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  • Question 1 - A 53-year-old male presents to the acute medical admissions unit with a one-day...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old male presents to the acute medical admissions unit with a one-day history of left-sided headache, retro-orbital pain, and dull facial pain on the left side. He has a medical history of hypertension and migraine and is currently taking ramipril 2.5mg. Upon examination, he displays partial ptosis and enophthalmos of the left eye, with anisocoria and miosis of the same eye. His visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and the rest of his neurological exam is unremarkable, with normal sweating bilaterally. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition that typically presents with ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the same side of the body. The degree of anhidrosis can help determine the location of the lesion along the sympathetic pathway. In cases where anhidrosis is absent, it may indicate a postganglionic lesion, such as in the case of carotid artery dissection. This condition can cause a partial Horner’s syndrome with ptosis and miosis, but without anhidrosis. While this is a rare presentation of carotid artery dissection, it is important to recognize to prevent further neurological complications, such as an ischemic stroke. Preganglionic lesions, such as a cervical rib or Pancoast tumor, can cause anhidrosis of just the face, while central lesions, such as a stroke or syringomyelia, can cause anhidrosis of the head, arm, and trunk in addition to ptosis and miosis.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      38
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old male with a history of intentional overdose was urgently admitted to...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male with a history of intentional overdose was urgently admitted to the hospital after ingesting 50 regular-strength aspirin tablets. He has a past medical history of anxiety and depression. On admission, he presented with increased respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 111/77 mmHg, and heart rate of 110 beats per minute. He was also sweating profusely with a temperature of 38.1ºC. What is the best initial course of action for his management?

      Your Answer: Activated charcoal

      Explanation:

      In cases of salicylate poisoning, resuscitation is crucial to prevent severe morbidity and mortality. This involves ensuring the patient has a clear airway and adequate circulation. To aid in gastric decontamination, activated charcoal can be administered orally, especially if the patient presents within an hour of ingestion. If the patient is hypotensive, intravenous fluids should also be given as part of the initial treatment. It is essential to administer activated charcoal as soon as possible in such cases.

      Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      27.1
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  • Question 3 - A 7-year-old boy is brought in by his father for symptoms of upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought in by his father for symptoms of upper respiratory tract infection. During examination, you observe multiple bruises on his arms with a circular pattern. Which type of bruising is more frequently associated with physical abuse in children?

      Your Answer: Pelvic fracture

      Correct Answer: Humeral fracture

      Explanation:

      Whenever there is suspicion of non-accidental injury (NAI), it is important to consider the patient’s clinical history. Child abuse is commonly associated with fractures in the radial, humeral, and femoral bones. On the other hand, fractures in the distal radial, elbow, clavicular, and tibial bones are not typically linked to NAI in paediatrics.

      Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms

      Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.

      Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      16.8
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  • Question 4 - A hospital trust is comparing the incidence of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in...

    Correct

    • A hospital trust is comparing the incidence of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in patients admitted to various departments in the hospital over the past five years.
      In which one of the following age groups is the risk of developing a DVT at its highest?

      Your Answer: Patients undergoing total hip replacements on orthopaedic wards

      Explanation:

      Reducing the Risk of Deep Vein Thrombosis in Hospitalized Patients

      Hospitalized patients, particularly those undergoing major orthopaedic and lower limb surgery, are at a high risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients with additional risk factors such as cancer and immobility are also at an increased risk. To prevent DVT, all admitted patients should undergo a risk assessment and receive necessary prophylaxis such as thromboembolic deterrent stockings (TEDS) and/or prophylactic low-molecular-weight heparin. While patients undergoing gynaecological surgery are at risk of DVT, they are not the highest risk category. Patients who have suffered from an acute stroke are also at risk, albeit less so than those undergoing major surgery. Strategies to reduce the risk of DVT should be employed for all hospitalized patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      9.4
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  • Question 5 - A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves playing basketball, but is worried because her teammates have been teasing her about her appearance. They have been making fun of her in the locker room because of the spots she has under her armpits and around her groin. They have also been teasing her about her height, as she is the tallest girl on the team. During a skin examination, the doctor finds evidence of inguinal and axillary freckling, as well as 9 coffee-colored spots on her arms, legs, and chest. An eye exam reveals iris hamartomas.

      What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-recessive fashion; de novo presentations are common

      Correct Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; de novo presentations are common

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1) is caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17 and is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. De novo presentations are common, meaning that around 50% of cases occur in individuals without family history. To make a diagnosis, at least two of the seven core features must be present, with two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma being one of them. Other features associated with NF-1 include short stature and learning difficulties, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      72.7
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man with a history of depression presents to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of depression presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of diazepam and dosulepin. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 118/80 and his pulse is 142 bpm. He has a respiratory rate of 9 per minute and oxygen saturations of 96% on room air. What should be the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Insert a haemodialysis line

      Correct Answer: Obtain an ECG

      Explanation:

      To address the patient’s significant tachycardia, the initial course of action would be to conduct an ECG. If the results reveal QRS widening, administering intravenous bicarbonate is recommended. While some suggest an ‘ABC’ approach with flumazenil to counteract respiratory depression, caution must be exercised due to the risk of inducing seizures in the presence of tricyclic overdose.

      Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.

      Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.1
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  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old man presents with erythema, vesicles and crusted ulcerations on the right...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with erythema, vesicles and crusted ulcerations on the right scalp, forehead and periorbital region. The affected area is swollen and causing him pain. Additionally, there are some vesicles present at the tip of his nose. He reports experiencing a headache in that area several days prior to the onset of the rash. What is the most probable causative organism for this rash?

      Your Answer: Varicella-zoster virus

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Infections and Their Causes

      Skin infections can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses, fungi, and bacteria. Here are some common skin infections and their causes:

      Varicella-zoster virus: This virus causes shingles, which is a reactivation of the virus that has been dormant in the dorsal root ganglia after the patient’s initial exposure to the virus in the form of chickenpox. A live attenuated vaccine is now available that is effective in preventing shingles.

      Herpes simplex virus infection: This virus can occasionally appear in a dermatomal distribution, mimicking shingles. It presents with erythema and vesicles, but the area of skin involved is usually much less than in shingles and pain is not as prominent.

      Malassezia furfur: This fungus causes tinea versicolor, a common benign, superficial cutaneous fungal infection characterized by hypopigmented or hyperpigmented macules and patches on the chest and back.

      Trichophyton verrucosum: This dermatophyte fungus of animal origin (zoophilic) causes a kerion, a severely painful inflammatory reaction with deep suppurative lesions on the scalp or beard area.

      Staphylococcus aureus: This bacterium causes impetigo, sycosis, ecthyma, and boils.

      Common Skin Infections and Their Causes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      24.7
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  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain that has been going on for 5 weeks. She also reports unintentional weight loss during this time. A colonoscopy is performed, revealing abnormal, inflamed mucosa in the rectum, sigmoid, and descending colon. The doctor suspects ulcerative colitis and takes multiple biopsies. What finding is most indicative of ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer: Crypt abscesses

      Explanation:

      When it comes to distinguishing between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, one key factor is the presence of crypt abscesses. These are typically seen in ulcerative colitis, which is the more common of the two inflammatory bowel diseases. In ulcerative colitis, inflammation starts in the rectum and spreads continuously up the colon, whereas Crohn’s disease often presents with skip lesions. Patients with ulcerative colitis may experience left-sided abdominal pain, cramping, bloody diarrhea with mucous, and unintentional weight loss. Colonoscopy typically reveals diffuse and contiguous ulceration and inflammatory infiltrates affecting the mucosa and submucosa only, with the presence of crypt abscesses being a hallmark feature. In contrast, Crohn’s disease is characterized by a transmural inflammatory phenotype, with non-caseating granulomas and stricturing of the bowel wall being common complications. Patients with Crohn’s disease may present with right-sided abdominal pain, watery diarrhea, and weight loss, and may have a more systemic inflammatory response than those with ulcerative colitis. Barium enema and colonoscopy can help to differentiate between the two conditions, with the presence of multiple linear ulcers in the bowel wall (rose-thorn appearance) and bowel wall thickening being suggestive of Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      22.3
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  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He has been experiencing facial...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He has been experiencing facial flushing and developed a red rash on his face a few months ago. Upon examination, there are numerous erythaematous papules scattered across his cheeks and his nose appears red and bulbous.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acne rosacea

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Acne Rosacea, Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus, Seborrhoeic Dermatitis, Acne Vulgaris, and Nodulocystic Acne

      Skin conditions can be a source of discomfort and embarrassment for many people. Here are five common skin conditions and their features:

      Acne Rosacea is a chronic rash that affects the central face, typically in those aged 30 to 60. Symptoms include facial flushing, telangiectasia, rhinophyma, papules, and pustules. Treatment options include topical metronidazole and oral antibiotics.

      Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus is an autoimmune disorder that can affect various organs, including the skin. Common dermatological signs include a butterfly malar rash and discoid lupus.

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis is a chronic or relapsing form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp, face, and upper trunk. Symptoms include indurated hyperpigmented plaques and creases around the nose, behind ears, and within eyebrows.

      Acne Vulgaris is a common variety of acne that affects the pilosebaceous unit. It is most common in young adults with high levels of sex hormones and is graded according to the number of comedones and inflammatory lesions seen.

      Nodulocystic Acne is a severe form of acne that affects the face, chest, and back, mainly in men. Symptoms include multiple inflamed and uninflamed nodules and scars.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating that has persisted for six months. The GP initially suspected bowel cancer and referred her for a colonoscopy, which came back negative. The gastroenterologist who performed the colonoscopy suggested that the patient may have irritable bowel syndrome. The patient has no prior history of digestive issues. What should the GP do next?

