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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of acute pancreatitis. On examination, he has a BP of 125/70 mmHg, his pulse is regular 70 bpm and his BMI is 23. There is evidence of eruptive xanthomas on examination of his skin. It was noted that his fasting triglycerides level is 8.5 mmol/l (0.7-2.1) at his follow up appointment although his LDL level is not particularly raised. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for him?

      Your Answer: Fenofibrate

      Explanation:

      Three classes of medications are appropriate for the management of major triglyceride elevations: fibric acid derivatives, niacin, and omega-3 fatty acids.

      Fibrate is used as a first-line agent for reduction of triglycerides in patients at risk for triglyceride-induced pancreatitis.

      High-dose niacin (vitamin B-3) (1500 or more mg/d) decreases triglyceride levels by at least 40% and can raise HDL cholesterol levels by 40% or more. Niacin also reliably and significantly lowers LDL cholesterol levels, which the other major triglyceride-lowering medications do not.

      Omega-3 fatty acids are attractive because of their low risk of major adverse effects or interaction with other medications. At high doses (>4 g/d), triglycerides are reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 24-year-old smoker with testicular cancer presents with exertional dyspnoea, wheezing, and persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old smoker with testicular cancer presents with exertional dyspnoea, wheezing, and persistent non-productive cough. He completed a course of chemotherapy comprising of cisplatin, bleomycin, and etoposide three months ago. On examination, there are fine bilateral basal crackles. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lung metastases

      Correct Answer: Bleomycin toxicity

      Explanation:

      The cytotoxic drug bleomycin can cause bleomycin-induced pneumonitis (BIP). It usually occurs during chemotherapy but can also occur up to six months post-therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      186.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following is true of gamma delta T cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true of gamma delta T cells?

      Your Answer: Ligands for gamma delta T cell receptors are peptides presented by the MHC

      Correct Answer: They play a role in the skin and gut

      Explanation:

      Gamma delta T cells are of low abundance in the body, are found in the gut mucosa, skin, lungs and uterus, and are involved in the initiation and propagation of immune responses. Their ligands are not known in detail, but the gamma delta T cell receptors recognise intact proteins rather than MHC-presented peptides. Like alpha beta T cells, they develop in the thymus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 69 year-old librarian with motor neuron disease is seen in clinic. Which...

    Correct

    • A 69 year-old librarian with motor neuron disease is seen in clinic. Which of the following interventions will have the greatest effect on survival?

      Your Answer: Non-invasive ventilation

      Explanation:

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition of unknown cause which can present with both upper and lower motor neuron signs. It rarely presents before age 40 and various patterns of disease are recognised, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy and bulbar palsy.
      Non-invasive ventilation (usually BIPAP) is used at night, with studies having shown a survival benefit of around 7 months. Riluzole prevents stimulation of glutamate receptors, used mainly in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and has been shown to prolong life by about 3 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      66.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Primarily, funnel plots are used to do what? ...

    Incorrect

    • Primarily, funnel plots are used to do what?

      Your Answer: Provide a graphical representation of the relative risk results in a cohort study

      Correct Answer: Demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses

      Explanation:

      Funnel plots are graphical tools to assess and compare clinical performance of a group of care professionals or care institutions on a quality indicator against a benchmark. Incorrect construction of funnel plots may lead to erroneous assessment and incorrect decisions potentially with severe consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      133.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 83-year-old retired musician is examined for progressive cognitive impairment. Which one of...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old retired musician is examined for progressive cognitive impairment. Which one of the following features is most suggestive of Lewy body dementia?

      Your Answer: Paucity of extrapyramidal signs

      Correct Answer: Symptoms worsen with neuroleptics

      Explanation:

      Lewy body dementia is an increasingly recognised cause of dementia, accounting for up to 20% of cases. The characteristic pathological feature is alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions (Lewy bodies) in the substantia nigra, paralimbic and neocortical areas. Neuroleptics should be avoided in Lewy body dementia as patients are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. Questions may give a history of a patient who has deteriorated following the introduction of an antipsychotic agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 54 yr. old patient presented with a dry cough after starting treatment...

    Correct

    • A 54 yr. old patient presented with a dry cough after starting treatment for hypertension. He was prescribed ramipril 2.5mg and the dry cough started after that, which disturbed his sleep. His blood pressure was normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Stop the ramipril and prescribe candesartan

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors are known to cause a dry cough and they should be stopped, to settle the cough. The next drug of choice is an angiotensin receptor blocker such as candesartan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man who works as a clerk presents for review. He is 6 feet 2 inches tall, with delayed puberty and infertility. On examination, he has small testes with scanty pubic hair. Blood results are shown below: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 40 U/l (1–7), Testosterone 4 nmol/l(9–35). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

      Correct Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome (KS), the most common human sex chromosome disorder 47,XXY. It is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia) and gynecomastia in late puberty. If Klinefelter syndrome is not diagnosed prenatally, a patient with 47,XXY karyotype may demonstrate various subtle, age-related clinical signs that would prompt diagnostic testing. These include the following:
      Infants: Hypospadias, small phallus, cryptorchidism.
      Toddlers: Developmental delay (especially expressive language skills), hypotonia.
      Older boys and adolescent males: Tall stature; delayed or incomplete pubertal development with eunuchoid body habitus; gynecomastia; small, firm testes; sparse body hair.

      From childhood with progression to early puberty, the pituitary-gonadal function observed is within normal limits for 47,XXY males.
      At mid puberty and later, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) concentrations rise to hyper-gonadotropic levels, inhibin B levels fall until they are undetectable, and testosterone levels are at low or low-normal levels after an initial increase.

      Fragile X syndrome, also termed Martin-Bell syndrome or marker X syndrome, is the most common cause of inherited mental retardation, intellectual disability, and autism.
      However, the patient here does not have any mental disabilities as he already works as a clerk, and that too would make Down’s Syndrome less likely.

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) and idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (IHH) are rare genetic conditions that encompass the spectrum of isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. Hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome, in contrast to patients with idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, whose sense of smell is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is suggestive of co-existence of mitral regurgitation and mitral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is suggestive of co-existence of mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer: Raised JVP

      Correct Answer: Displaced apex beat

      Explanation:

      Apex beat displacement is caused by mitral regurgitation and because it is not found in mitral stenosis, it is suggestive of mixed mitral disease. The other given responses occur in mitral stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 22-year-old woman has ingested an unknown quantity of paracetamol tablets four hours...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman has ingested an unknown quantity of paracetamol tablets four hours ago. She now presents with nausea, vomiting, anorexia and right subchondral pain. Which of the following features suggest that she should be transferred to the liver unit?

      Your Answer: pH 7.25

      Explanation:

      The most widely used prognostic predictors for acetaminophen over-ingestion is King’s College Criteria, which is: arterial PH < 7.3 after fluid resuscitation, Cr level > 3.4, PT > 1.8x control or > 100s, or INR > 6.5, and Grave III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      21.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Haematology & Oncology (0/2) 0%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
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