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  • Question 1 - A 7-year-old boy has developed involuntary movements of his arms and face over...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy has developed involuntary movements of his arms and face over the last few days. Some of these he converts into apparently purposeful movement by pushing back his hair or scratching his nose. There is reduced tone in the limbs, and he is unsteady. He seems unconcerned and intermittently giggles. His mother tells you that he had a sore throat four weeks previously.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Huntington’s chorea

      Correct Answer: Sydenham’s chorea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sydenham’s Chorea: A Common Cause of Acute Chorea Worldwide

      Sydenham’s chorea, also known as St Vitus’ dance, is a neurological manifestation of rheumatic fever and remains the most common cause of acute chorea worldwide. While it was commonly seen in the 1930s, it occurs less frequently in the UK today. This condition can occur with or without symptoms of rheumatic fever and is usually self-limiting. Improvement occurs over about two weeks, but total recovery can take up to nine months, and may recur in some patients.

      In this scenario, the short time course of the chorea and the girl’s age are useful diagnostically. It is important to note that psychological changes may precede or accompany the choreiform movements, as demonstrated by the girl’s emotional lability.

      It is important to consider other potential causes of chorea, such as cerebral tumour, cerebrovascular accident, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and Huntington’s chorea. However, in this case, these conditions are unlikely as they do not fit with the girl’s symptoms and age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      1587.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - One option needs to be selected from the following tumour types that are...

    Correct

    • One option needs to be selected from the following tumour types that are NOT hormone responsive.

      Your Answer: Renal cell

      Explanation:

      Hormonal Therapy for Metastatic Cancer: A Review of Treatment Options

      Hormonal therapy has been used in the treatment of various types of metastatic cancer, but its effectiveness varies depending on the cancer type. In renal cell cancer, hormonal therapy has not shown promising results. However, medroxyprogesterone acetate may be used to treat cancer-related anorexia or loss of appetite.

      For metastatic/locally advanced carcinoma of the prostate, testosterone ablation with orchidectomy or anti-androgens can produce a clinical remission in the majority of cases.

      In breast cancer, anti-oestrogen therapy with tamoxifen can be effective for oestrogen-receptor positive tumours, which make up 60% of breast tumours.

      In metastatic endometrial cancer, progestogens may be effective in 30% of cases.

      For high-risk thyroid cancer, thyroxine can be used to suppress thyroid-stimulating hormone.

      Overall, hormonal therapy can be a useful treatment option for certain types of metastatic cancer, but it is important to consider the specific cancer type and individual patient factors when determining the most appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      291.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As part of a tutorial on pruritus, you plan to use cases from...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a tutorial on pruritus, you plan to use cases from both yourself and GP registrars who frequently prescribe antihistamines for itchy conditions. Your goal is to determine the scenario in which a non-sedating antihistamine would be most effective. Please select the ONE option that best fits this scenario.

      Your Answer: A 5-year-old boy with atopic eczema

      Correct Answer: A 15-year-old girl with acute urticaria

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines: Uses and Limitations in Various Skin Conditions

      Urticaria, Chickenpox, atopic eczema, local reactions to insect stings, and general pruritus are common skin conditions that may benefit from antihistamines. However, the effectiveness of antihistamines varies depending on the underlying cause and the individual’s response.

      For a 15-year-old girl with acute urticaria, non-sedating H1 antihistamines are the first-line treatment. If the first antihistamine is not effective, a second one may be tried.

      A 4-year-old girl with Chickenpox may benefit from emollients and sedating antihistamines to relieve pruritus. Calamine lotion may also be used, but its effectiveness decreases as it dries.

      Antihistamines are not routinely recommended for atopic eczema, but a non-sedating antihistamine may be tried for a month in severe cases or when there is severe itching or urticaria. Sedating antihistamines may be used for sleep disturbance.

      For a 50-year-old woman with a local reaction to a wasp sting, antihistamines are most effective when used immediately after the sting. After 48 hours, they are unlikely to have a significant impact on the local reaction.

      Finally, for a 65-year-old man with general pruritus but no rash, antihistamines may be prescribed, but their effectiveness is limited as histamine may not be the main cause of the pruritus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      190.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Among the given options, what is considered as the primary risk factor for...

    Correct

    • Among the given options, what is considered as the primary risk factor for the onset of depression? Please choose only one.

