deficiency anaemia can cause pallor and other signs such as koilonychia, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. Pruritus after a warm bath and a ruddy complexion may indicate polycythaemia. Gout and peptic ulcer disease can also cause itching. Chronic kidney disease may present with lethargy, pallor, oedema, weight gain, hypertension, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, and fatigue. Other causes of pruritus include hyper- and hypothyroidism, diabetes, pregnancy, senile pruritus, urticaria, and skin disorders such as eczema, scabies, psoriasis, and pityriasis rosea. It is important to identify the underlying cause of pruritus in order to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 73-year-old male with metastatic lung cancer requires end of life care and...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old male with metastatic lung cancer requires end of life care and has been referred to the palliative care team. He is currently taking 10 mg of oral morphine daily, which is effectively managing his pain. The team has prescribed anticipatory medications to be administered via a syringe driver.

      What is the required daily dosage of subcutaneous morphine?

      Your Answer: 5mg

      Explanation:

      When converting from oral to subcutaneous morphine, the dose should be divided by two. This is because oral morphine is only half as potent as subcutaneous or intravenous morphine, primarily due to first-pass metabolism. It’s important to note that other opioids, such as fentanyl and buprenorphine, have different conversion ratios for different routes.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old healthcare worker receives a needlestick injury from a patient who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old healthcare worker receives a needlestick injury from a patient who is not known to be a carrier of blood-borne viral infections and is thought to be a low risk of having such an infection.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate action.

      Your Answer: No specific measures are necessary here

      Correct Answer: Take blood for virology (HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C) from the injured worker

      Explanation:

      Risks and Guidelines for Healthcare Workers Exposed to Bloodborne Pathogens

      Healthcare workers are at risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. While the risk of transmission is low, it is important to follow clear guidelines from the Department of Health to ensure the safety of the worker.

      If a healthcare worker is exposed to blood, they should have blood taken for virology to check for HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. If there is a significant risk of HIV, post-exposure prophylaxis with antiretroviral therapy should be started as soon as possible. HIV status and hepatitis serology should be rechecked at 3 and 6 months, and liver function tests should be performed and repeated at these intervals as well. Female workers should also have their β-hCG level checked to exclude pregnancy.

      Ideally, a sample of blood should be obtained from the donor to determine if they are a potential source of infection. Healthcare workers should already be immune to hepatitis B from previous immunization, but if not, they may need to receive the vaccine.

      In summary, healthcare workers should be aware of the risks associated with exposure to bloodborne pathogens and follow the appropriate guidelines to ensure their safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who is presenting with migraine-like headaches but...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who is presenting with migraine-like headaches but no accompanying aura. What is the estimated percentage of individuals with migraine who experience aura?

      Your Answer: 70%

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      71.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 29-year-old woman undergoes antenatal haemoglobinopathy screening and is found to have sickle...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman undergoes antenatal haemoglobinopathy screening and is found to have sickle cell trait. The father of the child agrees to further screening and is found to have the HbAS genotype. What is the probability of their offspring having sickle cell disease?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

      Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.

      When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.

      Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and are generally more life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of genetic disorders to provide appropriate genetic counseling and medical management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      67.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 54-year-old gentleman presents with recurrent painful and erythematous left first metatarsal joint....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old gentleman presents with recurrent painful and erythematous left first metatarsal joint. After diagnosis of gout and treatment with an anti-inflammatory, you check his blood tests during the acute attack and find his uric acid level to be 260 µmol/L (180-380). He has experienced four episodes of gout in the past 18 months and seeks advice on how to prevent future attacks. What recommendations should you provide?

      Your Answer: Genetic testing to rule out a hereditary cause should be performed

      Correct Answer: As his uric acid level is normal he doesn't need prophylactic treatment with uric acid lowering drug therapy (such as allopurinol)

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Gout and Prophylactic Treatment

