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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to discuss screening for tuberculosis (TB)...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to discuss screening for tuberculosis (TB) for himself and his two children. His wife has recently been diagnosed with active TB and started on treatment following release from hospital. He and the children are all completely asymptomatic.
      Which of the following screening options would be appropriate for the family?

      Your Answer: Mantoux test

      Explanation:

      Screening and Diagnosis of Tuberculosis: Methods and Recommendations

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a serious infectious disease that can be fatal if left untreated. Screening and diagnosis of TB are crucial for early detection and treatment. In this article, we will discuss the recommended methods and guidelines for screening and diagnosis of TB.

      Mantoux Test
      The Mantoux test is a recommended screening method for latent TB in at-risk groups, such as close contacts of patients with active pulmonary or laryngeal TB, patients with human immunodeficiency virus, or immigrants from high-risk countries. The test involves injecting tuberculin intradermally and observing a reaction 2-3 days later. A positive result is indicated by an induration of greater than 6 mm at the injection site. Further investigations are warranted to diagnose or exclude active TB infection.

      Chest X-Ray
      Screening for latent TB is advised for all household members and close contacts of patients diagnosed with active pulmonary TB. If screening is positive, investigations for active TB are indicated, which would include a chest X-ray. Typical features of pulmonary TB on an X-ray include a cavitating lesion, upper-lobe parenchymal infiltrates, pleural effusion, or mediastinal or hilar lymphadenopathy.

      Heaf Test
      The Heaf test was previously used to diagnose latent TB but has since been replaced by the Mantoux test. Both tests involve injecting tuberculin intradermally and observing for a reaction. The Heaf test was performed using a Heaf gun, which had six needles in a circular formation. The more severe the reaction, the more likely it is that the patient has an active infection, but previous BCG vaccine exposure can also give a reaction.

      Screening and Diagnosis Recommendations
      According to NICE guidance, close contacts of patients with active pulmonary TB should be screened for latent TB infection with a Mantoux test. Three sputum samples (including an early morning sample) for TB microscopy and culture are indicated to diagnose active pulmonary TB infection. This investigation is not indicated for screening for latent TB but should be performed if latent screening tests are positive.

      In conclusion, early detection and treatment of TB are crucial for preventing the spread of the disease and improving patient outcomes. The recommended screening and diagnosis methods should be followed to ensure accurate and timely detection of TB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      101.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Typically, which form of lung disease develops in people with a1-antitrypsin deficiency? ...

    Correct

    • Typically, which form of lung disease develops in people with a1-antitrypsin deficiency?

      Your Answer: Emphysema

      Explanation:

      Emphysema: Imbalance between Proteases and Anti-Proteases in the Lungs

      Emphysema is a lung disease that results from an imbalance between proteases and anti-proteases within the lung. This imbalance is often caused by a1-antitrypsin deficiency, which is associated with the development of emphysema in young people with no history of smoking and a positive family history. The interplay between environmental and genetic factors determines the onset of emphysema. Patients typically present with worsening dyspnoea, and weight loss, cor pulmonale, and polycythaemia occur later in the course of the disease. Chest radiographs show bilateral basal emphysema with paucity and pruning of the basal pulmonary vessels. Early onset of liver cirrhosis, often in combination with emphysema, is also associated with a1-antitrypsin deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following drugs is safe to use while breastfeeding? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following drugs is safe to use while breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      The use of cephalosporins during breastfeeding is deemed to be safe.

      Breastfeeding has some contraindications that are important to know, especially when it comes to drugs. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, and trimethoprim are safe for breastfeeding mothers, as are endocrine drugs like glucocorticoids (in low doses) and levothyroxine. Epilepsy drugs like sodium valproate and carbamazepine, asthma drugs like salbutamol and theophyllines, and hypertension drugs like beta-blockers and hydralazine are also safe. Anticoagulants like warfarin and heparin, as well as digoxin, are also safe. However, some drugs should be avoided, such as antibiotics like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and sulphonamides, psychiatric drugs like lithium and benzodiazepines, aspirin, carbimazole, methotrexate, sulfonylureas, cytotoxic drugs, and amiodarone. Other contraindications include galactosaemia and viral infections, although the latter is controversial in the developing world due to the increased risk of infant mortality and morbidity associated with bottle feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is least likely to be associated with ankylosing spondylitis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is least likely to be associated with ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Heart block