      Your Answer: Chronic physical illness

      Explanation:

      Factors that Influence the Risk of Depression

      Depression is a complex illness with various factors that can influence its development. These factors include genetic, biochemical, endocrine, neurophysiological, psychological, and social processes. Physical illnesses, especially chronic ones, can increase the risk of depression, which has led to the emphasis on physical and endocrine theories of causation. Neuroimaging has also reinforced the idea of depression as a disorder of brain structure and function, while psychological findings highlight the importance of cognitive and emotional processes. Intrauterine infections, particularly viral infections, have been linked to an increased risk of schizophrenia. On the other hand, high self-esteem is likely to be protective against depression. Women are more likely to experience depressive disorders than men, and not having a confiding relationship with another person is a risk factor. Therefore, marriage is often considered protective against depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      202.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman is interested in beginning the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is interested in beginning the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) but is concerned about the potential risk of breast cancer due to her maternal grandmother's diagnosis in her 60s. What UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) should be considered for her?

      Your Answer: UKMEC 1

      Explanation:

      A family history doesn’t pose any contraindications for COCP use and is classified as UKMEC 1. However, being a known BRCA1/2 gene carrier is classified as UKMEC 3 for COCP use. If a person has a current breast cancer diagnosis, it is classified as UKMEC 4. If the breast cancer diagnosis was more than 5 years ago, it is classified as UKMEC 3.

      Contraindications for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential cautions and contraindications on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 represents a condition for which there is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method, while UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, immobility, and a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension.

      In 2016, the UKMEC was updated to reflect that breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum is now classified as UKMEC 2 instead of UKMEC 3. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. It is important for healthcare providers to consider these contraindications when deciding whether to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      138.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of repeated episodes of collapsing....

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of repeated episodes of collapsing. She reports that these episodes happen suddenly while she is playing sports. The patient has no significant medical history or family history. During the physical examination, an ejection systolic murmur is detected. Her blood pressure is 106/70 mmHg, and her pulse is 78 beats per minute. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is a more frequent cause of sudden death or unexpected collapse in young individuals compared to aortic stenosis.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, nonspecific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      66.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty with balance and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty with balance and stiffness in his lower limbs. He has a history of carpal tunnel syndrome that was diagnosed a year ago, but has not responded to treatment with splints and steroid injections. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parkinsons disease

      Correct Answer: Degenerative cervical myelopathy

      Explanation:

      DCM can have subtle early symptoms that vary day to day, but worsening or new symptoms should be a warning sign. Other conditions with different symptoms include cauda equina syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, idiopathic Parkinson’s disease, and multiple sclerosis.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5290.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Isabella is a 26-year-old woman who is seeking a termination of pregnancy at...

    Incorrect

    • Isabella is a 26-year-old woman who is seeking a termination of pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation. As a first-time pregnant individual, she is worried about the potential impact of a surgical abortion on her future fertility. What advice should be given to address her concerns?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy

      Correct Answer: No evidence of impact on future fertility

      Explanation:

      The patient should be informed that their future fertility is not impacted by the abortion and there is no association with placenta praevia, ectopic pregnancy, stillborn or miscarriage. However, they should also be made aware of the potential complications that may arise from the procedure. These include severe bleeding, uterine perforation (surgical abortion only), and cervical trauma (surgical abortion only). The risks of these complications are lower for early abortions and those performed by experienced clinicians. In the event that one of these complications occurs, further treatment such as blood transfusion, laparoscopy or laparotomy may be required. Additionally, infection may occur after medical or surgical abortion, but this risk can be reduced through prophylactic antibiotic use and bacterial screening for lower genital tract infection.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, although in emergencies, only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise. The method used to terminate pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone followed by prostaglandins is used, while surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents are used for pregnancies less than 13 weeks. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion is used. The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the conditions under which a person shall not be guilty of an offense under the law relating to abortion. These limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      147.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 56-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of post-coital bleeding. She has...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of post-coital bleeding. She has been in menopause for two years. Upon conducting a full pelvic examination, you find everything to be normal, including the cervix. She has been experiencing these symptoms for the past eight weeks. The patient has a history of breast cancer and is currently taking tamoxifen. What would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer her urgently for a specialist opinion

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Needed for postmenopausal Bleeding and Tamoxifen Use

      You need to urgently refer the patient for a specialist opinion as she is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding and is taking tamoxifen, which increases the risk of endometrial cancer. It is important to note that waiting for the results of a cervical smear test or considering hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is not appropriate in this situation.

