00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man with diabetes comes to the clinic for his annual review....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with diabetes comes to the clinic for his annual review. He has had diabetes for eight years and he is also being treated for hypertension. He is on the following medications: metformin 500 mg tds, gliclazide 80 mg daily, atorvastatin 10 mg/d, Ramipril 10 mg/d and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg/d. He is noted to be obese (130kg). Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. Investigations reveal: HbA1c 8.1% (3.8-6.4), Fasting glucose 9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), 24hr Urine free cortisol 354 mmol/d (<250), 9am Plasma ACTH 4 ng/dL (10-50). CT abdomen 3cm right adrenal mass. Which of the following is most likely to be the adrenal mass?

      Your Answer: Cortisol secreting adenoma

      Explanation:

      The patient has Cushing syndrome suggested by the elevated 24hr urine free cortisol. Hence, the mass is most probably a cortisol secreting adenoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      65
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25 year old female presented with blisters on the tongue. Some of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female presented with blisters on the tongue. Some of them secreted pinkish fluid while some were crusted. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: HSV1

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of acute gingivostomatitis, which is a manifestation of primary HSV-1 infection. Patients present with gingivitis and vesicular lesions which develop on the oral mucosa, tongue, and lips and later rupture and coalesce, leaving ulcerated plaques.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55 year old man experiences sudden loss of vision preceded by the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old man experiences sudden loss of vision preceded by the perception of something he describes as jagged lines or 'heat waves'. He's known to be myopic. What is the best treatment?

      Your Answer: Peripheral iridectomy

      Correct Answer: Scleral buckling

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture is characteristic of retinal detachment, which should be treated immediately to prevent permanent loss of vision. Scleral buckling is a surgical procedure used to repair a retinal detachment, where the surgeon attaches a piece of silicone or a sponge onto the white of the eye at the spot of a retinal tear pushing the sclera toward the retinal tear or break, promoting repair. Signs of detachment include an increase in the number of eye floaters, flashes of light in the field of vision, and reduced peripheral vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high arched palate arrives at the hospital with a spontaneous pneumothorax. He is accompanied by his brother who has a similar appearance. You suspect Marfan's Syndrome. The gene encoding which of the following proteins is defective in this condition?

      Your Answer: Collagen

      Correct Answer: Fibrillin-1

      Explanation:

      A variety of proteins compose the structure of microfibrils, the most prominent of which are the two fibrillins. Fibrillin-1 a scaffolding protein is encoded by FBN1 on human chromosome 15q21 and fibrillin-2 is encoded by FBN2 on 5q23. Mutations in FBN1 produce Marfan syndrome, a pleiotropic autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder with prominent manifestations in the skeleton, eye and cardiovascular system. A number of conditions related to Marfan syndrome are also due to FBN1 mutations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which among the following antihypertensives is centrally acting? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following antihypertensives is centrally acting?

      Your Answer: Hydralazine

      Correct Answer: Moxonidine

      Explanation:

      Moxonidine and alpha-methyl dopa are centrally acting antihypertensives and modify blood pressure through modifying sympathetic activity.

      Other options:
      Verapamil is a calcium antagonist.
      Minoxidil and hydralazine are both vasodilators.
      Phenoxybenzamine is an alpha-blocker.

      Adverse effects:
      Dry mouth and somnolence were the most frequently reported adverse events, followed by headache, dizziness, nausea and allergic skin reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the site of action of antidiuretic hormone? ...

    Correct

    • What is the site of action of antidiuretic hormone?

      Your Answer: Collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      Vasopressin, also called antidiuretic hormone (ADH), regulates the tonicity of body fluids. It is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys by the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.. An incidental consequence of this renal reabsorption of water is concentrated urine and reduced urine volume. In high concentrations may also raise blood pressure by inducing moderate vasoconstriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine? ...

    Correct

    • Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine?

      Your Answer: Dilation of systemic veins

      Explanation:

      Dilation of systemic veins is a beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine.