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with several features that can be remembered using the acronym ‘A’s. These include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, and amyloidosis. However, achalasia is not a known association with ankylosing spondylitis.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of fatigue and difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of fatigue and difficulty breathing for the past 2 days. She has a medical history of hypertension, a heart attack 3 years ago, heart failure, and a recent chest infection that was successfully treated with antibiotics. During the examination, the patient has bibasal crepitations and an elevated JVP. Her temperature is 37ºC, oxygen saturation is 95% on air, heart rate is 95 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 129/86 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer: IV furosemide

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for acute pulmonary oedema in this patient is IV loop diuretic, specifically furosemide. This is because the patient is experiencing acute decompensated heart failure, which causes pulmonary oedema. IV loop diuretic has a prompt diuretic effect, reducing ventricular filling pressures and improving symptoms within 30 minutes.

      IV dobutamine is not necessary for this patient as they are not in shock and dobutamine is typically reserved for patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction who have potentially reversible cardiogenic shock.

      IV morphine is not recommended for acute heart failure as it may increase morbidity in patients with acute pulmonary oedema.

      Oral furosemide is not the preferred route of administration for this patient as IV furosemide has a faster onset of diuresis.

      Heart failure requires acute management, with recommended treatments for all patients including IV loop diuretics such as furosemide or bumetanide. Oxygen may also be necessary, with guidelines suggesting oxygen saturations be kept at 94-98%. Vasodilators such as nitrates should not be routinely given to all patients, but may have a role in cases of concomitant myocardial ischaemia, severe hypertension, or regurgitant aortic or mitral valve disease. However, hypotension is a major side-effect/contraindication. Patients with respiratory failure may require CPAP, while those with hypotension or cardiogenic shock may require inotropic agents like dobutamine or vasopressor agents like norepinephrine. Mechanical circulatory assistance such as intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation or ventricular assist devices may also be necessary. Regular medication for heart failure should be continued, with beta-blockers only stopped in certain circumstances. Opiates should not be routinely offered to patients with acute heart failure due to potential increased morbidity.

      In summary, acute management of heart failure involves a range of treatments depending on the patient’s specific condition. It is important to carefully consider the potential side-effects and contraindications of each treatment, and to continue regular medication for heart failure where appropriate. Opiates should be used with caution, and only in cases where they are likely to reduce dyspnoea/distress without causing harm. With appropriate management, patients with acute heart failure can receive the care they need to improve their outcomes and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      52.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 54-year-old man with a history of epilepsy presents with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man with a history of epilepsy presents with a complaint of numbness in his hands and feet after a recent change in medication. Upon examination, he exhibits reduced sensation in a glove-and-stocking distribution and a decreased ankle reflex. Additionally, he has lymphadenopathy in the cervical and inguinal region and bleeding gums. Which medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects

      Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with mild central abdominal discomfort....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with mild central abdominal discomfort. She also reports unintentional weight loss over the past four months. However, she denies any rectal bleeding or fatigue and has no significant family history.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: 2-week wait referral to the colorectal services

      Explanation:

      Referral for Investigation of Colorectal Cancer with a 2-Week Wait

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients aged 40 or over who present with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain should be referred for investigation of colorectal cancer with a 2-week wait. Other criteria for a 2-week wait referral include patients with unexplained rectal bleeding, iron-deficiency anaemia, change in bowel habit, positive faecal occult blood tests, rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, and patients under 50 years with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss or iron-deficiency anaemia.

      Doing nothing and just following up with the patient, prescribing analgesia and following up in one month, referring the patient routinely, or taking urgent bloods and following up in two weeks would not be appropriate in the presence of red-flag symptoms and can create a serious delay in diagnosis and treatment. Therefore, referral for investigation of colorectal cancer with a 2-week wait is the recommended course of action. However, taking urgent bloods and following up the patient in two weeks can still be done while the patient is waiting for the referral appointment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old man complains of worsening pain and swelling in both knees with...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of worsening pain and swelling in both knees with stiffness and decreased mobility over the past eight months. He also has painful wrist joints with nodules at the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints which have developed slowly over the past two years.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis (OA)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between types of arthritis: A case study

      In this case study, a patient presents with bony swelling at the DIP and PIP joints of the hands. It is important to differentiate between various types of arthritis to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is characterized by loss of articular cartilage and overgrowth of underlying bone, commonly affecting the hips, knees, and small hand joints. Pain and swelling are common presenting features, along with crepitus on examination. Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes may also be present.

