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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female has been recently diagnosed with hypertension. She's sexually active and is not using any birth control other than barrier method. Which among the following antihypertensives is contraindicated in this patient?
Your Answer: Methyldopa
Correct Answer: Lisinopril
Explanation:Among the following hypertensives, lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor) is contraindicated in patients who are planning for pregnancy.
Per the NICE guidelines, when treating the woman in question, she should be treated as if she were pregnant given the absence of effective contraception.
ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril are known teratogens and most be avoided.Drugs contraindicated in pregnancy:
Antibiotics
Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides
Sulphonamides and trimethoprim
QuinolonesOther drugs:
ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists
Statins
Warfarin
Sulfonylureas
Retinoids (including topical)
Cytotoxic agents
The majority of antiepileptics including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin are known to be potentially harmful. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 41 year old woman who has a history of SLE presents with a dry cough, dyspnoea and fever. She is being treated with a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide for Grade IV nephropathy. The last cyclophosphamide dose was 10 years ago. Lab investigations are as follows: WCC: 2.3 (lymphocyte count 0.7), Platelets: 81, Hb: 10.5, ESR: 56, CRP: 43, PO2: 7.2 kPa, PCO2: 3.6 kPa after walking out to the toilet. Chest X ray was unremarkable apart from some patchy pulmonary infiltration. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)
Explanation:Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, is an opportunistic fungal lung infection occurring almost exclusively in immunocompromised individuals. In 50% of cases, PCP is the first manifestation of AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome), but it may be caused by other immunodeficiency disorders. PCP should be suspected in patients with a history of progressive dyspnoea and a dry cough with resistance to standard antibiotic treatment. Signs that support this diagnosis include a CD4 count < 200/μL, an increased beta-D-glucan level, and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray. Management of PCP includes high-dose trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX), treatment of the underlying immunodeficiency disorder, and steroids in the case of severe respiratory insufficiency. TB is less likely to be present in this case as ESR is relatively low and chest x-ray appeared normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old real estate broker presents with a tremor. Which one of the following features would suggest a diagnosis of essential tremor rather than Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Tremor is worse following alcohol
Correct Answer: Tremor is worse when the arms are outstretched
Explanation:Difficulty in initiating movement (bradykinesia), postural instability and unilateral symptoms (initially) are typical of Parkinson’s. Essential tremor symptoms are usually worse if arms are outstretched and eased by rest and alcohol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Correct Answer: Varicella
Explanation:Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Correct
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A 70 year old female presented with a throbbing and continuous headache and loss of vision. Her ESR was elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Corticosteroids
Explanation:Giant Cell Arteritis (Temporal Arteritis) is the most probable diagnosis. GCA should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache in patients 50 years of age or older with an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Temporal artery biopsy remains the criterion standard for diagnosis of this granulomatous vasculitis. High-dose corticosteroid therapy is the universally accepted treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and low-grade temperature. Yesterday he developed extensive painful ulceration of his mouth and gums. On examination his temperature is 37.4ºC, pulse 84 / min and there is submandibular lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection
Explanation:This man has gingivostomatitis, a characteristic feature of primary herpes simplex virus infection. Herpetic gingivostomatitis is often the initial presentation during the first (primary) herpes simplex infection. It is of greater severity than herpes labialis (cold sores) which is often the subsequent presentations. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is the most common viral infection of the mouth.
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis (PHGS) is caused predominantly by HSV-1 and affects mainly children. Prodromal symptoms, such as fever, anorexia, irritability, malaise and headache, may occur in advance of disease. Sub-mandibular lymphadenitis, halitosis and refusal to drink are usual concomitant findings. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of his face, hands and feet along with diffuse abdominal pain. He has a history of similar recurrent episodes since he was 10 years old, with each episode lasting 2-3 days. Examination reveals swelling on face, hands, feet but no sign of urticaria. Family history is significant for similar episodes in the mother who experienced these since childhood, and a brother who passed away following respiratory distress at age of 8 during one such episode. Which of the following tests would be the most helpful in reaching the diagnosis?