      Administration of nitro-glycerine results in the dilation of systemic veins and decrease of myocardial wall tension and oxygen demand. Dilatation of systemic veins can cause reduced systemic vascular resistance leading to reduced cardiac workload thus reducing anginal symptoms secondary to demand ischemia.

      This is accompanied by vasodilation of large and medium-sized coronary arteries with increased coronary blood flow to the sub endocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man known to have renal cell carcinoma, is currently undergoing treatment....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man known to have renal cell carcinoma, is currently undergoing treatment. He presents to the acute medical ward with one month history of worsening central lower back pain, which becomes worse at night and cannot be managed with an analgesia at home. He has no other new symptoms. Out of the following, which investigation should be performed next?

      Your Answer: MRI whole spine

      Explanation:

      An MRI whole spine should be performed in a patient suspected of spinal metastasis which can occur before developing metastatic spinal cord compression. This patient has renal cell carcinoma, which readily metastasises to the bones and also has progressive back pain. He, therefore, needs urgent imaging of his spine before any neurological compromise develops. MRI whole spine is preferable because patients with spinal metastasis often have metastases at multiple levels within the spine. Plain radiographs and CT scans should not be performed as they have a lower sensitivity for revealing lesions and cannot exclude cord compression.

      In general, imaging should be performed within one week if symptoms suspicious of spinal metastasis without neurological symptoms are present. If there are symptoms suggestive of malignant spinal cord compression, then imaging should be done within 24 hours.

      The signs and symptoms of spinal metastases include:
      1. Unrelenting lumbar back pain
      2. Thoracic or cervical back pain
      3. Pain associated with tenderness and worsens with sneezing, coughing, or straining
      4. Nocturnal pain

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 80 year old woman is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia....

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old woman is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. There is consolidation and a moderate sized pleural effusion on the same side. An ultrasound guided pleural fluid aspiration is performed. The appearance of the fluid is clear and is sent off for culture. Whilst awaiting the culture results, which one of the following is the most important factor when determining whether a chest tube should be placed?

      Your Answer: LDH of the pleural fluid

      Correct Answer: pH of the pleural fluid

      Explanation:

      In adult practice, biochemical analysis of pleural fluid plays an important part in the management of pleural effusions. Protein levels or Light’s criteria differentiate exudates from transudates, while infection is indicated by pleural acidosis associated with raised LDH and low glucose levels. In terms of treatment, the pH may even guide the need for tube drainage, suggested by pH <7.2 in an infected effusion, although the absolute protein values are of no value in determining the likelihood of spontaneous resolution or chest drain requirements. pH is therefore the most important factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Choose the correct definition regarding the standard error of the mean: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct definition regarding the standard error of the mean:

      Your Answer: Standard deviation / square root (mean)

      Correct Answer: Standard deviation / square root (number of patients)

      Explanation:

      The SEM is an indicator of how close the sample mean is to the population mean. In reality, however, only one sample is extracted from the population. Therefore, the SEM is estimated using the standard deviation (SD) and a sample size (Estimated SEM). The SEM computed by a statistical program is an estimated value calculated via this process.

      Estimated Standard Error of the Mean (SEM)=SDn√

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the oncologist clinic for further investigations. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the oncologist clinic for further investigations. She has experienced fever, sometimes glandular and night sweats. Clinical examination reveals lymphadenopathy and a biopsy is performed. The biopsy reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, confirming what was suspected to be a Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which cell surface marker is associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: CD16

      Correct Answer: CD15

      Explanation:

      The CD15 antigen, also known as Lewis (hapten)X, serves as an immuno-phenotypic marker for Reed-Sternberg cells and its expression has diagnostic, but also prognostic significance in Hodgkin Lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary amenorrhea. Which of the following hormones is most important for long term replacement?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most probably has Turner’s syndrome, which is caused by the absence of one set of genes from the short arm of one X chromosome.
      Turner syndrome is a lifelong condition and needs lifelong oestrogen replacement therapy. Oestrogen is usually started at age 12-15 years. Treatment can be started with continuous low-dose oestrogens. These can be cycled in a 3-weeks on, 1-week off regimen after 6-18 months; progestin can be added later.