      This question is testing your understanding of important alarm symptoms, such as postmenopausal bleeding, and the associated risk factors, such as tamoxifen use. It also assesses your knowledge of referral guidelines and the urgency of seeking specialist opinion in such cases. Remember to always prioritize patient safety and seek appropriate medical advice when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      128.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman presented with persistent dyspepsia and was referred for a gastroscopy....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presented with persistent dyspepsia and was referred for a gastroscopy. The test confirmed a duodenal ulcer and a positive urease test. After completing the H. pylori eradication regimen of lansoprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for seven days, she returned to her GP with ongoing epigastric pain. What is the most appropriate way to determine the successful eradication of H. pylori?

      Your Answer: Endoscopy and CLO test

      Correct Answer: [13C] urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Non-Invasive Tests for Confirming Eradication of H. pylori Infection

      After completing eradication therapy for H. pylori infection, routine retesting is not recommended unless there are persistent symptoms. In such cases, the [13C] urea breath test is a sensitive and non-invasive option for detecting the presence of H. pylori bacteria. This test involves administering a drink containing urea labelled with an uncommon isotope and detecting the presence of isotope-labelled carbon dioxide in exhaled breath after 30 minutes. Faecal antigen testing can also be used as a second-line option if the urea breath test is not available. Blood serology testing is not recommended as it remains positive for several months after successful eradication. Endoscopy and histology or CLO test are invasive and costly options that are not justified when accurate non-invasive tests are available. Testing should occur at least four weeks after stopping antibiotics and two weeks after stopping proton pump inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      121.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man has just been released from the hospital following a heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has just been released from the hospital following a heart attack. He has a history of depression and is currently experiencing low mood. What is the antidepressant with the most safety evidence for patients with recent unstable angina or myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Sertraline as the Treatment of Choice for CHD Patients

      NICE guidance recommends sertraline as the treatment of choice for patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) due to its safety and efficacy. Sertraline has been found to be cost-effective in a study conducted by O’Connor and colleagues in a hospitalised population with acute coronary syndrome. Although limited to one study, this evidence supports the use of sertraline in this population. Additionally, the SPS recommends sertraline as the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) of choice for CHD patients due to its lower propensity for interactions and the availability of more data on its use in a population with pre-existing heart disease compared to other SSRIs. Overall, sertraline is a safe and effective treatment option for CHD patients with depression or anxiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      324.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old patient who has been under your care for four years contacts...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old patient who has been under your care for four years contacts you over the phone, requesting antibiotics for a suspected UTI. She complains of dysuria and frequency for the past two days and had a confirmed UTI with the same symptoms last year. As per GMC guidelines, what would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: If the patient cannot be persuaded to come in then antibiotics can be prescribed

      Correct Answer: Antibiotics can be prescribed, with normal safeguards and advice

      Explanation:

      GMC Guidelines for Prescribing and Managing Medicines and Devices

      Prescribing and managing medicines and devices is a crucial aspect of a doctor’s role. The General Medical Council (GMC) has published guidelines for good practice in prescribing medicines, which were last updated in 2008. The principles of prescribing include only prescribing drugs to meet the identified needs of patients and avoiding treating oneself or those close to them. Doctors with full registration may prescribe all medicines except those in Schedule 1 of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001.

      To ensure that doctors prescribe in patients’ best interests, the guidelines recommend keeping up to date with the British National Formulary (BNF), National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), and Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN). Doctors should also report adverse reactions to medicines to the Committee on the Safety of Medicines through the Yellow Card Scheme. If a nurse or other healthcare professional without prescribing rights recommends a treatment, the doctor must ensure that the prescription is appropriate for the patient and that the professional is competent to have recommended it.

      The guidelines also address doctors’ interests in pharmacies, emphasizing the importance of ensuring that patients have access to information about any financial or commercial interests the doctor or their employer may have in a pharmacy. When it comes to prescribing controlled drugs for oneself or someone close, doctors should avoid doing so whenever possible and should be registered with a GP outside their family. If no other person with the legal right to prescribe is available, doctors may prescribe a controlled drug only if it is immediately necessary to save a life, avoid serious deterioration in the patient’s health, or alleviate otherwise uncontrollable pain.