Your Answer: IgE levels
Correct Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor
Explanation:Hereditary C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to recurrent angioedema without urticaria or pruritus. Physical triggers include dental work, surgery or intubation. Medical triggers include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, tamoxifen, oestrogen-containing medications (e.g., hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives). It is diagnosed on the basis of low levels of C1 esterase inhibitor or elevated levels of dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor. C4 levels are low between attacks. IgE levels, eosinophils, skin prick tests and RASTs are helpful in other allergic conditions and asthma but not of use in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her face. Some of the blisters are crusted and some are weeping. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Impetigo
Explanation:Impetigo appears more commonly on the face than other exposed areas like the limbs. Its blisters are clustered and may have a fluid discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty breathing. She was seen by her regular doctor the day before with a sore throat which he diagnosed as tonsillitis and was prescribed oral Amoxicillin for 5 days. Past medical history: Ulcerative colitis diagnosed four years ago. Current medications: Inhaled salbutamol and beclomethasone Mesalazine 400 mg TDS She was observed to be alert and oriented but she had laboured breathing. Inspiratory wheeze was noted. She was pale, sweaty and cyanosed. Her temperature was 36.7ºC, pulse 121/minute and blood pressure 91/40 mmHg. The lungs were clear and the remainder of the examination was normal. She was given high-flow oxygen through a face mask but despite this her breathing became increasingly difficult.  What is the most likely causative agent?
Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:Acute epiglottitis is a life-threatening disorder with serious implications to the anaesthesiologist because of the potential for laryngospasm and irrevocable loss of the airway. There is inflammatory oedema of the arytenoids, aryepiglottic folds and the epiglottis; therefore, supraglottitis may be used instead or preferred to the term acute epiglottitis.
Acute epiglottitis can occur at any age. The responsible organism used to be Hemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), but infection with group A b-haemolytic Streptococci has become more frequent after the widespread use of Hemophilus influenzae vaccination.
The typical presentation in epiglottitis includes acute occurrence of high fever, severe sore throat and difficulty in swallowing with the sitting up and leaning forward position in order to enhance airflow. There is usually drooling because of difficulty and pain on swallowing. Acute epiglottitis usually leads to generalized toxaemia. The most common differential diagnosis is croup and a foreign body in the airway. A late referral to an acute care setting with its serious consequences may result from difficulty in differentiation between acute epiglottitis and less urgent causes of a sore throat, shortness of breath and dysphagia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following types of motor neuron diseases carries the worst prognosis?
Your Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Correct Answer: Progressive bulbar palsy
Explanation:Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition of unknown cause which can present with both upper and lower motor neuron signs. It rarely presents before 40 years and various patterns of disease are recognised including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, primary lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy and progressive bulbar palsy. In some patients however, there is a combination of clinical patterns. In progressive bulbar palsy there is palsy of the tongue and muscles of chewing/swallowing and facial muscles due to loss of function of brainstem motor nuclei. This carries the worst prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus. His body mass index is 27.5 kg/m^2. At a dose of 500mg TDS the patient has experienced significant diarrhoea. Even on reducing the dose to 500mg BD his symptoms persisted. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient?
Your Answer: Switch to gliclazide 40mg od
Correct Answer: Start modified release metformin 500mg od with evening meal
Explanation:Here, the patient seems to be intolerant to standard metformin. In such cases, modified-release preparations is considered as the most appropriate next step.
There is some evidence that these produce fewer gastrointestinal side-effects in patients intolerant of standard-release metformin.Metformin is a biguanide and reduces blood glucose levels by decreasing the production of glucose in the liver, decreasing intestinal absorption and increasing insulin sensitivity.
Metformin decreases both the basal and postprandial blood glucose.
Other uses: In Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), Metformin decreases insulin levels, which then decreases luteinizing hormone and androgen levels. Thus acting to normalize the menstruation cycle.Note:
Metformin is contraindicated in patients with severe renal dysfunction, which is defined as a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.732m2.
Metformin overdose has been associated with hypoglycaemia and lactic acidosis, for this reason, it has a black box warning for lactic acidosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted after slipping on ice and falling over. Some routine blood tests are performed: Na+ 141 mmol/L, K+ 2.9 mmol/L, Chloride 114 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 16 mmol/L, Urea 5.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 75 µmol/L, Which one of the following is most likely to explain these results?
Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis (type 1)
Explanation:The patient’s underlying arthritis has most likely led to Renal tubular acidosis RTA type 1, which presents with the following symptoms consistent with the presentation of the patient: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis/acidaemia, hypokalaemia and hyperchloremia. Comparatively, the other conditions are ruled out because Aspirin and diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a raised anion gap, Conn’s syndrome explains hypokalaemia but not the metabolic acidosis, and RTA type 4 is associated with hyperkalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 48-year-old hairdresser presented to her GP complaining of tingling in the right palm and right wrist pain. She had intermittently experienced these symptoms; however, recently they had been keeping her awake all night. She had noticed a reduction in grip and was struggling to work at the salon. Otherwise, she felt well in herself and had not noticed any weakness in the other hand or lower limb. Her weight was stable, and she denied any neck problems or swallowing difficulties. She had a past medical history of hypothyroidism and hypertension and took regular thyroxine, Bendroflumethiazide and ibuprofen. She was a non-smoker and rarely drank alcohol. On examination, she appeared alert and orientated. Fundoscopy and cranial nerve examination were all normal and neck movements were full. On examination of the upper limb, there was wasting over the right thenar eminence and fasciculations with a small burn over the right index finger. There was weakness of thumb abduction and opposition, with loss of pinprick and light touch sensation over the thumb, index and middle finger in the right hand. Nerve conduction studies showed absent sensory action potential in right median palmar branches and denervation of the right abductor pollicis brevis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Median nerve palsy
Explanation:The history is consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) arising as a result of pressure on the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. The median nerve supplies the muscles of the thenar eminence: the abductor pollicis (C7, C8), flexor pollicis brevis and opponens pollicis, and the lateral two lumbricals. The nerve conduction studies confirm marked denervation and absent sensory potentials within the median nerve territory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 60 yr. old male presented with ventricular tachycardia which was successfully cardioverted. To check whether he had prolonged QT interval, which of the following is the most appropriate method to measure the QT interval in ECG?
Your Answer: Time between the start of the Q wave and the end of the T wave
Explanation:The QT interval is the time from the start of the Q wave to the end of the T wave. It represents the time taken for ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation. The QT interval should be measured in either lead II or V5-6.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 74-year-old woman is admitted with headaches, polyuria and polydipsia of recent onset. She has a history of mastectomy for breast cancer. A CT head scan shows multiple cerebral metastases. Her admission biochemistry results are as follows: Sodium 153 mmol/l, Potassium 4.0 mmol/L, Urea 5.0 mmol/L, Creatinine 110 micromol/L, Glucose 5mmol/l. Over the next 24 hours, she has a urinary volume of 4.4 litres and further tests reveal plasma osmolality 320mOsm/kg and urinary osmolality: 254mOsm/kg. Which one of the following treatments should be used?
Your Answer: Desmopressin (DDAVP)
Explanation:Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
– Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
– Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney
This patient has the central type from metastases.
In patients with central DI, desmopressin is the drug of choice. It is a synthetic analogue of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). It is available in subcutaneous, IV, intranasal, and oral preparations. Generally, it can be administered 2-3 times per day. Patients may require hospitalization to establish fluid needs. Frequent electrolyte monitoring is recommended during the initial phase of treatment. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 13 yr. old boy presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion. According to his mother who was also present, his exercise tolerance has been gradually worsening for the past weeks. It has reached the point where he is unable to participate in his weekly soccer match. Cardiac catherization was performed and the results are given below: (Anatomical site vs Oxygen saturation (%)vs Pressure (mmHg)) Superior vena cava: 73 ,–. Right atrium: 71, 6. Right ventricle: 72, –. Pulmonary artery: 86, 53/13. PCWP: –, 15. Left ventricle: 97, 111/10. Aorta: 96, 128/61. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation:The oxygen saturation in the pulmonary artery is higher than that of the right ventricle. The pressure of the pulmonary artery and of the PCWP are also high. So patent ductus arteriosus is highly suggestive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What percentage of values lie within 3 standard deviations of the mean in a normal distribution?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 99.70%
Explanation:Normal distribution describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements. Usually, 68.3% lies within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lies within 2 SD of the mean and 99.7% lies within 3 SD of the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old cashier with a history of chronic back pain presents for a check-up. He is aware of a dragging feeling affecting his left foot when he tries to walk. This has developed since a minor injury to his left knee. On examination, he has weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion of the left foot. The right is unaffected and plantar flexion and inversion are normal on the left. MRI of the spinal cord shows degenerative disc changes at multiple levels, but no evidence of cord or nerve root impingement. Nerve conduction studies and EMG results are pending. Which of the following sensory loss patterns would you expect to find in association with this motor defect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and anterolateral leg
Explanation:This patient presentation is unlikely to be an L5 nerve root lesion given the results of the MRI scan. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis is a mononeuritis affecting the left common peroneal nerve. This would lead to sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and anterolateral leg on the left.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man who had a liver transplant just over 3 months ago, now has primary sclerosing cholangitis. He complains of fever, abdominal pain and diarrhoea, which has come on over the last week. He has a platelet count of 60 x 109/L and alanine transaminase (ALT) of 300 U/L with a normal bilirubin. He is taking tacrolimus and prednisolone for immunosuppression, and tells you that he recently stopped taking valganciclovir. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Donor-acquired cytomegalovirus
Explanation:The fact that he has recently stopped taking his valganciclovir, anti-viral, is key to the answer to this question. This makes the answer quite plainly donor-acquired CMV infection over all of the other answer choices. He needs to stay on prophylaxis against this, particularly in the first 3 months after transplant. Symptoms and presentations of CMV infection can include fever, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, hematologic abnormalities, retinitis, and esophagitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A patient is started on imipramine for depression. Which combination of side-effects is most likely to be associated with the intake of this class of antidepressants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blurred vision + dry mouth
Explanation:Blurring of vision and dry mouth are antimuscarinic side-effects that are more common with imipramine than other types of tricyclic antidepressants.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are used less commonly now for depression due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose. They are however used widely in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required.
Mechanism of action: Tricyclic antidepressants impose their therapeutic effects by inhibiting presynaptic reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system (this, may give rise to seizures).
Common side-effects:
Drowsiness
Dry mouth
Blurred vision
Constipation
Urinary retentionLow-dose amitriptyline is commonly used in the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headaches (both tension and migraine).
Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose
Amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male patient came to the OPD with a complaint of severe headache on the right side, with right-sided jaw pain, and additional blurred vision in the right eye. The headache was throbbing in character. Which investigation will you prefer next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Explanation:Age of the patient, headache only on one side, and loss of vision on that side suggest temporal arteritis, also known as giant cell arteritis. The laboratory hallmark of this condition is a raised ESR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He also has a history of atrial fibrillation and epilepsy. His main complaint is a blue tinge to his vision. Which one of his medications is most likely to be responsible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sildenafil
Explanation:Blue tinge of vision/cyanopsia is caused due to the intake of sildenafil citrate.
Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction.
It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.Uses:
It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.Adverse effects:
Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.
It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.Note: Xanthopsia (yellow-green vision) may occur secondary to treatment with digoxin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following is most helpful in differentiating chronic from acute renal failure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kidney size at ultrasound scan
Explanation:The size of the kidneys on ultrasound would differentiate chronic from acute renal failures. Chronic renal failure is more associated with small-sized kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alopecia
Explanation:All the above side-effects, with the exception of alopecia, may be seen in patients taking lithium.
Common lithium side effects may include:
– dizziness, drowsiness;
– tremors in your hands;
– trouble walking;
– dry mouth, increased thirst or urination;
– nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, stomach pain;
– cold feeling or discoloration in your fingers or toes;
– rash; or.
– blurred vision. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man with a long history of heavy alcohol intake is admitted with nausea and frequent vomiting four hours after a meal in a restaurant. During review in the Emergency department he vomits a cupful of blood. What is the cause of his haematemesis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear
Explanation:This is a classic clinical presentation, with alcohol intake and nausea/vomiting that leads to hematemesis, of a Mallory-Weiss tear. Because of the history, that makes this more likely than haemorrhagic gastritis, duodenal ulceration, or oesophagitis (also oesophagitis would not bleed a cupful). Oesophageal varices would present with copious amounts of hematemesis and most likely hemodynamic instability as a result of the amount of blood loss. In Mallory-Weiss tear they are typically presented as a hemodynamically stable patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Modafinil
Explanation:Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents with painful vesicles in her right ear and a fever for some time. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster
Explanation:Herpes zoster oticus is a viral infection of the inner, middle, and external ear. It manifests as severe otalgia with associated cutaneous vesicular eruption, usually of the external canal and pinna. When associated with facial paralysis, the infection is called Ramsay Hunt syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old gentleman presents to the A&E department complaining of a sudden-onset occipital headache associated with vomiting. His symptoms started 2 hours previously and are continuing. He has a previous history of infrequent migraine without aura, which also causes nausea but not vomiting. He rated his current headache as much more severe than his usual migraine. Examination is unremarkable. In particular, there is no neck stiffness or photophobia. Which of the following management options would be the most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT brain scan, followed by lumbar puncture if CT normal
Explanation:The patient presented with sudden-onset headache that is more painful than his usual migraine attacks. This gives a high suspicion of subarachnoid haemorrhage; thus, a CT brain scan should be ordered first to rule this out. However, a normal CT scan is apparent in 30% of patients with subarachnoid haemorrhage and should be referred for lumbar puncture to look for red blood cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill
Explanation:The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.
Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.
It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.
The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.
Other options:
The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful.
There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course.
Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure.
There are multiple different types of combined pills. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the endocrine clinic for her regular follow up. She has hypertension, controlled by a combination of Ramipril and indapamide and was diagnosed with 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency since birth when she was found to have clitoromegaly. Which of the following is most likely to be elevated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 11-Deoxycortisol
Explanation:11-beta hydroxylase is stimulated by ACTH and responsible for conversion of 11-deoxycortisol to cortisol and deoxycorticosterone to corticosterone.
In 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, the previously mentioned conversions are partially blocked, leading to:
– Increased levels of ACTH
– Accumulation of 11-deoxycortisol (which has limited biological activity) and deoxycorticosterone (which has mineralocorticoid activity)
– Overproduction of adrenal androgens (DHEA, androstenedione, and testosterone) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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