      In childhood, growth hormone therapy is standard to prevent short stature as an adult.

      Fetal ovarian development seems to be normal in Turner syndrome, with degeneration occurring in most cases around the time of birth so pulsatile GnRH and luteinising hormone would be of no use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which one of the following is most associated with the development of acute...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is most associated with the development of acute pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Hypercholesterolaemia

      Correct Answer: Hyperchylomicronaemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperchylomicronaemia is an increase (markedly) in chylomicrons, and this can cause acute pancreatitis, as well as xanthomas. It can be seen in familial lipoprotein lipase (LPL) deficiency, primary type V hyperlipoproteinemia, idiopathic hyperchylomicronaemia, and familial apolipoprotein CII deficiency. Treatment is dietary fat restriction in order to avoid pancreatitis attacks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 66-year-old man with newly-diagnosed small cell carcinoma discusses his further treatment options...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old man with newly-diagnosed small cell carcinoma discusses his further treatment options with the team of doctors. Which statement is incorrect about small cell carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Patients with small cell lung cancer always benefit from surgery

      Explanation:

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) is characterized by rapid growth and early dissemination. Prompt initiation of treatment is important.

      Patients with clinical stage Ia (T1N0) after standard staging evaluation may be considered for surgical resection, but combined treatment with chemotherapy and radiation therapy is the standard of care. Radiation therapy is often added at the second cycle of chemotherapy.

      Historically, patients undergoing surgery for small cell lung cancer (SCLC) had a dismal prognosis. However, more recent data suggest that patients with true stage I SCLC may benefit from surgical resection.

      Common sites of hematogenous metastases include the brain, bones, liver, adrenal glands, and bone marrow. The symptoms depend upon the site of spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period?

      Your Answer: Rubella: 7 - 10 days

      Correct Answer: Mumps: 14 - 18 days

      Explanation:

      The incubation periods of disorders is extremely important to diagnose, treat, prevent or attenuate a disease.

      • Chickenpox: 7-21 days.
      • Whooping cough: 10-14 days.
      • Hand, foot and mouth disease: 2-6 days.
      • German measles: 14-21 days.
      • Mumps: 14-18 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed puberty. While examining the patient which of the following features is most likely to indicate that pubertal change may have commenced?

      Your Answer: Growth of pubic hair

      Correct Answer: Increase in testicular volume

      Explanation:

      In boys, the first manifestation of puberty is testicular enlargement; the normal age for initial signs of puberty is 9 to 14 years in males. Pubic hair in boys generally appears 18 to 24 months after the onset of testicular growth and is often conceived as the initial marker of sexual maturation by male adolescents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following gives the annual incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following gives the annual incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the general population?

      Your Answer: about 0.1 per 1000

      Correct Answer: about 2 per 1000

      Explanation:

      Annual incidence of DVT in the general population is about 1 per 1000 adults. So the most suitable answer is about 2 per 1000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patient shows reduced central vision upon visual acuity test. He is advised...

