-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man is admitted to the stroke unit with a right total anterior circulation syndrome (TACS) infarct. He arrived at hospital 2.5 hours after the onset of his symptoms and was treated with intravenous alteplase at 3 hours post-onset.
He is known have an atrial septal defect which was discovered after a murmur was heard at a routine insurance medical several years ago. He works in the oil business and has recently returned from a business trip to Saudi Arabia.
On examination the following day there subtle signs of improvement with increased movement in his left hand. However, the rest of his arm remains flaccid and he has persisting dense hemiplegia affecting his right leg. He has a notable homonymous hemianopia on examination. A routine CT Brain 24-hours post-thrombolysis revealed established ischaemic changes in the MCA territory with new petechial haemorrhage along the border of the infarct.
Later that evening, his conscious level falls. His Glasgow Coma Scale changes from E4 M6 V2, to E2, M4 V2. His blood pressure is 187/112 mmHg.
Urgent bloods reveal:
Haemoglobin 120 g/l
Prothrombin time 27 seconds
Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) 49 seconds
What is the most beneficial intervention for this patient?Your Answer: Control of blood pressure
Correct Answer: Decompressive craniotomy
Explanation:The patient is at a high risk of developing malignant middle cerebral artery (MCA) syndrome, which is more common in younger patients who have suffered an extensive stroke in the MCA territory. As the brain swells after an infarction, younger brains with less atrophy have less room for expansion, leading to intracranial hypertension. This can result in a reduced conscious level 48 hours after the stroke onset. Although thrombolysis can reduce the risk of infarction and brain edema, it may not achieve recanalization in every patient, and those who are thrombolysed can still develop malignant MCA syndrome. As this patient was thrombolysed three hours after onset, tissue infarction is likely to have already occurred. Urgent decompressive craniotomy can be life-saving, especially in non-dominant stroke patients who are likely to recover language functions and have a better outcome if they survive the acute event.
Acute haemorrhagic transformation is the main differential diagnosis in this case. Although a change in conscious level should prompt repeat imaging to differentiate between bleeding and edema, the risk of large haemorrhagic transformation >24 hours post-thrombolysis is lower than the risk of malignant MCA syndrome, especially when the previous scan has shown only grade I Haemorrhagic infarction (HI-1) according to the ECAS II grading system. Urgent discussion with neurosurgery is recommended.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.
Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.
Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with her fourth episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) in the last four months. She has recently been diagnosed with WPW syndrome. She doesn't smoke but drinks up to three cups of coffee per day. On this occasion, she experienced chest pain and shortness of breath while exercising at the gym. She is currently taking a low dose of verapamil as prophylaxis against further events.
During examination, her BP is 100/70 mmHg, with a pulse of 170 bpm and regular. She is electrically cardioverted.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Radiofrequency ablation
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Next Steps for a Patient with Supraventricular Tachycardia and WPW Syndrome
Despite treatment with a beta-blocker, sotalol, a patient with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome remains symptomatic. This suggests that further episodes of SVT are likely to occur and may continue to impact the patient’s ability to work. Therefore, the logical next step is to perform electrophysiology studies followed by consideration of radiofrequency ablation.
While amiodarone is occasionally used in tachyarrhythmias, including WPW, it is not indicated in this situation. Similarly, switching from sotalol to verapamil is unlikely to change the patient’s symptoms and may even increase the ventricular rate in WPW. Teaching the patient vagal maneuvers, such as the Valsalva maneuver, may be reasonable for very infrequent episodes of arrhythmia but is not a substitute for definitive treatment.
It is important to note that an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) is not indicated for WPW syndrome. The indications for ICD insertion are clear and outlined in NICE guidance. Therefore, electrophysiology studies followed by consideration of radiofrequency ablation remain the most appropriate next steps for this patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with 4 days of fevers and sweating. She has a past medical history of Graves' disease and is not compliant with medication treatment. She smokes ten cigarettes daily and works in advertising.
Her vital signs are heart rate 146 beats per minute, blood pressure 154/99 mmHg, respiratory rate 24/minute, oxygen saturations 97% on room air and temperature 38.4ºC.
During examination, she is diaphoretic, tremulous and confused (Glasgow coma scale 14/15). Proptosis and chemosis are noted on examination of her eyes. There are bilateral crackles on chest auscultation and her JVP is elevated.