      Osteoporosis, on the other hand, is a condition of reduced bone density and increased fragility, often diagnosed following a low-impact fracture or screening of high-risk patients. Pain and bony swelling are not typical features of osteoporosis.

      Psoriatic arthritis is an inflammatory seronegative spondyloarthropathy associated with psoriasis, commonly affecting the hands but not causing the changes described in this case. Dactylitis is a usual examination finding with psoriatic arthritis.

      Reactive arthritis is characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following an infection. It typically presents as an acute, asymmetrical lower-limb arthritis, occurring a few days to weeks after the initial infection.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) presents most often in women between the ages of 35 and 55 with symmetrical polyarticular arthritis, most often in the small joints of the hands or feet. Swelling is present at the metacarpophalangeal and PIP joints of the hands, along with other signs such as swan neck and Boutonnière deformities of the fingers, ulnar deviation of fingers, and Z deformity of the thumb.

      In conclusion, careful examination and consideration of various types of arthritis are necessary for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 2-year-old child has been referred by the pediatrician to the clinic as...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old child has been referred by the pediatrician to the clinic as they are concerned about the child's appearance. Upon examination, you observe that the child has upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent epicanthic folds, low-set ears, and a flat face. You proceed to conduct a neurological assessment.
      What are the expected findings?

      Your Answer: Hypotonia

      Explanation:

      Hypotonia in neonates can be caused by Down’s syndrome, but it is not the only cause. Down’s syndrome does not typically present with hyperreflexia or hypertonia, and it is not associated with spina bifida. While hyporeflexia may occur in some cases of Down’s syndrome, it is not the most common neurological presentation.

      Understanding Hypotonia: Causes and Symptoms

      Hypotonia, also known as floppiness, is a condition that can be caused by central nervous system disorders or nerve and muscle problems. It is characterized by a decrease in muscle tone, resulting in a lack of resistance to passive movement. In some cases, an acutely ill child may exhibit hypotonia during examination, while in others, it may be associated with encephalopathy in the newborn period, which is most likely caused by hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy.

      Central causes of hypotonia include Down’s syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, hypothyroidism, and cerebral palsy, which may precede the development of spasticity. On the other hand, neurological and muscular problems such as spinal muscular atrophy, spina bifida, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis, muscular dystrophy, and myotonic dystrophy can also cause hypotonia.

      It is important to note that hypotonia can be a symptom of an underlying condition and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional. Early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the symptoms and improve the quality of life for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old man is being examined for persistent back pain. What symptom would...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man is being examined for persistent back pain. What symptom would strongly indicate a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by an early reduction in lateral flexion of the lumbar spine. Patients with this condition often experience a decrease in lumbar lordosis and an increase in thoracic kyphosis.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his General...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his General Practitioner with a heavy feeling in his chest for the past two hours. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is taken, which shows 1.4 mm ST-segment elevations in leads II III and aVF.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inferior MI

      Explanation:

      Based on the electrocardiogram (ECG) findings, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is an inferior myocardial infarction (MI), which occurs in the territory of the right coronary artery. This is indicated by ST-segment elevations in leads I, II, and aVF. Other ECG changes, such as complete heart block and bradycardia, may also be present due to the arterial supply the RCA gives to the atrioventricular and sinoatrial nodes. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may suggest acute coronary syndrome.

      Acute pericarditis is unlikely as it presents with sharp retrosternal chest pain and a pericardial friction rub on auscultation, with different ECG findings such as widespread concave ST-segment elevations and PR segment depression.

      An anterolateral MI would show ST-segment elevations in the anterolateral leads, while a posterior MI would show ST-segment depressions in the anterior leads with tall R waves.