    Incorrect

    • A patient shows reduced central vision upon visual acuity test. He is advised to undergo a fundoscopy, which turns out to be normal. Which drug could be responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Corticosteroids are well known for their ocular complications such as glaucoma and cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her finger joints which occurs mostly at the end of the day which gets better with rest. There is also some associated swelling. On examination, there is enlargement of her distal interphalangeal joints and tenderness to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a disabling joint disease characterized by a noninflammatory degeneration of the joint complex (articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium) that occurs with old age or from overuse. It mainly affects the weight-bearing and high-use joints, such as the hip, knee, hands, and vertebrae. Despite the widespread view that OA is a condition caused exclusively by degenerative “wear and tear” of the joints, newer research indicates a significant heterogeneity of causation, including pre-existing peculiarities of joint anatomy, genetics, local inflammation, mechanical forces, and biochemical processes that are affected by proinflammatory mediators and proteases. Major risk factors include advanced age, obesity, previous injuries, and asymmetrically stressed joints. In early-stage osteoarthritis, patients may complain of reduced range of motion, joint-stiffness, and pain that is aggravated with heavy use. As the disease advances, nagging pain may also occur during the night or at rest. Diagnosis is predominantly based on clinical and radiological findings. Classic radiographic features of OA do not necessarily correlate with clinical symptoms and appearance. RA involves proximal interphalangeal joints not distal. Gout occurs as a result of overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid and frequently involves first toe. Fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 19-year-old woman is diagnosed with acute purulent meningitis after returning from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman is diagnosed with acute purulent meningitis after returning from a recent holiday abroad. Which of the following investigations is the least relevant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PCR of CSF for Mycobacterium TB

      Explanation:

      Amoebic, bacterial and fungal meningitis may present acutely but is not common in tuberculous meningitis. Amoebic meningitis is caused by Naegleria fowleri as a result of swimming in infected freshwater. The organism may be found in fresh CSF specimens with phase contrast microscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Where is secretin secreted from? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is secretin secreted from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S cells in upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      Secretin is a peptide hormone produced in the S cells of the duodenum, which are located in the intestinal glands. In humans, the secretin peptide is encoded by the SCT gene.
      Secretin helps regulate the pH of the duodenum by
      1) inhibiting the secretion of gastric acid from the parietal cells of the stomach and
      (2) stimulating the production of bicarbonate from the ductal cells of the pancreas.
      G cells in the antrum of the stomach release gastrin
      I cells in upper small intestine release CCK
      D cells in the pancreas & stomach secrete somatostatin
      K cells secrete gastric inhibitory peptide, an incretin, which also promotes triglyceride storage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He also gives history of dysuria, fever and conjunctivitis. Examination reveals macules and pustules on his hands. He has returned from a trip to Far East 3 weeks ago and admits to having unprotected sex. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. Other STDs including HIV, syphilis have different presentations. Psoriatic arthritis is not commonly associated with urethritis and conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 48-year-old ex-footballer with a long history of alcohol abuse, presents with epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old ex-footballer with a long history of alcohol abuse, presents with epigastric pain. Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of peptic ulceration rather than chronic pancreatitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Relieved by food

      Explanation:

      Relief of symptoms with food suggests duodenal ulceration, for which the pain gets worse on an empty stomach. In chronic pancreatitis, you would expect worsening of symptoms with food.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is not a known cause of occupational asthma? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a known cause of occupational asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cadmium

      Explanation:

      Occupational asthma (OA) could be divided into a nonimmunological, irritant-induced asthma and an immunological, allergy-induced asthma. In addition, allergy-induced asthma can be caused by two different groups of agents: high molecular weight proteins (>5,000 Da) or low molecular weight agents (<5,000 Da), generally chemicals like the isocyanates.
      Isocyanates are very reactive chemicals characterized by one or more isocyanate groups (–N=C=O). The main reactions of this chemical group are addition reactions with ethanol, resulting in urethanes, with amines (resulting in urea derivates) and with water. Here, the product is carbamic acid which is not stable and reacts further to amines, releasing free carbon dioxide.

      Diisocyanates and polyisocyanates are, together with the largely nontoxic polyol group, the basic building blocks of the polyurethane (PU) chemical industry, where they are used solely or in combination with solvents or additives in the production of adhesives, foams, elastomers, paintings, coatings and other materials.

      The complex salts of platinum are one of the most potent respiratory sensitising agents having caused occupational asthma in more than 50% of exposed workers. Substitution of ammonium hexachlor platinate with platinum tetra amine dichloride in the manufacture of catalyst has controlled the problem in the catalyst industry. Ammonium hexachlorplatinate exposure still occurs in the refining process.