      Finally, the guidelines provide recommendations for remote prescribing via telephone, email, fax, video link, or a website. While this is supported, doctors must give an explanation of the processes involved in remote consultations and provide their name and GMC number to the patient if they are not providing continuing care. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that they prescribe and manage medicines and devices in the best interests of their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      154.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A breastfeeding mother who is 4 weeks postpartum presents with right sided nipple...

    Incorrect

    • A breastfeeding mother who is 4 weeks postpartum presents with right sided nipple pain. She describes sharp pain during feeds which eases afterwards. She has been seeing her health visitor for baby weighing and he is growing along the 75th centile, but she has not had an observed feed. She doesn't have any concerns about the baby. On examination you notice some fissuring on the right nipple inferiorly but otherwise examination is normal. She is afebrile.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nipple vasospasm (Raynaud's disease of the nipple)

      Correct Answer: Nipple damage from inefficient infant attachment (‘latch’)

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding mothers may experience nipple damage due to poor latch, which can cause pain and fissuring. This is often caused by incorrect positioning and attachment of the baby to the breast. It is important to seek help from a breastfeeding expert to improve positioning and address any underlying issues, such as tongue tie.

      Nipple candidiasis can cause burning pain, itching, and hypersensitivity in both nipples, as well as deep breast pain. A bacterial infection may result in purulent nipple discharge, crusting, redness, and fissuring. Vasospasm, also known as Raynaud’s disease of the nipple, can cause intermittent pain during and after feeding, as well as blanching, cyanosis, and/or erythema.

      If a breastfeeding mother experiences itching and a dry, scaly rash on both nipples, it may be a sign of eczema. For more information and guidance on breastfeeding problems, consult the NICE clinical knowledge summary and the GP infant feeding network.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      141.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You are reviewing a 75-year-old woman.
    You saw her several weeks ago with a...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a 75-year-old woman.
      You saw her several weeks ago with a clinical diagnosis of heart failure and a high brain natriuretic peptide level. You referred her for echocardiography and cardiology assessment. Following the referral she now has a diagnosis of 'Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction'.
      Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following combinations of medication should be used as first line treatment in this patient?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitor and beta blocker

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Heart Failure with Left Ventricular Systolic Dysfunction

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta-blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The 2003 NICE guidance suggests starting with ACE inhibitors and then adding beta-blockers, but the 2010 update recommends using clinical judgement to determine which drug to start first. For example, a beta-blocker may be more appropriate for a patient with angina or tachycardia. However, combination treatment with an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular dysfunction. It is important to start drug treatment in a stepwise manner and to ensure the patient’s condition is stable before initiating therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      87.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man presents with persistent reflux, nausea and retrosternal burning pain after...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with persistent reflux, nausea and retrosternal burning pain after eating over the last six weeks. There has been no change in bowel habit and has not noticed any melaena but he has lost a little weight.

      On examination there is no abnormality in the abdomen. His weight is 76 kg.

      He has a ten year history of dyspepsia which he has been treating with over-the-counter antacids. He had triple therapy nine years ago having had positive serology to Helicobacter pylori. He drinks around 16-20 units of alcohol per week and is an ex-smoker.

      He was seen at the out of hours centre five weeks ago and prescribed prochlorperazine, but this has made no difference to his symptoms.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently for upper GI endoscopy under the two week wait referral system

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a daily H2 receptor antagonist (for example, ranitidine) for four weeks then review

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease (GORD) with Alarm Symptoms

      When managing someone with symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), it is crucial to look for alarm features such as unintentional weight loss, dysphagia, GI bleeding, persistent vomiting, and signs of anaemia. Patients may report weight loss, which should be recorded periodically for comparisons. In the presence of alarm symptoms, it is important to refer urgently for upper GI endoscopy, especially for patients aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. According to NICE guidelines, the referral should be made under the two-week wait. The positive serology to Helicobacter pylori nine years ago would not alter the management given the current presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      140.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 52-year-old heavy smoker with a long history of self-neglect presents to his...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old heavy smoker with a long history of self-neglect presents to his GP with severe leg pain. On examination there are several, small punched-out ulcers situated on the lower third of both legs. Both dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses appear absent.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Multiple arterial ulcers