      Your Answer: Treat as irritable bowel syndrome for now and review in one month

      Correct Answer: Measure serum CA125 level

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, women over the age of 50 who experience regular symptoms such as abdominal bloating, loss of appetite, pelvic or abdominal pain, and increased urinary urgency and/or frequency should undergo serum CA125 testing. It is important to note that irritable bowel disease rarely presents for the first time in women over 50, so any symptoms suggestive of IBD should prompt appropriate tests for ovarian cancer. If serum CA125 levels are elevated, an ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis should be arranged. If malignancy is suspected, urgent referral must be made. Physical examination may also warrant direct referral to gynaecology if ascites and/or a suspicious abdominal or pelvic mass is identified.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      11.8
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation for her dating scan. The...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation for her dating scan. The radiographer calls you in to speak to the patient, as the gestational sac is small for dates and she is unable to demonstrate a fetal heart rate. On further questioning, the patient reports an episode of bleeding while abroad at nine weeks’ gestation, which settled spontaneously.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Missed miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Miscarriage: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Miscarriage is the loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks’ gestation. There are several types of miscarriage, each with its own symptoms and diagnosis.

      Missed miscarriage is an incidental finding where the patient presents without symptoms, but the ultrasound shows a small gestational sac and no fetal heart rate.

      Complete miscarriage is when all products of conception have been passed, and the uterus is empty and contracted.

      Incomplete miscarriage is when some, but not all, products of conception have been expelled, and the patient experiences vaginal bleeding with an open or closed os.

      Inevitable miscarriage is when the pregnancy will inevitably be lost, and the patient presents with active bleeding, abdominal pain, and an open cervical os.

      Threatened miscarriage is when there is an episode of bleeding, but the pregnancy is unaffected, and the patient experiences cyclical abdominal pain and dark red-brown bleeding. The cervical os is closed, and ultrasound confirms the presence of a gestational sac and fetal heart rate.

      It is important to seek medical attention if any symptoms of miscarriage occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.1
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  • Question 12 - A new vaccine is being tested in healthy volunteers with normal immune function....

    Correct

    • A new vaccine is being tested in healthy volunteers with normal immune function. It is distributed in the lymphatic system only and has limited renal excretion.

      A subcutaneous injection of the vaccine is given at 9:00 am and a peak antibody response is reached at 10:00 am. The levels of antibodies in the blood serum at various time points are given below:

      Time Antibody concentration
      10:00 200 IU/mL
      12:00 100 IU/mL
      14:00 50 IU/mL

      What is the half life of this vaccine?

      Your Answer: 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Metabolism, Excretion, and Clearance of Drugs

      Metabolism and excretion play a crucial role in eliminating active drugs from the body. Metabolism converts drugs into inactive metabolites, while excretion removes the drug or its metabolite from the body. Renal excretion is the most common method of drug elimination, but some drugs may also be excreted through bile or feces. Clearance refers to the rate at which active drug is removed from the circulation, and it involves both renal excretion and hepatic metabolism. However, hepatic metabolism can be difficult to measure, so clearance is typically used to measure renal excretion only.

      Most drugs follow first order kinetics, which means that the drug concentration in plasma will decrease by half at a constant interval of time. For example, if the drug concentration in plasma is 120 mg/L, it will drop to 60 mg/L in two hours. After another two hours, the concentration will halve again to 30 mg/L. This pattern continues until the drug is completely eliminated from the body. The half-life of a drug is the time it takes for the drug concentration to halve, and it is typically around two hours for most drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.8
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  • Question 13 - A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP to discuss contraception. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP to discuss contraception. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and is currently undergoing treatment for breast cancer. She was also recently diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis in her left leg and is a heavy smoker with a BMI of 38 kg/m2. She is interested in receiving an injectable progesterone contraceptive. What aspect of her medical history would prevent the GP from prescribing this?

      Your Answer: Smoking 30 cigarettes per day

      Correct Answer: Current breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Injectable progesterone contraceptives are not recommended for individuals with current breast cancer.

      This is considered an absolute contraindication (UKMEC 4) for prescribing injectable progesterone contraceptives. It is also an absolute contraindication for most other forms of contraception, except for the non-hormonal copper intrauterine device.

      Current deep vein thrombosis is a UKMEC 2 contraindication for injectable progesterone, while it is a UKMEC 4 contraindication for the combined oral contraceptive pill. Multiple cardiovascular risk factors are a UKMEC 3 contraindication, which is not absolute, but the risks are generally considered to outweigh the benefits.