Blood tests reveal:
Hb 124 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 189 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 5.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 131 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 5.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 89 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 4 mg/L (< 5)
Bilirubin 26 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 122 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 99 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 74 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 34 g/L (35 - 50)
TSH 0.0 mIU/L (0.2 - 5.5)
Free T4 81 pmol/L (10 - 24.5)
What is the most appropriate treatment option for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Carbimazole
Correct Answer: Propylthiouracil
Explanation:Propylthiouracil should be used for acute treatment of thyroid storm instead of carbimazole or surgery.
When a patient presents with ophthalmological symptoms of Graves’ disease along with fever, confusion, tachycardia, tremors, hypertension, and signs of heart failure, it is considered a thyroid storm. In such cases, propylthiouracil is the preferred anti-thyroid drug due to its faster onset of action compared to carbimazole. Additionally, propylthiouracil can inhibit the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
Antibiotics are not recommended for thyroid storm as the patient’s CRP and WCC are normal, indicating that an infection is less likely than thyroid storm.
Carbimazole can be used to treat thyroid storm, but it is not the preferred option due to its slower onset of action.
Radioactive iodine therapy is not an acute treatment option for thyroid storm, although it can be used to manage Graves’ disease.
Understanding Thyroid Storm
Thyroid storm is a rare but life-threatening complication of thyrotoxicosis, which is typically seen in patients with established thyrotoxicosis. It is rarely seen as the presenting feature, and iatrogenic thyroxine excess does not usually result in thyroid storm. Precipitating events such as thyroid or non-thyroidal surgery, trauma, infection, and acute iodine load can trigger thyroid storm.
The clinical features of thyroid storm include fever, tachycardia, confusion and agitation, nausea and vomiting, hypertension, heart failure, and abnormal liver function tests. Jaundice may also be seen clinically.
The management of thyroid storm involves symptomatic treatment such as paracetamol, treatment of underlying precipitating events, beta-blockers, anti-thyroid drugs, Lugol’s iodine, and dexamethasone. Beta-blockers such as IV propranolol are typically used, while anti-thyroid drugs like methimazole or propylthiouracil are also administered. Lugol’s iodine is used to reduce thyroid hormone synthesis, while dexamethasone is used to block the conversion of T4 to T3.
In summary, thyroid storm is a serious complication of thyrotoxicosis that requires prompt management to prevent life-threatening complications. Early recognition of precipitating events and prompt treatment can help to prevent the development of thyroid storm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a lump in her armpit that she noticed two months ago and feels is increasing in size. She denies experiencing fever, night sweats, weight loss, or fatigue. The doctor orders some blood tests, as shown below.
Hemoglobin: 116 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
Platelets: 160 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
White blood cells: 72 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
Neutrophils: 5 * 109/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 * 109/L)
Lymphocytes: 66 * 109/L (normal range: 1.0-3.5 * 109/L)
Blood film: smudge cells
Which of the following factors would suggest a poor prognosis for this patient?Your Answer: Del 17p
Explanation:The diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is often made in patients with hepatomegaly, based on the presence of a lymphocyte-predominant leukocytosis and smudge cells on the blood film. Smudge cells are remnants of abnormally fragile lymphocytes that appear during slide preparation.
Among the given options, only the presence of del 17p mutation is a poor prognostic indicator, indicating resistance to standard chemotherapy regimens.
B2-microglobulin levels are used as a prognostic marker in multiple myeloma and CLL, where high levels suggest a poor prognosis.
The Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22), is a poor prognostic factor in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
Male sex, but not female sex, is a poor prognostic factor.
Being under 70 years old is a good prognostic marker.
Prognostic Factors for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several factors that can affect the prognosis of CLL. Poor prognostic factors include male sex, age over 70 years, a high lymphocyte count, prolymphocytes comprising more than 10% of blood lymphocytes, a lymphocyte doubling time of less than 12 months, raised LDH, CD38 expression positive, and TP53 mutation. Patients with these factors have a median survival of 3-5 years.
In addition to these factors, chromosomal changes can also affect the prognosis of CLL. The most common abnormality is deletion of the long arm of chromosome 13 (del 13q), which is seen in around 50% of patients and is associated with a good prognosis. On the other hand, deletions of part of the short arm of chromosome 17 (del 17p) are seen in around 5-10% of patients and are associated with a poor prognosis.
It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these prognostic factors when treating patients with CLL, as they can help guide treatment decisions and provide patients with a better understanding of their prognosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man presents to the oncology team with a three-week history of progressive thoracic back pain. The pain is localised to a point between his shoulder blades and is worsened by movement and coughing. He also reports difficulty standing and walking, with intermittent tingling sensations in his lower legs. The patient has a history of prostate cancer and has been lost to urological follow-up for two years. Examination reveals metastatic invasion and collapse of T10 vertebral with spinal cord compression. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Best supportive care
Correct Answer: Surgical tumour resection and spinal cord stabilisation with adjuvant radiotherapy
Explanation:The most reliable predictor of neurological outcome in treating metastatic spinal cord compression is the patient’s neurological status at the start of treatment. As the patient in this case has sought medical attention promptly and has only minor neurological impairment, it is crucial to provide definitive treatment as soon as possible (preferably within 24 hours) to achieve the best long-term results.
Definitive treatment for metastatic spinal cord compression may involve a combination of surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy. Recent studies suggest that surgery is more effective than radiotherapy in preserving or restoring neurological function and alleviating pain. Given the patient’s excellent performance status, surgery followed by radiotherapy would likely yield better outcomes than radiotherapy alone.
In some cases, radiotherapy may be the first-line treatment option. Recommended regimens vary, such as 20 Gy in five daily fractions. However, the radiotherapy regimen mentioned in the question would only be suitable as palliative treatment for pain relief, making it an incorrect answer for this patient.
Chemotherapy may be useful in managing spinal cord compression caused by chemo-sensitive malignancies (such as small-cell lung cancer or germ cell tumors), but it would not be the optimal treatment for this patient.
Neoplastic Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency
Neoplastic spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that affects around 5% of cancer patients. The majority of cases are due to vertebral body metastases, which are more common in patients with lung, breast, and prostate cancer. The earliest and most common symptom is back pain, which may worsen when lying down or coughing. Other symptoms include lower limb weakness and sensory changes such as numbness and sensory loss. The neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion, with lesions above L1 resulting in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level, while lesions below L1 cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.
Urgent MRI is recommended within 24 hours of presentation according to the 2019 NICE guidelines. High-dose oral dexamethasone is used for management, and urgent oncological assessment is necessary for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery. Proper management is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord and improve the patient’s quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with fever and bruising. She has no past medical history and does not take any regular medications. She does not smoke or drink alcohol and works as a teacher.
Observations:
Heart rate 92 beats per minute
Temperature 38.2ºC
Blood pressure 168/100 mmHg
Respiratory rate 16/minute
Oxygen saturations 97% on room air
On examination, there is no meningism. You note that she is jaundiced but there are no signs of chronic liver disease. There are scattered petechiae on her arms, legs and abdomen.
Bloods tests:
Hb 70 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
MCV 102 fL (80-96)
Platelets 35 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 4.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 8.9 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 150 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 5 mg/L (< 5)
Bilirubin 55 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 90 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 22 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 42 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 38 g/L (35 - 50)
Prothrombin time 12 seconds (10-14)
Blood film schistocytes
ADAMTS13 enzyme absent
Urinalysis:
Protein ++
Blood ++
Leucocytes +
Nitrites -ve
Glucose -ve
What is the most effective treatment for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Plasma exchange
Explanation:Plasma exchange is the preferred initial treatment for TTP.
Managing Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a condition where abnormally large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand’s factor cause platelets to clump within vessels. This leads to a deficiency of protease which breaks down large multimers of von Willebrand’s factor. TTP overlaps with haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS).
When managing TTP, it is important to avoid antibiotics as they may worsen the outcome. The treatment of choice is plasma exchange. Steroids and immunosuppressants may also be used. Vincristine is another option for management.
To summarize, TTP is a condition caused by abnormal multimers of von Willebrand’s factor that leads to platelet clumping. Management includes avoiding antibiotics, plasma exchange, and the use of steroids, immunosuppressants, and vincristine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old male with a history of type one diabetes mellitus complains of abdominal pain and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following tests would indicate the need for a conversation about potential admission to the intensive care unit?
Your Answer: pH 7.27
Correct Answer: Potassium 3.4 mmol/L
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
You review a 40-year-old man in the gastroenterology clinic who has been referred by his GP with abnormal liver function tests. The only past medical history is a recent diagnosis of hypertension.
On direct questioning, he denies alcohol intake or intravenous drug use. There is no travel history.
On examination, he is pale, there is evidence of finger clubbing and he has spider naevi over the anterior chest wall. Abdominal examination reveals tender hepatomegaly 3 cm below the costal margin.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Liver Diseases: Clinical Signs and Symptoms
Haemochromatosis is a liver disease that can cause hepatomegaly, cirrhosis, and splenomegaly. Patients may also experience cardiomyopathy and endocrine complications such as diabetes mellitus, hypogonadism, panhypopituitarism, and testicular atrophy. The term bronze diabetes is used to describe the skin pigmentation seen in these patients. Chondrocalcinosis and arthritis may also develop. It is important to exclude hepatocellular carcinoma, especially in those with cirrhosis, by conducting alpha fetoprotein and ultrasound tests every three to six months.
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is often asymptomatic and is usually diagnosed incidentally through raised aminotransferases or an ultrasound scan showing a fatty liver. Patients may report right upper quadrant pain and have hepatomegaly.
Primary biliary cirrhosis is a cholestatic disorder that primarily affects middle-aged women and is associated with autoimmune diseases. Patients may have stigmata of chronic liver disease, xanthelasma, and excoriations due to pruritus.
Primary sclerosing cholangitis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease and may cause pruritus, intermittent jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain. Signs of chronic liver disease and portal hypertension may also be present.
Wilson’s disease typically presents between the ages of three and 40 years and can cause acute hepatitis, acute liver failure, and decompensated cirrhosis. Patients may also experience neuropsychiatric symptoms such as behavioural changes, parkinsonism, and cognitive impairment. Kayser-Fleischer rings may be seen in patients with neurological disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man is referred to the hospital by his GP with a suspected case of pneumonia. He is able to converse appropriately in complete sentences.
His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 98, blood pressure of 110/79 mmHg, respiratory rate of 27, and a temperature of 38.2°C.
The results of his laboratory tests are as follows: hemoglobin level of 125 g/L (normal range: 130-180), white blood cell count of 18.7 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11), neutrophil count of 16.1 ×109/L (normal range: 1.5-7.0), platelet count of 479 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400), sodium level of 123 mmol/L (normal range: 137-144), potassium level of 3.8 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9), urea level of 8.1 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5), creatinine level of 115 μmol/L (normal range: 60-110), and CRP level of 210 mg/L (normal range: <10).
Based on the above information, what is his predicted mortality rate according to the current BTS guidelines?Your Answer: 5-7%
Correct Answer: 9%
Explanation:The inheritance of Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive disorder that affects the lungs, pancreas, and other organs. In order for a child to inherit CF, both parents must be carriers of the mutated gene. However, the chance of one or both parents having CF is low as the ability to reproduce in affected adults is extremely low. Therefore, it is safe to assume that both parents are carriers if one of their children is affected.
If a child is phenotypically normal at the age of 8, it means that they do not have CF as the symptoms would have become apparent by now. However, the child could still be a carrier of the mutated gene. In this case, the chance of the child being a carrier is 2 out of 3.
It is important to note that for autosomal recessive disorders like CF, the child of an affected individual has a 100% chance of being a carrier. The inheritance of CF is crucial for genetic counseling and family planning.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 54-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department, complaining of changes affecting her left nipple. There is erythema around the nipple with crusting/bleeding and some scaling of the skin over the areola. She has a past history of hypertension and type II diabetes.
On examination, her blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg and pulse 82 bpm and regular. Her body mass index (BMI) is 30 kg/m2. You confirm the findings with respect to the left nipple. There are no palpable masses in either breast, and there is no lymphadenopathy.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Biopsy of the skin next to the nipple
Explanation:Next Steps for Suspected Paget’s Disease of the Nipple
When there is a suspicion of Paget’s disease of the nipple, which may be associated with an underlying invasive breast carcinoma, the most important next step is to perform a biopsy to confirm the diagnosis. Even if there is no breast lump palpable, mammography or breast magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) should be considered in addition to biopsy. However, at this point, biopsy is the most useful diagnostic tool. If an underlying malignancy is confirmed, breast-conserving therapy with central excision only is often a possibility.
Emollient cream may have positive effects on dry skin around the nipple, but it is crucially important to exclude malignancy first before using any topical interventions. Topical corticosteroid cream is not appropriate until an underlying malignancy is excluded. In this case, eczema confined to the nipple only would be considered very unusual, and topical corticosteroid would not be an appropriate intervention.
A mammogram is important to determine the extent of an underlying breast disease, but it is supplementary to a biopsy, not instead of it. Fungal skin infection is more likely to affect flexural surfaces underneath the breasts or around the groin, rather than around the nipple, meaning that topical antifungal cream is unlikely to be of value here.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)