      In a pulmonary embolism (PE), ECG changes may include a large S wave in lead I, a large Q wave in lead III, and an inverted T wave in lead III – S1Q3T3, but this is only seen in a minority of patients. Most patients with a PE would have a normal ECG or sinus tachycardia, with signs of right-heart strain sometimes present. The clinical presentation of a PE would also differ from that of an MI, with symptoms such as tachypnea, tachycardia, lung crackles, fever, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant complains of dysuria and frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant complains of dysuria and frequent urination. Upon urine dipstick examination, nitrites and leukocytes are detected. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, it is also advisable to use Amoxicillin.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of a severely painful headache...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of a severely painful headache mainly around his left eye, associated with left-sided eye watering. He has had several similar episodes of pain over the past few months, each lasting about 2–3 hours.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Cluster Headache from Other Headache Disorders

      Cluster headache is a severe headache disorder that primarily affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. The pain is localized around one eye and can last from a few minutes up to three hours. Lacrimation and nasal congestion may occur simultaneously, and symptoms tend to occur frequently for several weeks followed by a symptom-free period lasting months or even years. It is important to distinguish cluster headache from other headache disorders, such as brain tumors, giant cell arteritis (GCA), migraine, and tension headache. Brain tumors may present with signs of raised intracranial pressure, while GCA typically affects those over 50 years old and presents with abrupt-onset headache, scalp pain/tenderness, and jaw claudication. Migraine is characterized by recurrent episodes of headache accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia, nausea, and vomiting, while tension headache is typically bilateral and described as a band-like pain across the forehead. Associated eye watering is not a feature of tension headache.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of a persistent blocked nose...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of a persistent blocked nose and reduced sense of smell for the past few months. During examination, the doctor observes pale grey mucosal sacs in both nostrils. The patient has a history of allergies but is otherwise healthy. What is the most likely condition she is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Correct Answer: Aspirin usage

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Medication Usage: A Brief Overview

      Aspirin Usage and Nasal Polyps
      Nasal polyps, asthma, and rhinosinusitis are all symptoms of aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease. This condition is caused by hypersensitivity to aspirin or other cyclooxygenase 1 inhibitors and typically develops in individuals aged 30-40 years. Treatment involves avoiding non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and in some cases, aspirin desensitization may be performed.

      COPD and Nasal Polyps
      While nasal polyps can be associated with asthma, there is no known association with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Smokers with nosebleeds or unilateral nasal polyps should be referred for urgent ENT assessment to rule out malignancy.

      Infective Endocarditis and Nasal Polyps
      Infective endocarditis occurs when bacteria enters the bloodstream, usually via poor dentition, an open wound, or mechanical device placed in the heart. There is no known association between nasal polyps and infective endocarditis.

      Paracetamol Usage and Nasal Polyps
      Nasal polyps are associated with aspirin sensitivity, not sensitivity to paracetamol. According to the British National Formulary, the only side effect of oral paracetamol is thrombocytopenia, which is considered very rare.

      Simvastatin Usage and Nasal Polyps
      Nasal polyps are not a recognized side effect of statins, which can cause muscle aches, headaches, diarrhea, and sleep disturbances.

      Understanding Medical Conditions and Medication Usage

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 42 year old athlete visits his team physician for a yearly check-up....

    Correct

    • A 42 year old athlete visits his team physician for a yearly check-up. What ECG findings should be considered worrisome?

      Your Answer: Left bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      Left bundle branch block is typically indicative of underlying ischaemic or structural heart disease and is never considered normal. However, there are several normal variants that can appear on an ECG, such as sinus arrhythmia, right axis deviation (common in tall and thin individuals), left axis deviation (common in short, obese individuals), and partial right bundle branch block. Additionally, athletes may exhibit certain normal variants due to their high vagal tone, such as sinus bradycardia and 1st degree atrioventricular block.

      Normal Variants in Athlete ECGs

      Athletes may exhibit certain ECG changes that are considered normal variants. These include sinus bradycardia, junctional rhythm, first degree heart block, and Mobitz type 1 (Wenckebach phenomenon). Sinus bradycardia refers to a slower than normal heart rate originating from the sinus node, which is the natural pacemaker of the heart. Junctional rhythm occurs when the heart’s electrical impulses originate from the junction between the atria and ventricles, rather than the sinus node. First degree heart block is a delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles, resulting in a prolonged PR interval on the ECG. Mobitz type 1, also known as Wenckebach phenomenon, is a type of heart block where there is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. These ECG changes are considered normal in athletes and do not necessarily indicate any underlying cardiac pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of dyspareunia, irregular menstrual cycles...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of dyspareunia, irregular menstrual cycles for the past 8 months, and missing 3 periods recently. She also reports experiencing sudden hot flashes for the last 4 months. The patient has a history of breast cancer and underwent chemotherapy and radiation. On examination, no abnormalities are found, and her pregnancy test is negative. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Premature ovarian failure

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old male presents for a routine check-up and his blood pressure is...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male presents for a routine check-up and his blood pressure is found to be 170/100 mmHg (and high blood pressure is confirmed during home blood pressure readings.) He is investigated for secondary causes, none are found, and a diagnosis of primary hypertension is made. His GP starts him on 5mg lisinopril. Two weeks later, his kidney function results show:
      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 200 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the improvement in his renal function?

      Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      Undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis can lead to significant renal impairment after starting an ACE inhibitor. This condition is commonly caused by atherosclerosis, but young females may also develop it due to fibromuscular dysplasia. As it often lacks symptoms, it can go unnoticed. While ACE inhibitors may cause a slight rise in serum creatinine, they usually only mildly affect renal function. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor renal function two weeks after initiating ramipril and other ACE inhibitors. Glomerulonephritis, which refers to inflammation of the glomeruli, has multiple causes and typically results in gradual renal function decline, not rapid worsening after ACE inhibitor initiation. Although renal calculi and renal artery thrombosis can cause acute kidney injury, the patient in this question lacks pain and thrombosis risk factors. Chronic, untreated hypertension can also affect renal function, but it progresses slowly over years, and the patient’s renal function was normal before starting ramipril.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      60.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman is found to have a shortened QT interval on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is found to have a shortened QT interval on her ECG. Which medication is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Flecainide

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Effects of Different Anti-Arrhythmic Drugs on QT Interval

      The QT interval is an important measure of cardiac repolarization, and abnormalities in this interval can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Different anti-arrhythmic drugs have varying effects on the QT interval.

      Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin and ouabain can shorten the QT interval, even at therapeutic doses. This is due to their ability to shorten the atrial and ventricular refractory periods.

      Class Ia drugs like disopyramide, class Ic drugs like flecainide, and class III drugs like amiodarone and sotalol all prolong the QT interval. Disopyramide can result in a long PR interval, while flecainide can cause a broad QRS or prolonged QT interval. Amiodarone is a class III drug that prolongs the QT interval, and sotalol causes dose-related prolongation of the QT interval.

      β-blockers like atenolol have a neutral effect on the QT interval in patients with a normal QT interval. However, they can act to stabilise the QT interval in patients with long QT syndrome.

      In summary, different anti-arrhythmic drugs have varying effects on the QT interval, and it is important to monitor this interval when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 53-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of left-sided arm and facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of left-sided arm and facial weakness that started while he was watching TV for 5 hours. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolemia. Upon examination, there is a significant motor weakness in his left arm with no effortful muscle contractions. Sensation to pain and light touch is reduced, and he has a left-sided facial droop. A CT scan of his head shows a hypodense lesion in the area of the right anterior cerebral artery. What is the recommended definitive treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Thrombolysis

      Correct Answer: Thrombectomy

      Explanation:

      The recommended target time for thrombectomy in acute ischaemic stroke is within 6 hours of symptom onset.

      Thrombectomy is the preferred treatment for this patient who has presented with symptoms of left-sided paralysis and paraesthesia, along with vascular risk factors and confirmatory CT imaging indicating an ischaemic stroke. While aspirin may be given initially, thrombectomy is the most definitive treatment option within the 6-hour timeframe. Clopidogrel is used for secondary prevention, and thrombolysis is only indicated within 4.5 hours of symptom onset, making them incorrect choices for this patient.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis comes in for evaluation. She reports experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis comes in for evaluation. She reports experiencing worsening issues with painful spasms in her leg muscles. What is the initial treatment option that should be considered?

      Your Answer: Baclofen

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatments for spasticity in multiple sclerosis are baclofen and gabapentin.

      Multiple sclerosis is a condition that cannot be cured, but its treatment aims to reduce the frequency and duration of relapses. In the case of an acute relapse, high-dose steroids may be administered for five days to shorten its length. However, it is important to note that steroids do not affect the degree of recovery. Disease-modifying drugs are used to reduce the risk of relapse in patients with MS. These drugs are typically indicated for patients with relapsing-remitting disease or secondary progressive disease who have had two relapses in the past two years and are able to walk a certain distance unaided. Natalizumab, ocrelizumab, fingolimod, beta-interferon, and glatiramer acetate are some of the drugs used to reduce the risk of relapse in MS.