      Smoking 30 cigarettes per day is only a UKMEC 1 contraindication for injectable progesterone contraception. However, considering the individual’s age, it would be a UKMEC 4 contraindication for the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      High BMI is a UKMEC 1 contraindication for most forms of contraception, including injectable progesterone. However, it would be a UKMEC 4 contraindication for the combined pill.

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16
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  • Question 14 - A 35 year old type 2 diabetic comes to the diabetics clinic seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old type 2 diabetic comes to the diabetics clinic seeking advice on her desire to conceive. The patient has well-managed blood sugar levels and is currently taking metformin and gliclazide. What recommendations should you provide regarding potential medication adjustments during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Both drugs must be stopped and the patient must be switched to insulin

      Correct Answer: Patient may continue on metformin but gliclazide must be stopped

      Explanation:

      The patient can still take metformin but should discontinue gliclazide. When managing type 2 diabetes during pregnancy, metformin can be used alone or with insulin for women with pre-existing diabetes. Although the patient may need to switch to insulin, it is not always necessary. However, both liraglutide and gliclazide are not safe to use during pregnancy.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.7
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  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old student comes to her doctor with worries about her hands. When...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old student comes to her doctor with worries about her hands. When it's cold outside, her hands become extremely cold and slightly painful, and they change color. They start off very pale, then turn blue, and finally turn red. Upon examining her hands, there are no scars or signs of ulcers. She has no significant medical history.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hand Discoloration and Pain

      Hand discoloration and pain can be caused by various conditions. One of the most common causes is Raynaud’s phenomenon, also known as Raynaud’s disease. This condition is characterized by a color change in the hands from white to blue to red. Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is benign and usually affects young women. Chemical hand warmers can be used for symptomatic relief. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s or Raynaud’s syndrome is caused by an underlying disease process or medication. It can cause pain, scarring, and ulceration of the fingertips.

      Thoracic outlet syndrome is another condition that can cause hand pain and paraesthesiae. It is characterized by unilateral symptoms and can affect various areas such as the neck, arm, and hand. Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a rare disease that causes inflammation and thrombosis of small and medium arteries. This leads to symptoms similar to acute ischaemia such as pain, claudication, and absent pulses.

      Vibration white finger is a condition that can occur after prolonged use of power tools. It causes whiteness, numbness, and loss of dexterity in the fingers. Finally, blue finger syndrome is a rare condition that results from spontaneous thrombosis of one finger.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      8.6
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old primigravida presents for her 36-week gestation check-up with her midwife in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old primigravida presents for her 36-week gestation check-up with her midwife in the community. She has had an uneventful pregnancy and is feeling well. Her birth plan is for a water birth at her local midwife-led birth center. During her assessment, her vital signs are as follows: temperature of 36.7ºC, heart rate of 90 beats/min, blood pressure of 161/112 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 98% in room air with a respiratory rate of 21/min. Urinalysis reveals nitrites + and a pH of 6.0, but negative for leucocytes, protein, and blood. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Attend midwife check-up in 1 week for repeat urine dip and consideration of antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Admit to local maternity unit for observation and consideration of medication

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women whose blood pressure is equal to or greater than 160/110 mmHg are likely to be admitted and monitored. In this case, the patient is hypertensive at 35 weeks of gestation. While pre-eclampsia was previously defined as hypertension and proteinuria during pregnancy, the current diagnosis includes hypertension and any end-organ damage. Although the patient feels well, she should be admitted to the local maternity unit for further investigation as her blood pressure exceeds the threshold. Urgent delivery of the infant should not be arranged unless the mother is unstable or there is fetal distress. The presence of nitrites in the urine dipstick is not a significant concern, and delaying further investigation for a week is not appropriate. Prescribing antibiotics for asymptomatic patients with positive nitrites and no leukocytes in the urine is incorrect management and does not address the hypertension. Continuing with midwife-led care without further investigation for two weeks could lead to the development of pre-eclampsia or eclamptic seizure, which is dangerous for both mother and fetus.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old male presents with wheezing and a respiratory rate of 35/min, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents with wheezing and a respiratory rate of 35/min, a pulse of 120 beats per min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, and a peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% predicted. He has received back-to-back nebulisers of salbutamol 5 mg and ipratropium 0.5 mg for the past 45 minutes and is currently on face mask oxygen. Additionally, he has been given hydrocortisone 100 mg IV, and the intensive care team has been notified.

      An arterial blood gas test was performed on high-flow oxygen, revealing a pH of 7.42 (7.36-7.44), PaCO2 of 5.0 kPa (4.7-6.0), PaO2 of 22 kPa (11.3-12.6), base excess of -2 mmol/L (+/-2), and SpO2 of 98.