      Explanation:

      Arterial Ulceration in Smokers: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Arterial ulceration is a common problem among smokers, which is characterized by intense leg pain and sleep interference. The absence of foot pulses bilaterally indicates peripheral vascular disease, and it is important to assess for ischaemic heart disease and carotid disease as well. Angioplasty or bypass surgery may be appropriate for improving the peripheral blood supply in a limited number of cases only, while peripheral vasodilators are rarely effective. However, other options such as varicose veins, vasculitis, injury, or bites should be ruled out before making a diagnosis. In this article, we will discuss the symptoms and treatment options for arterial ulceration in smokers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      430.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 67-year-old man with a lengthy COPD history calls for guidance. He has...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with a lengthy COPD history calls for guidance. He has been experiencing increased shortness of breath for the past two days and has been using his inhalers more frequently. He is coughing up clear sputum and has no fever, chest pain, or haemoptysis. He is uncertain whether to take his 'rescue' medications. What is the best advice to give him?

      Your Answer: Take a course of prednisolone

      Explanation:

      NICE suggests including an antibiotic only when the sputum shows signs of being purulent.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      228.7
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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up. Despite being on ramipril 10 mg od,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up. Despite being on ramipril 10 mg od, amlodipine 10 mg od, and indapamide 2.5mg od, his latest blood pressure reading is 168/98 mmHg. He also takes aspirin 75 mg od and metformin 1g bd for type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has a BMI of 34 kg/m², smokes 10 cigarettes/day, and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol per week. His most recent HbA1c level is 66 mmol/mol (DCCT - 8.2%). What is the most probable cause of his persistent hypertension?

      Your Answer: His alcohol intake

      Correct Answer: His raised body mass index

      Explanation:

      A significant proportion of individuals with resistant hypertension have an underlying secondary cause, such as Conn’s syndrome.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      145.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her current medication for...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her current medication for depression. She is currently taking reboxetine but is experiencing over-energization and only sleeping for 4.5-5 hours per night. After discussing her options, you both agree that switching to sertraline may be the best course of action.
      What advice would you give her regarding the switch to sertraline?

      Your Answer: A washout period of two weeks between drugs is needed

      Explanation:

      Switching from Reboxetine to Sertraline

      When switching from reboxetine to sertraline, it is recommended to start sertraline immediately but gradually increase the dose as the reboxetine dose is reduced. It is important to note that reboxetine is metabolized by CYP3A4, which means that taking inhibitors such as macrolides and antifungals like fluconazole may increase its effects by raising plasma concentration. Therefore, caution should be exercised when taking these medications together. Proper management and monitoring of the switch from reboxetine to sertraline can help ensure a smooth transition and minimize potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      124.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents...

    Correct

    • This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents with fatigue and weakness:
      Hb 110 g/L (130-180)
      RBC 3.8 ×1012/L (4.5-5.5)
      Haematocrit 0.35 (0.40-0.52)
      MCV 92 fL (80-100)
      MCH 30 pg (27-32)
      Platelets 180 ×109/L (150-450)
      WBC 4.5 ×109/L (4-11)
      Neutrophils 2.5 ×109/L (1.5-7.0)
      Lymphocytes 1.5 ×109/L (1.0-4.0)
      Monocytes 0.3 ×109/L (0.2-1.0)
      Eosinophils 0.1 ×109/L (0.0-0.4)
      Basophils 0.1 ×109/L (0.0-0.1)

      He is brought into the clinic by his wife who is concerned that her husband has been feeling very tired and weak lately. Examination reveals no abnormalities on chest, abdominal or respiratory examination. Neurological examination is normal.
      What is the most likely cause of this blood picture?

      Your Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Delayed Grief Reaction and Elevated MCV in a Patient

      This patient is exhibiting signs of a delayed grief reaction following the recent death of her husband. Her FBC shows a normal picture, except for an elevated MCV, which suggests alcohol excess. Macrocytosis caused by folate or B12 deficiency would typically result in anemia alongside the macrocytosis. Hypothyroidism can also cause macrocytosis, but the patient’s weight loss contradicts this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      119.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old man reports that he has noticed black tarry stools over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man reports that he has noticed black tarry stools over the last 2 weeks. He has vomited a small amount of blood.