      Fatigue is a common problem in MS patients, and amantadine is recommended by NICE after excluding other potential causes such as anaemia, thyroid problems, or depression. Mindfulness training and CBT are other options for managing fatigue. Spasticity is another issue that can be addressed with first-line drugs such as baclofen and gabapentin, as well as physiotherapy. Cannabis and botox are currently being evaluated for their effectiveness in managing spasticity. Bladder dysfunction is also a common problem in MS patients, and anticholinergics may worsen symptoms in some patients. Ultrasound is recommended to assess bladder emptying, and intermittent self-catheterisation may be necessary if there is significant residual volume. Gabapentin is the first-line treatment for oscillopsia, which is a condition where visual fields appear to oscillate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old female patient visits your clinic complaining of vaginal discharge. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits your clinic complaining of vaginal discharge. She reports a strong odour but no itching, dysuria, dyspareunia, or post-coital bleeding. During the examination, you observe a watery discharge with an odour, but no erythema on the labia. The cervix appears healthy, and there is no cervical excitation. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Explanation:

      To determine the cause of the watery vaginal discharge in this patient, further information about her sexual history would be necessary. However, based on the appearance of her cervix, a diagnosis of Gonorrhoea is unlikely. Gonorrhoea typically presents with a green and purulent discharge, and is not often associated with an odour. Similarly, Chlamydia would likely cause more problems with the cervix and a more mucopurulent discharge. Herpes simplex does not typically cause vaginal discharge, but instead presents with ulcers or tingling sensations around the vulva. Thrush, or candidiasis, would likely cause more itching and have a thicker, cottage cheese-like consistency. Bacterial vaginosis is the most likely diagnosis, as it often presents with a fishy odour and a thin, watery discharge that may be green or white. It can be asymptomatic and does not typically cause irritation or soreness. Diagnosis can be confirmed with a vaginal pH > 4.5 and the presence of clue cells on microscopy. These findings are in line with BASHH guidelines.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner complaining of a progressively...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner complaining of a progressively worsening erythematous rash on her nose, forehead, and cheeks accompanied by telangiectasia and papules for the past year. The rash is exacerbated by exposure to sunlight and consumption of hot and spicy foods. She has previously sought medical attention for this condition and has been treated with topical metronidazole, but her symptoms persist. She has no allergies and is otherwise healthy.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Oral erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Oral doxycycline

      Explanation:

      The patient has an erythematous rash on the nose, forehead, and cheeks with telangiectasia and papules, worsened by sun exposure and spicy food, suggesting a diagnosis of rosacea. The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cases is topical metronidazole, while severe or resistant cases require oral tetracycline. However, in this case, oral doxycycline should be given instead of metronidazole as it has been ineffective. Oral clarithromycin, erythromycin, and flucloxacillin are not appropriate treatments for rosacea.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman has given birth to her first child. During delivery, the...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman has given birth to her first child. During delivery, the midwife had to perform McRoberts manoeuvre due to shoulder dystocia, but there were no other complications. After the placenta was delivered, the midwife discovered a perineal tear that involved the external anal sphincter (EAS) but did not extend to the internal anal sphincter (IAS) or rectal mucosa. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Repair in theatre by a suitably trained clinician as it is a third degree tear

      Explanation:

      The patient has suffered a third degree perineal tear that has extended beyond the perineal mucosa and muscle, involving the EAS but not the rectal mucosa. Therefore, it is classified as a third degree tear. The appropriate course of action is to repair the tear in theatre by a clinician who is suitably trained. Repairing the tear on the ward by a midwife is not an option as it is a third degree tear. Similarly, repairing it in theatre by a clinician trained for fourth degree tears is not necessary. It is important to note that first degree tears do not require repair, but in this case, as it is a third degree tear, not repairing it would not be appropriate as it may not heal properly.

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is the least commonly associated with cocaine toxicity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least commonly associated with cocaine toxicity?

      Your Answer: Psychosis

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cocaine Toxicity

      Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.

      Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.

      Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.

      In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - As a foundation year two doctor on the surgical admissions unit, you encounter...

    Correct

    • As a foundation year two doctor on the surgical admissions unit, you encounter a thirty-year-old patient complaining of right upper abdominal pain and anorexia. Upon examination, you find an overweight Caucasian female with a soft abdomen that is tender in the right upper quadrant. Her observations indicate fever and mild tachycardia. Blood tests reveal a significantly elevated bilirubin level (87 umol/L). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain is known as Charcot’s cholangitis triad, which indicates an infection of the bile ducts. This patient is likely suffering from ascending cholangitis. Cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gallbladder, can also cause right upper quadrant pain and may precede ascending cholangitis. While gallstones are a common cause of cholangitis, they can be asymptomatic and are not a diagnosis on their own. Pregnancy is not a likely cause of right upper quadrant pain. Gilbert’s syndrome typically causes mild jaundice only during times of stress and is usually asymptomatic.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old overweight man visits the clinic with concerns about abdominal discomfort he...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old overweight man visits the clinic with concerns about abdominal discomfort he experienced over the weekend. He reports that the discomfort began in his upper abdomen shortly after eating a large pizza on Friday night. The discomfort then shifted to the left side of his abdomen. He also vomited a few times. Most of the symptoms subsided within 24 hours. During the examination, he is still slightly tender in the left upper quadrant and has no fever or jaundice.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Correct Answer: Biliary colic

      Explanation:

      Biliary colic is a common symptom of gallstones, occurring in 1-4% of patients with choledocholithiasis. The pain is intense and dull, usually resolving within 30-90 minutes, and often occurs after consuming fatty meals. This matches the patient’s symptoms and risk factors. If left untreated, biliary colic can progress to acute cholecystitis, which presents with upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. However, since the patient’s symptoms resolved within 24 hours, acute cholecystitis is unlikely. Acute viral hepatitis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as the patient has no known exposure to the viruses and her symptoms resolved too quickly. Acute pancreatitis presents with severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever, which does not match the patient’s symptoms. Ascending cholangitis is also unlikely, as the patient is afebrile and not jaundiced, and her symptoms resolved within 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 4-year-old child is presented for surgery due to the mother's observation of...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child is presented for surgery due to the mother's observation of 'cross-eyed' appearance. The corneal light reflection test confirms the diagnosis. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to paediatric physiotherapy for eye movement exercises

      Correct Answer: Refer to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to refer children who have a squint to ophthalmology for further evaluation.

      Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.

      To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.

      If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50 year old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cramp-like...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cramp-like abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting that started 4 hours ago. She describes the pain as intermittent and has experienced similar pain before, but not as severe as this time. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which is well-controlled with inhalers, and has been a smoker for 25 pack years.

      Her vital signs are heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 20/min, blood pressure 130/84 mmHg, temperature 38.6ºC, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Upon examination, the patient appears very ill and sweaty, with some yellowing of the eyes. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness in the right upper quadrant.

      What is the most likely cause of this woman's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Cholangitis can occur even in the absence of stones, although they are commonly associated with the condition. ERCP can be used to drain the biliary tree, but surgical exploration of the common bile duct may be necessary in certain cases.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      58.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She reports that her daughter has been complaining of abdominal pain and has had loose stools for the past three weeks. Her weight was previously on the 75th centile but has now dropped to the 50th centile. She appears fatigued, pale and has a bloated abdomen.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Blood tests for immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTG) and total IgA

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. There are several diagnostic tests that can be performed to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease.

      Initial Blood Tests
      The initial blood tests for coeliac disease are immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTG) and total IgA. Total IgA is tested because IgA deficiency is associated with coeliac disease and can cause a false-negative tTG-IgA. It is important for patients to be eating a diet containing gluten when they have the blood test to avoid a false-negative result.

      Endoscopy and Duodenal Biopsy
      An endoscopy with a duodenal biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis in secondary care. However, guidelines state that children may be diagnosed without a biopsy if they have tTG-IgA levels over ten times the upper limit of normal and positive endomysial antibodies (EMA-IgA) in a second blood test.

      HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 Blood Tests
      HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 are associated with coeliac disease. This blood test may be performed in secondary care but is not an initial investigation.

      C13 Urea Breath Test
      The C13 urea breath test is used in the diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori and has no role in the diagnosis of coeliac disease.

      In conclusion, a combination of blood tests and endoscopy with a duodenal biopsy may be required to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease. It is important for patients to continue eating a gluten-containing diet before undergoing diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication to using combined oral...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication to using combined oral contraceptive pills for women?

      Your Answer: Breast feeding a 10-week-old baby

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding is classified as UKMEC category 4 if done for less than 6 weeks after giving birth, but it is categorized as UKMEC category 2 if done after this period.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      21.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (3/3) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/3) 33%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (3/4) 75%
Cardiovascular (2/3) 67%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/2) 50%
ENT (0/1) 0%
Reproductive Medicine (4/4) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Passmed