      What is the recommended next step in therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Non-invasive ventilation

      Correct Answer: Magnesium 1-2 g IV

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Life Threatening Asthma

      This patient is experiencing life threatening asthma, which requires immediate treatment. A normal PaCO2 in an asthmatic can indicate impending respiratory failure. The initial treatment involves administering β2-agonists, preferably nebuliser with oxygen, and repeating doses every 15-30 minutes. Nebulised ipratropium bromide should also be added for patients with acute severe or life threatening asthma. Oxygen should be given to maintain saturations at 94-98%, and patients with saturations less than 92% on air should have an ABG to exclude hypercapnia. Intravenous magnesium sulphate can be used if the patient fails to respond to initial treatment. Intensive care is indicated for patients with severe acute or life threatening asthma who are failing to respond to therapy. Steroids should also be given early in the attack to reduce mortality and improve outcomes.

      It is important to note that chest radiographs are not necessary unless there is suspicion of pneumothorax or consolidation, or if the patient is experiencing life threatening asthma, a failure to respond to treatment, or a need for ventilation. Additionally, all patients who are transferred to an intensive care unit should be accompanied by a doctor who can intubate if necessary. In this case, if the patient fails to respond to magnesium, intubation and ventilation may be necessary. It is crucial to discuss the patient’s condition with ITU colleagues during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 48-year-old man was admitted with unconsciousness.
    On examination, his left plantar response was...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man was admitted with unconsciousness.
      On examination, his left plantar response was extensor, and deep tendon jerks were increased on the left side. A computerised tomography (CT) scan of the brain revealed a right-middle cerebral artery territory infarct. He was not known to have diabetes or hypertension. He was not receiving any drugs, either.
      His blood count revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 331 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophil count 145 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      Metamyelocyte 3000/mm3
      Platelet 490 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Peripheral smear Many band forms, myelocytes, basophils
      What is the next appropriate therapy?

      Your Answer: Leukapheresis

      Explanation:

      Leukapheresis and Other Treatment Options for Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia with High White Blood Cell Count and Ischaemic Stroke

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia can cause an extremely high white blood cell count, leading to hyperviscosity of the blood and an increased risk of ischaemic events such as stroke. While anticoagulation medications are important, they do not address the underlying issue of the high cell count. Leukapheresis is a procedure that can reduce the white cell volume by 30-60%, making it a crucial emergency treatment option. Other treatments, such as hydroxyurea and imatinib, can also be used to control disease burden. Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that is effective in treating chronic myeloid leukaemia with the Philadelphia chromosome translocation. Aspirin and heparin have limited roles in this scenario. While aspirin is recommended for long-term therapy after an ischaemic stroke, it does not address the hypercoagulable state caused by the high white blood cell count. Heparin is not used in the treatment of ischaemic strokes. Overall, leukapheresis should be the first step in emergency management for chronic myeloid leukaemia with a high white blood cell count and ischaemic stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old married man was on a business trip in Thailand when he...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old married man was on a business trip in Thailand when he developed diarrhoea that lasted for 1 week. He returned to the United States and, a few weeks later, visited his primary care physician (PCP) complaining of pain in his knee and both heels. His eyes have become red and he has developed some painless, red, confluent plaques on his hands and feet, which his PCP has diagnosed as psoriasis.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Enteropathic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis and Differential Diagnosis

      Reactive arthritis is a condition characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. It typically occurs 1-3 weeks after an initial infection, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Salmonella, Shigella, and Campylobacter being the most common causative agents. In addition to the classic triad of symptoms, patients may also experience keratoderma blennorrhagica and buccal and lingual ulcers.

      When considering differential diagnoses, it is important to note that inflammatory arthritides can be seropositive or seronegative. Seronegative spondyloarthritides include ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, enteropathic arthritis, reactive arthritis, and gonococcal arthritis.

      Gonococcal arthritis is a form of septic arthritis that typically affects a single joint and presents with a hot, red joint and systemic signs of infection. Ankylosing spondylitis, on the other hand, does not present with any clinical features in this patient. Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease, which is less likely in a patient with a recent history of travel and diarrhea. Psoriatic arthritis is unlikely to present simultaneously with psoriasis in a young, previously healthy patient without any prior history of either condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which patient has an elevated PTH level that is indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism?...

    Incorrect

    • Which patient has an elevated PTH level that is indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism?

      Patient A:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L
      PTH - 8.09 pmol/L
      Urea - 7.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 132 μmol/L
      Albumin - 36 g/L

      Patient B:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L
      PTH - 7.2 pmol/L
      Urea - 5 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 140 μmol/L
      Albumin - 38 g/L

      Patient C:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L
      PTH - 12.53 pmol/L
      Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 540 μmol/L
      Albumin - 28 g/L

      Patient D:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L
      PTH - 2.05 pmol/L
      Urea - 32.8 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 190 μmol/L
      Albumin - 40 g/L

      Patient E:
      Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L
      Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L
      PTH - 5.88 pmol/L
      Urea - 4.6 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 81 μmol/L
      Albumin - 18 g/L

      Your Answer: Patient C

      Correct Answer: Patient B

      Explanation:

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism and its Complications

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition where the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to elevated calcium levels and low serum phosphate. This condition can go undiagnosed for years, with an incidental finding of elevated calcium often being the first clue. However, complications can arise from longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism, including osteoporosis, renal calculi, and renal calcification.