      Your Answer: Malaena usually settles with conservative management in patients of this age

      Correct Answer: Melaena can result from oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      Understanding Melaena: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Melaena is a medical condition characterized by black tarry stools, which is often caused by an acute upper gastrointestinal bleed. The bleeding can occur in the oesophagus, stomach, duodenum, small bowel, or right side of the colon, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause. In some cases, melaena may be the only symptom of bleeding from oesophageal varices, which are associated with portal hypertension.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention, as it can be life-threatening. Patients who are haemodynamically unstable should undergo endoscopy within 2 hours after resuscitation, while other patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. It is important to note that proton pump inhibitors should not be given before endoscopy.

      Patients who are at higher risk of complications include those aged over 60 years and those with co-morbidities. The mortality rate for patients with acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding in hospital is around 10%. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention promptly if you experience symptoms of melena or haematemesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      71.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 68-year old gentleman is seen for follow up. He has recently been...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year old gentleman is seen for follow up. He has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. His echocardiogram shows a reduced ejection fraction. On reviewing his medications you can see that he has been taking atenolol going back many years for hypertension.

      Which of the following beta blockers would you recommend he switches to in order to enhance his heart failure treatment?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta Blockers for Heart Failure

      Beta blockers have been proven to increase the survival rate of patients with heart failure in numerous clinical trials. In the UK, there are three licensed drugs for this purpose: Bisoprolol, Carvedilol, and Nebivolol. If a patient is newly diagnosed with left ventricular systolic function and is already taking a beta blocker, it is recommended to switch them to one of the beta blockers that have been shown to be effective in treating heart failure. This can help improve the patient’s overall health and increase their chances of survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      145.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An 83-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of a labial lump that...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of a labial lump that has been bothering her for the past two weeks. Although she doesn't feel any pain, she mentions that the lump is itchy and rubs against her underwear. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, and she takes amlodipine, metformin, and sitagliptin daily.

      Upon examination, the doctor observes a firm lump measuring 2cm x 3 cm on the left labia majora. The surrounding skin appears normal, with no signs of erythema or induration. Additionally, there is palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nabothian cyst

      Correct Answer: Vulval carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A labial lump and inguinal lymphadenopathy in an older woman may indicate the presence of vulval carcinoma, as these symptoms are concerning and should not be ignored. Although labial lumps are not uncommon, it is important to be vigilant and seek medical attention if a new lump appears.

      Understanding Vulval Carcinoma

      Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and the most common type of vulval cancer is squamous cell carcinoma, accounting for around 80% of cases.

      There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnoea? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnoea?

      Your Answer: Polydipsia

      Correct Answer: Macrognathia

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Sleep Apnoea

      Sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Apart from this, there are other common symptoms that may be experienced by individuals with this condition. These include apparent personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less common symptom. Sleep apnoea may also be associated with other medical conditions such as acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      106.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old baker is seen complaining of wheezy episodes and a tight chest.

    In...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old baker is seen complaining of wheezy episodes and a tight chest.

      In the past he has used a friend's 'blue' inhaler which helped ease his symptoms. He feels that his symptoms are worse following a run of shifts in work and mentions that when he went on holiday in the summer for two weeks his chest improved significantly.

      He has been in work today and on examination he has a mild diffuse wheeze audible throughout his chest.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Trial of inhaled salbutamol PRN

      Correct Answer: Serial peak expiratory flow rate measurements

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma and its Diagnosis

      The history of a patient who works as a baker raises concerns about occupational asthma, which is often caused by sensitizing agents found in plant products. It is estimated that 10-15% of adults with new or recurrent asthma have an occupational element to their symptoms. If a patient reports that their symptoms improve when away from the workplace, occupational asthma should be strongly suspected.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, the most useful approach is to have the patient perform serial peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) measurements. The Oxford Handbook of Respiratory Medicine recommends that the patient record a PEFR every two hours from waking to sleep for four weeks, with no changes to their treatment. The patient should document home, work, and holiday periods, and an expert should interpret the results.