      During an acute attack of gout, serum urate levels may appear lower than usual and should not be used to guide management or rule out the diagnosis of gout. It is recommended to check serum urate levels four to six weeks after an attack to obtain an accurate reflection of levels. Patients with recurrent attacks of acute gout are excellent candidates for prophylactic treatment. Allopurinol is the usual first-line drug, and the dose should be titrated to maintain a serum urate level of less than 300 µmol/L. While initiating and titrating allopurinol, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) or colchicine should be co-prescribed to cover against precipitating an acute flare. However, a low dose anti-inflammatory is not a recommended long-term prophylactic approach. Genetic testing is not a usual part of the workup, although some genetic conditions are associated with hyperuricaemia, such as Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      90
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old man presents with a 'neck lump' that he has noticed over...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a 'neck lump' that he has noticed over the past two months. On examination, you palpate a diffuse midline swelling which moves with swallowing but not with tongue protrusion. There are no other neck lumps or focal nodules, and the patient's voice is normal with no hoarseness. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy or stridor. The patient has no significant past medical history or family history.
      He reports feeling slightly more fatigued and has gained some weight over the past few months but otherwise feels well. He notes that the swelling in his neck has not changed in size since he first noticed it.
      Thyroid function tests reveal hypothyroidism. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Request an urgent ultrasound scan of his neck

      Correct Answer: Repeat the thyroid function test in four to six weeks

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Swelling: Recognizing and Referring Suspected Cancer

      Note that it is important to clarify descriptions and findings during a patient’s history and examination. For instance, a patient may describe a lump when it is actually a diffuse swelling. According to NICE guidelines, an unexplained thyroid lump warrants a suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. However, other factors to consider during the assessment include a solitary nodule increasing in size, a history of neck irradiation, family history of an endocrine tumor, unexplained hoarseness or voice changes, cervical lymphadenopathy, very young or elderly patients. Patients with symptoms of tracheal compression should be admitted immediately to the hospital.

      In cases where a thyroid swelling doesn’t meet any of the urgent or immediate referral criteria, a thyroid function blood test should be conducted. If the test reveals hypothyroidism, it may explain the patient’s weight gain and tiredness. Patients with abnormal thyroid function and a goitre are unlikely to have thyroid cancer and can be managed in primary care. Those with a goitre and normal thyroid function tests can be referred non-urgently to a thyroid surgeon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of dysuria, urinary frequency, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of dysuria, urinary frequency, and lower abdominal pain that has been going on for 24 hours. Upon examination, his vital signs are stable with a temperature of 37.5ºC, heart rate of 70/min, and blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. He experiences tenderness in the suprapubic region, and his urine dip shows positive results for nitrites and leucocytes but negative for blood.

      What is the next most appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 day course of empirical antibiotics for UTI

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, men who exhibit symptoms of a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics like trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for 7 days, without the need for referral to urology unless the infection is recurrent. Waiting for the results of urinary microscopy culture and sensitivity is not recommended, as prompt treatment is necessary to prevent further complications. Intravenous antibiotics are not usually required unless the patient shows signs of fever, riggers, chills, vomiting, or confusion. In this case, the patient’s borderline temperature doesn’t warrant hospital admission, and empirical antibiotics should be administered. While it is important to rule out sexually transmitted infections, the patient’s symptoms suggest a UTI, and there is no indication of an STI in his medical history.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 5-year-old girl attends surgery with a febrile illness. Her mother tells you...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl attends surgery with a febrile illness. Her mother tells you that she has been unwell for almost 24 hours and has been complaining of right-sided ear pain. The child is usually healthy with no significant past medical history.

      On examination you find a temperature of 38.5°C and the right eardrum is red and bulging. The rest of the clinical examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advice on symptomatic treatment should be given with a delayed antibiotic script (antibiotic to be collected at parents' discretion after 72 hours if the child has not improved) as back up

      Explanation:

      Middle Ear Infection Caused by Upper Respiratory Tract Infection

      The bacteria responsible for an upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) can travel up the eustachian tubes and cause an infection in the middle ear. This can lead to the tympanic membrane becoming retracted, making the handle and short process of the malleus more prominent. As pressure builds up in the middle ear, the eardrum may become distended and bulge outwards, accompanied by severe otalgia, systemic toxicity, fever, and tachycardia.

      If the tympanic membrane perforates, severe pain followed by a sudden improvement is likely to occur. The raised pressure within the middle ear is the main cause of the severe pain, often accompanied by systemic symptoms. Once the tympanic membrane ruptures, the pressures will equalize, and the pain will decrease dramatically. For more information on acute otitis media, visit the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (3/3) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (2/2) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (3/3) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (2/2) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Equality, Diversity And Inclusion (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Passmed