      Osteoporosis occurs due to increased bone resorption under the influence of high levels of PTH. Renal calculi are also a common complication, as high levels of phosphate excretion and calcium availability can lead to the development of calcium phosphate renal stones. Additionally, calcium deposition in the renal parenchyma can cause renal impairment, which can develop gradually over time.

      Patients with longstanding primary hyperparathyroidism are at risk of impaired renal function, which is less common in patients with chronic kidney disease of other causes. While both conditions may have elevated PTH levels, hypocalcaemia is more common in chronic kidney disease due to impaired hydroxylation of vitamin D. the complications of primary hyperparathyroidism is crucial for early diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) for the past 2 years. She is currently in remission and has no bowel complaints. However, she has recently been experiencing increased fatigue and loss of appetite. During her examination, she appears mildly jaundiced and her nails are shiny. Her blood test results are as follows:
      - Hemoglobin: 112g/L (normal range: 135-175 g/L)
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): 5.2 mg/L (normal range: 0-10 mg/L)
      - Bilirubin: 62 µmol/L (normal range: 2-17 µmol/L)
      - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 54 IU/L (normal range: 10-40 IU/L)
      - Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 47 IU/L (normal range: 5-30 IU/L)
      - Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 1850 IU/L (normal range: 30-130 IU/L)
      - Albumin: 32 g/L (normal range: 35-55 g/L)

      What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Fat soluble vitamin supplementation

      Correct Answer: Liver transplantation

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a chronic disease that causes inflammation and sclerosis of the bile ducts. It often presents with pruritus, fatigue, and jaundice, and is more common in men and those with ulcerative colitis (UC). The only definitive treatment for PSC is liver transplantation, as endoscopic stenting is not effective due to the multiple sites of stenosis. Ursodeoxycholic acid has shown some benefit in short-term studies, but its long-term efficacy is uncertain. Fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is often required due to malabsorption, but is not a treatment for the disease. Azathioprine and steroids are not typically useful in PSC treatment, as too much immunosuppressive therapy may worsen associated bone disease. Regular surveillance is necessary after liver transplantation, as recurrence of PSC is possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old patient came in with worsening shortness of breath. A CT scan...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient came in with worsening shortness of breath. A CT scan of the chest revealed a lesion in the right middle lobe of the lung. The radiologist described the findings as an area of ground-glass opacity surrounded by denser lung tissue.

      What is the more common name for this sign?

      Your Answer: Halo sign

      Correct Answer: Atoll sign

      Explanation:

      Radiological Signs in Lung Imaging: Atoll, Halo, Kerley B, Signet Ring, and Tree-in-Bud

      When examining CT scans of the lungs, radiologists look for specific patterns that can indicate various pathologies. One such pattern is the atoll sign, also known as the reversed halo sign. This sign is characterized by a region of ground-glass opacity surrounded by denser tissue, forming a crescent or annular shape that is at least 2 mm thick. It is often seen in cases of cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (COP), but can also be caused by tuberculosis or other infections.

      Another important sign is the halo sign, which is seen in angioinvasive aspergillosis. This sign appears as a ground-glass opacity surrounding a pulmonary nodule or mass, indicating alveolar hemorrhage.

      Kerley B lines are another pattern that can be seen on lung imaging, indicating pulmonary edema. These lines are caused by fluid accumulation in the interlobular septae at the periphery of the lung.

      The signet ring sign is a pattern seen in bronchiectasis, where a dilated bronchus and accompanying pulmonary artery branch are visible in cross-section. This sign is characterized by a marked dilation of the bronchus, which is not seen in the normal population.

      Finally, the tree-in-bud sign is a pattern seen in endobronchial tuberculosis or other endobronchial pathologies. This sign appears as multiple centrilobular nodules with a linear branching pattern, and can also be seen in cases of cystic fibrosis or viral pneumonia.

      Overall, understanding these radiological signs can help clinicians diagnose and treat various lung pathologies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 20-year-old woman complains of heavy and irregular periods, postcoital bleeding, and deep...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman complains of heavy and irregular periods, postcoital bleeding, and deep dyspareunia that have been present for the past six months.

      What is the probable diagnosis for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chronic pelvic inflammatory disease

      Explanation:

      Chronic PID: A Possible Cause of Irregular Menses, Deep Dyspareunia, and Post-Coital Bleeding in Young Females

      Chronic pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a possible diagnosis for young females experiencing irregular menses, deep dyspareunia, and post-coital bleeding. This condition is typically caused by a Chlamydia infection. PID is a result of the inflammation of the female reproductive organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. The inflammation can cause scarring and damage to the reproductive organs, leading to long-term complications such as infertility.

      Irregular menses, deep dyspareunia, and post-coital bleeding are common symptoms of chronic PID. Irregular menses refer to menstrual cycles that are shorter or longer than the usual 28-day cycle. Deep dyspareunia is a condition where a woman experiences pain during sexual intercourse, particularly in the lower abdomen. Post-coital bleeding is the occurrence of vaginal bleeding after sexual intercourse.

      Early diagnosis and treatment of chronic PID can prevent long-term complications. Treatment typically involves antibiotics to clear the infection and pain management to alleviate symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be necessary to remove damaged tissue.

      In conclusion, chronic PID is a possible cause of irregular menses, deep dyspareunia, and post-coital bleeding in young females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the primary factor that determines if someone is a suitable candidate...

    Correct

    • What is the primary factor that determines if someone is a suitable candidate for an organ transplant?

      Your Answer: Someone for whom a transplant offers a reasonable likelihood of recovery.

      Explanation:

      Factors to Consider for Transplant Suitability

      When determining the suitability of a transplant, the most crucial factor is whether the condition can be cured by the transplant. While age may be a consideration, physical health is typically more important, as it depends on the specific organ or tissue being transplanted. Emotional stability can increase the chances of a successful outcome, but it is not the most critical factor. While knowledge of the underlying condition is helpful, it is not always necessary, as in the case of cardiomyopathy. The cause of the condition is often unknown, but this does not necessarily rule out the possibility of transplantation. Overall, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s health and medical history is necessary to determine the suitability of a transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 72-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department reporting a sudden loss of...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department reporting a sudden loss of vision in her left eye that occurred three hours ago and lasted for approximately 3 minutes. She explains the episode as a 'black-out' of her vision in that eye, without associated pain or nausea, and denies any other symptoms. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and depression, and is currently taking amlodipine, ramipril, simvastatin, and citalopram. What is the best description of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Amaurosis fugax

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptom of painless, temporary blindness in one eye, accompanied by the sensation of a black curtain coming down, is indicative of amaurosis fugax. While advanced age and sudden vision loss may suggest giant cell arthritis, this condition typically causes pain and other symptoms such as scalp tenderness, headache, and jaw claudication. Acute closed-angle glaucoma is also unlikely as it is typically painful and causes redness and increased tearing. None of the medications the patient is taking are known to cause transient visual loss. A TIA of the posterior circulation is unlikely as the visual loss occurred in both eyes. Amaurosis fugax is the most likely cause, which is characterized by painless, temporary vision loss in one or both eyes, often due to retinal ischemia from an embolic or thrombotic event, which is consistent with the patient’s medical history. Reference: Wilkinson & Longmore, Oxford Handbook of Clinical Medicine (10th Ed.), p. 476.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 17-year-old male comes to the emergency department following a fall on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male comes to the emergency department following a fall on his outstretched hand. He complains of tenderness at the base of his thumb, specifically when pressure is applied to the base of the anatomical snuffbox. An X-ray shows a non-displaced fracture of the scaphoid waist. What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Splint and bandage for 7-10 days

      Correct Answer: Cast for 6-8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Non-displaced fractures of the scaphoid waist are commonly treated with a cast for a period of 6-8 weeks. These types of fractures often occur as a result of falls on outstretched hands (FOOSH), and may not be visible on an X-ray for up to 7 days. Surgery, such as external fixation or open reduction internal fixation (ORIF), is not typically necessary for non-displaced fractures of the small carpal bones. Splinting and bandaging are also not recommended as they do not provide sufficient stability for proper healing and may result in non-union of the fracture. Conservative care with ice packs and NSAIDs is also not appropriate for this type of injury.

      Understanding Scaphoid Fractures

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.

      Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An 88-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) via ambulance with...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) via ambulance with central crushing chest pain. An electrocardiogram (ECG) in the ambulance shows 3 mm ST elevation in the anterior leads consistent with a STEMI. His wife says he has a history of ischaemic heart disease and congestive cardiac failure. He has a cardiac arrest in the ED secondary to ventricular fibrillation. Despite resuscitation using advanced cardiac life support, he dies. His wife asks what will happen to his body.
      What is the most appropriate next step in management for this deceased patient?

      Your Answer: Fill in the death certificate stating cause of death in part 1 as cardiac arrest

      Correct Answer: Refer to the coroner

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Filling out a Death Certificate

      When filling out a death certificate, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure accuracy and completeness. If the death was sudden and unexpected, it should be referred to the coroner. In part 1 of the certificate, the specific disease, illness, or complication that led to death should be stated, not a mode of dying. Terms such as cardiac arrest, old age, and coma are not suitable for part 1. In part 2, any conditions that may have contributed to the death should be listed, but terms such as heart failure, liver failure, and kidney failure are not acceptable. By following these guidelines, death certificates can provide valuable information for medical research and public health purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 17-year-old girl is brought from a school party following an episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought from a school party following an episode of loss of consciousness. She was noted to have jerking of the limbs, frothing at the mouth and was incontinent of urine in the episode. Examination is non-contributory. Blood investigations and CT scan of the brain are normal. She mentions a similar case when on holiday about a year before this episode for which she did not receive treatment.
      What is an appropriate step in this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Refer for electroencephalography (EEG) if there are any further episodes

      Correct Answer: Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist

      Explanation:

      Managing Epilepsy: Key Steps and Considerations

      Epilepsy is a complex condition that requires careful management to ensure optimal outcomes for patients. Here are some key steps and considerations that healthcare professionals should keep in mind when treating patients with epilepsy:

      1. Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist: Epilepsy nurse specialists can serve as valuable intermediaries between patients and healthcare providers, helping to ensure effective communication and treatment compliance.

      2. Advise patients to avoid driving and other high-risk activities: Patients with epilepsy should be advised to avoid driving until they have been seizure-free for a certain amount of time (according to local laws). They should also be cautioned against engaging in other high-risk activities, such as operating heavy machinery or swimming unaccompanied.

      3. Refer for diagnostic testing: Patients who have experienced one or more seizures should be referred for diagnostic testing, including blood investigations, EEG, and MRI. These tests can help to identify the underlying cause of seizures and guide treatment decisions.

      4. Consider drug treatment: Drug treatment is often necessary for patients with epilepsy, but the choice of medication should be carefully considered based on the patient’s seizure type and individual needs. Sodium valproate and lamotrigine are often used for generalised tonic-clonic seizures, while carbamazepine is first-line for partial seizures.

      5. Monitor for side effects: All medications used to treat epilepsy have potential side effects, so patients should be carefully monitored for any adverse reactions. Women of childbearing age should avoid sodium valproate due to the risk of neural tube defects.

      6. Consider MRI if EEG shows abnormality: MRI is indicated for patients with new-onset epilepsy or failure of first-line medication, unless there is a clear diagnosis of idiopathic generalised epilepsy. In acute situations, a CT scan may be necessary.

      By following these key steps and considerations, healthcare professionals can help to ensure that patients with epilepsy receive the best possible care and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An epileptic teenager is seeking advice regarding their ability to drive following a...

    Incorrect

    • An epileptic teenager is seeking advice regarding their ability to drive following a seizure six months ago. On further enquiry, you discover that the seizure was in response to a medication change, which also took place six months ago and since being put back on their original medication, they have been seizure-free.
      What advice is appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: She will have to wait another 12 months due to her medication change resulting in the seizure

      Correct Answer: She can apply to the DVLA to reinstate her licence now

      Explanation:

      Clarifying Misconceptions about Driving Eligibility for Patients with Epilepsy

      There are several misconceptions about driving eligibility for patients with epilepsy. One common misconception is that a patient must wait another six months before being eligible to drive after a medication-induced seizure. However, according to DVLA guidance, if the patient has been seizure-free for six months on their working medication, they can apply to reinstate their licence.

      Another misconception is that the patient must trial the new medication again to determine if they can drive. This is not true, as reverting back to the previous medication that did not work would not be helpful.

      Additionally, some believe that the patient must wait another 12 months due to the medication change resulting in the seizure. However, the time a patient must be seizure-free is not increased because the seizure was medication-induced.

      It is important to note that if a patient with epilepsy has been seizure-free for a certain period of time, depending on certain circumstances, they will be eligible to drive again in most cases. It is crucial for patients and healthcare professionals to have accurate information about driving eligibility for patients with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You are requested to evaluate a patient on an inpatient psychiatric ward who...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a patient on an inpatient psychiatric ward who has been feeling unwell for the past few days. The patient complains of severe tremors, muscle weakness, and diarrhea. As part of the workup, you order a lithium level since the patient is on lithium medication. The result comes back high at 1.9mEq/l. You observe that the nursing chart indicates that the patient, who is in their late 60s, has been bedridden and has refused food and drink except for smoking. What is the most likely factor that has contributed to this lithium toxicity?

      Your Answer: Dehydration

      Explanation:

      Lithium overdose can be caused by dehydration, which is a known risk factor. The presentation highlights the importance of monitoring blood levels frequently due to the narrow therapeutic index of lithium (0.6-1.2). While infection should be ruled out, it is not a likely cause of lithium toxicity. Cigarette and antibiotic use are also not linked to lithium toxicity. Concurrent use of anti-psychotics is unlikely to affect lithium levels.

      Understanding Lithium Toxicity

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.

      In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (3/4) 75%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/3) 0%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/3) 33%
Obstetrics (1/3) 33%
Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Vascular (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Miscellaneous (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Ethics And Legal (0/1) 0%
Passmed