      If you suspect work-related asthma, it is important to arrange PEFR measurements and refer the patient to a chest physician or occupational physician for assessment and interpretation of the PEFR diary. Early diagnosis and management of occupational asthma can prevent long-term respiratory damage and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      71.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a flare-up of symptoms,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a flare-up of symptoms, including diarrhoea which is occasionally bloody, up to four times a day. He has diffuse ulcerative colitis and has been in remission; he takes 1.5 g of mesalazine a day.
      On examination, his blood pressure is 115/72 mmHg, while his pulse is 75 bpm. Abdominal examination is normal.
      What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ciclosporin tablets

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone tablets

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Moderate Exacerbation of Ulcerative Colitis

      When a patient experiences a moderate exacerbation of ulcerative colitis, there are several treatment options available. The most appropriate choice is a dose of 20-40 mg of oral prednisolone per day, which should be continued until the patient enters remission. If there is an inadequate response after 2-4 weeks, ciclosporin tablets can be added to the regimen to induce remission. However, these should only be prescribed by specialists in secondary care. Anti-motility drugs such as co-phenotrope should not be used as they may precipitate paralytic ileus and megacolon in active ulcerative colitis. Topical mesalazine is only effective for distal disease, so it is not appropriate for patients with diffuse disease. Topical corticosteroids in the form of prednisolone retention enemas can be used to induce remission in patients with proctitis, but for diffuse disease, oral corticosteroids are more effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      108.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A father brings his 3-year-old son to the after-hours clinic. He reports that...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 3-year-old son to the after-hours clinic. He reports that his son has been unwell for the past 2 days with a fever and flushed cheeks. Today, he has developed a rash all over his body, starting from his chest and stomach. The child is eating less than usual but has had enough wet and soiled nappies. During examination, the child's temperature is 37.8°C, and all other observations are normal. The child has a widespread blanching, pink rash all over his body, feeling like sandpaper to touch. Additionally, his tongue appears red and bumpy. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Group A streptococcus

      Explanation:

      The symptoms presented by this young lady are indicative of scarlet fever, which is caused by Group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus. These symptoms include a rash that feels like sandpaper and a tongue that looks like a strawberry.

      Fifth disease, also known as slapped cheek, is caused by Parvovirus B19. Symptoms include a fever, runny nose, and headache, followed by a rash on the face that looks like a slap mark.

      The common cold is primarily caused by Rhinovirus.

      Group B streptococcus is a significant cause of bacterial infections in newborns, which can result in septicaemia, pneumonia, meningitis, and potentially fatal or long-term consequences.

      The table summarizes the main characteristics of childhood infections including Chickenpox, measles, mumps, rubella, erythema infectiosum, scarlet fever, and hand, foot and mouth disease. Each infection has its own set of symptoms such as fever, rash, and lymphadenopathy. Some infections have specific identifying features such as Koplik spots in measles and a ‘slapped-cheek’ rash in erythema infectiosum. Hand, foot and mouth disease is caused by the coxsackie A16 virus and presents with vesicles in the mouth and on the palms and soles of the feet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      51.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following drugs is not associated with thrombocytopenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is not associated with thrombocytopenia?

      Your Answer: Abciximab

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia

      Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This condition is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that have been associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, and anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate. Heparin, a commonly used blood thinner, is also known to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerning symptoms arise. Proper management and monitoring of drug-induced thrombocytopenia can help prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      202.4
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  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old female is prescribed a 7 day course of amoxicillin for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female is prescribed a 7 day course of amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection. She is currently taking Cerazette (desogestrel). What advice should be given regarding contraception?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is no need for extra protections

      Explanation:

      Extra precautions are not necessary when taking antibiotics with the progestogen-only pill.

      Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).

      When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.

      It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.

      Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy and takes no medication. Her routine blood tests, including a full blood count, renal and liver function, are all normal. A urine dip was also normal. You notice a urine albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) result and an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) result of >90 mL/min/1.73 m2. Her early morning ACR is 5.

      As per NICE guidelines, what stage of chronic kidney disease (CKD) does this woman fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G1A2

      Explanation:

      A patient with a urine ACR of 5 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2 is classified as having G1A2 CKD. CKD is categorized based on the eGFR and urine ACR, with G1 representing stage 1 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2, and A2 representing a urine ACR of 3-70 mg/mmol. Patients with G1A1 or G2A2 classification are not considered to have CKD in the absence of kidney damage markers.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (2/3) 67%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular Health (3/4) 75%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/4) 25%
Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/2) 0%
Respiratory Health (1/2) 50%
Older Adults (1/1) 100%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Passmed