      Rosin based solder flux fume is produced when soldering. This fume is a top cause of occupational asthma.

      Bakeries, flour mills and kitchens where flour dust and additives in the flour are a common cause of occupational asthma.

      Cadmium was not found to cause occupational asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is mostly associated with thymomas? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is mostly associated with thymomas?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red cell aplasia

      Explanation:

      Red cell aplasia is commonly associated with thymomas.

      Thymoma is the most common tumour of the anterior mediastinum and is usually detected between the sixth and seventh decades of life. It is associated with myasthenia gravis (30–40% of patients), red cell aplasia, and dermatomyositis. Compression of airway and cardiac tamponade are the common causes of death in thymoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old patient that has just returned from India, complains of dyspnoea. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient that has just returned from India, complains of dyspnoea. On examination, you notice grey membranes on the uvula and tonsils and a low-grade fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      Characteristic findings on patients suffering from diphtheria are the grey membrane on the uvula and tonsils together with the low grade fever and dyspnoea. It’s of great importance that the patient has recently been to India where there is a know prevalence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old man with known ulcerative colitis and diverticular disease comes to clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with known ulcerative colitis and diverticular disease comes to clinic complaining of passing faeces per urethra. Cystoscopy confirms a fistula between his bladder and bowel. Which treatment is most likely to be effective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: surgery

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for a colovesicular fistula is surgery. This is the only definitive treatment. If the patient is a poor surgical candidate, there can be an attempt to manage them non-operatively, but this is absolutely NOT the MOST EFFECTIVE therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is a feature of haemoglobin S? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a feature of haemoglobin S?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is the result of a point mutation

      Explanation:

      Hb S is the most common type of abnormal haemoglobin and the basis of sickle cell trait and sickle cell anaemia. It differs from normal adult haemoglobin (called haemoglobin A—Hb A) only by a single amino acid substitution due to point mutation—a valine replacing a glutamine in the sixth position of the beta chain of globin. Hb S molecules polymerize in hypoxic and acidic environments, imparting a sickle shape to the RBCs. Hb S molecules are less negatively charged than Hb A (due to the loss of glutamine) and have a lower affinity for oxygen (right shift of the oxygen-dissociation curve).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 40 yr. old female presented with palmar xanthomas and tuberoeruptive xanthomas on...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 yr. old female presented with palmar xanthomas and tuberoeruptive xanthomas on her elbows and knees. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type III hyperlipoproteinaemia

      Explanation:

      Palmar xanthomas and tuberoeruptive xanthomas are found in type III hyperlipoproteinemia (dysbetalipoproteinemia,broad-beta disease, remnant removal disease)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman with type-1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with type-1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and says she is keen on becoming pregnant. Which of the following is most likely to make you ask her to defer pregnancy at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hb A1C 9.4%

      Explanation:

      Pregnancies affected by T1DM are at increased risk for preterm delivery, preeclampsia, macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, intrauterine fetal demise, fetal growth restriction, cardiac and renal malformations, in addition to rare neural conditions such as sacral agenesis.
      Successful management of pregnancy in a T1DM patient begins before conception. Research indicates that the implementation of preconception counselling, emphasizing strict glycaemic control before and throughout pregnancy, reduces the rate of perinatal mortality and malformations.
      The 2008 bulletin from the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence recommends that preconception counselling be offered to all patients with diabetes. Physicians are advised to guide patients on achieving personalized glycaemic control goals, increasing the frequency of glucose monitoring, reducing their HbA1C levels, and recommend avoiding pregnancy if the said level is > 10%.
      Other sources suggest deferring pregnancy until HbA1C levels are > 8%, as this margin is associated with better outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Infectious Diseases (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/2) 0%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Clinical Sciences (1/3) 33%
Haematology & Oncology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed