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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman is brought in unconscious with no available medical history. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought in unconscious with no available medical history. Upon examination, her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 3/15, blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg, pulse is 80 bpm and regular, respiratory rate is 16. There are signs of previous substance abuse. She is intubated and transferred to the ICU. A toxicology screen reveals a paracetamol level of 400 μg/ml. N-acetylcysteine treatment is initiated. During her hospital stay, what is the primary factor that determines the need for a liver transplant in cases of paracetamol overdose?

      Your Answer: pH

      Explanation:

      Criteria for Liver Transplantation in Paracetamol-Induced Acute Liver Failure

      Paracetamol-induced acute liver failure is a serious condition that may require liver transplantation. The King’s College Hospital criteria provide guidelines for determining when a patient should be listed for transplantation. The criteria state that a patient should be listed if their arterial pH is less than 7.3 or their arterial lactate is greater than 3.0 mmol/l after adequate fluid resuscitation. In addition to pH, there are three other criteria that may drive transplantation: creatinine greater than 300 µmol/l, prothrombin time greater than 100 (INR greater than 6.5), and grade III/IV encephalopathy. Elevated transaminases, such as alanine aminotransferase and alkaline phosphatase, are not considered criteria for liver transplantation. While elevated transaminases may indicate hepatocellular damage, impaired hepatic synthetic function is the primary factor affecting outcomes. Low bicarbonate levels may indicate metabolic acidosis, but it is decompensated metabolic acidosis with low pH that drives referral for transplantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old male presents with chest pain and difficulty swallowing. Upon manometry testing,...

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    • A 55-year-old male presents with chest pain and difficulty swallowing. Upon manometry testing, it is found that he has prolonged, repetitive, and high amplitude contractions. Additionally, his lower esophageal sphincter pressure is elevated and there is incomplete relaxation of the sphincter. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diffuse oesophageal spasm

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between oesophageal disorders

      When it comes to oesophageal disorders, it’s important to differentiate between them in order to provide the appropriate treatment. In this case, the manometry findings suggest that the patient is most likely suffering from diffuse oesophageal spasm. This condition is characterized by abnormal contractions in the oesophagus, leading to difficulty swallowing and chest pain.

      It’s important to note that achalasia, another oesophageal disorder, presents differently. In achalasia, there is a lack of peristalsis in the body of the oesophagus, which can lead to food and liquid being trapped in the oesophagus. On the other hand, hypertensive lower oesophageal sphincter is characterized by high pressure in the lower oesophageal sphincter, but normal contractions in the body of the oesophagus.

      By the differences between these oesophageal disorders, healthcare professionals can provide the appropriate treatment and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      83.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 49-year-old female with colorectal cancer (Duke's C) on chemotherapy presents with an...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old female with colorectal cancer (Duke's C) on chemotherapy presents with an acutely painful swollen left leg. She reports that the swelling has been increasing for the past twelve hours and she can see new veins on her calf that were not there before. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and feels that this is similar.

      Upon examination, her left leg is 4 cm larger than the right. The medical team starts her on rivaroxaban for a suspected DVT and orders an ultrasound Doppler of the leg.

      What is her Well's score?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Wells’ Criteria for Suspected DVT

      Wells’ Criteria is a tool used to assess the likelihood of a patient having deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It assigns points based on various risk factors, with a higher score indicating a greater likelihood of DVT. In this case, the patient scores points for having active cancer, a previous DVT, collateral superficial veins, leg swelling greater than 3 cm, and entire leg swelling.

      Active cancer is a known risk factor for DVT, as cancer cells can release substances that increase the risk of blood clots. A previous DVT also increases the likelihood of another occurrence. Collateral superficial veins and leg swelling are physical signs that suggest the presence of a blood clot. If the entire leg is swollen, it may indicate a more severe case of DVT.

      Wells’ Criteria is important for healthcare professionals to accurately diagnose and manage DVT. By identifying patients at higher risk, appropriate interventions can be taken to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. It is recommended to use this tool in conjunction with other diagnostic tests, such as ultrasound, to confirm or rule out DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      130.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old male patient complains of a solitary, painless, hardened sore on his...

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    • A 27-year-old male patient complains of a solitary, painless, hardened sore on his penile shaft that has been present for one week. He also reports feeling several small, painless lymph nodes in his groin area on both sides. The patient admits to having had unprotected sexual intercourse with a prostitute three weeks before seeking medical attention.

      What laboratory tests can be done to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Darkfield microscopy of secretions from the ulcer

      Explanation:

      Primary Syphilis and Diagnostic Methods

      Primary syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It typically presents as a painless ulcer, known as a chancre, which appears two to six weeks after exposure. Diagnosis of primary syphilis can be confirmed through either darkfield microscopy of secretions from the ulcer or serology. However, bacterial culture of the ulcer secretions is not a reliable diagnostic method as Treponema pallidum cannot be cultured on routine bacterial culture media. Thayer-Martin medium culture is used for diagnosing gonococcal infections, while fungal culture and KOH preparation are used for diagnosing fungal infections. It is important to accurately diagnose and treat primary syphilis to prevent the progression of the disease to its more severe stages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      69.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old woman has been referred by her General Practitioner for routine upper...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman has been referred by her General Practitioner for routine upper gastrointestinal endoscopy due to persistent epigastric discomfort induced by eating. Helicobacter pylori testing was negative and there was no dysphagia, vomiting or weight loss. The patient takes ibuprofen as required for osteoarthritis and drinks 20-25 units of alcohol per week. Clinical examination was unremarkable. At endoscopy, a generalised mild gastritis was found and biopsies were taken from a 1.5 cm diameter non-ulcerated lesion noted at the fundus. The results of histology and further investigations subsequently requested are listed below.

      Histology: sample of gastric mucosa exhibiting moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma without involvement of sub-serosal connective tissue

      CT abdomen: no gastric mass or ulceration identified; no evidence of abdominal lymph node enlargement; liver, gallbladder, spleen and kidneys unremarkable.

      PET: no evidence of distant metastasis or nodal involvement

      Staging laparoscopy: no evidence of peritoneal or metastatic disease

      What is the appropriate treatment for this patient's gastric carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Endoscopic mucosal resection

      Explanation:

      Gastric cancer confined to the mucosa (T1a) that is less than 2 cm in diameter, of low or moderate differentiation, and with no ulceration or lymphovascular involvement can be treated with endomucosal resection. For stage II and stage III gastric carcinoma, neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the preferred treatment before radical surgery. The extent of surgical resection depends on the location of the tumor, with subtotal gastrectomy being feasible for some distal tumors. Radiotherapy is not the primary treatment for gastric carcinoma. The diagnosis and management of gastric cancer are discussed in Thrumurthy et al.’s 2013 article in BMJ.

      Gastric cancer is a relatively uncommon type of cancer, accounting for only 2% of all cancer diagnoses in developed countries. It is more prevalent in older individuals, with half of patients being over the age of 75, and is more common in males than females. Several risk factors have been identified, including Helicobacter pylori infection, atrophic gastritis, certain dietary habits, smoking, and blood group. Symptoms of gastric cancer can include abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia. In some cases, lymphatic spread may result in the appearance of nodules in the left supraclavicular lymph node or periumbilical area. Diagnosis is typically made through oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy with biopsy, and staging is done using CT. Treatment options depend on the extent and location of the cancer and may include endoscopic mucosal resection, partial or total gastrectomy, and chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      192.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old man is referred from the oncology ward having been admitted with...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man is referred from the oncology ward having been admitted with abdominal swelling and constipation. This has been getting gradually worse for the past four weeks until he could not manage at home any longer, prompting his admission. His performance status prior to admission was 1.

      The oncology team ordered an ultrasound of his abdomen which revealed a large pelvic mass and gross ascites. His ascites has since been drained and the cytology report demonstrates adenocarcinoma cells with occasional psammoma bodies.

      He undergoes treatment with combination chemotherapy and his ascites does not re-accumulate. What is the tumour marker used to monitor his response to treatment?

      Your Answer: CA125

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Their Uses in Cancer Monitoring

      Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. They are used to monitor cancer progression and response to treatment. Different tumor markers are associated with different types of cancer. For instance, CEA is used to monitor colorectal and breast cancers, while CA19-9 is used primarily to monitor pancreatic cancer response. Beta-HCG and AFP are used to monitor testicular cancer, and AFP by itself is useful in monitoring liver cancer. CA125 is most commonly used to monitor ovarian cancer but can also be raised in endometrial, lung, breast, and gastrointestinal cancers.

      In the case of ovarian cancer, a combination of carboplatin and paclitaxel chemotherapy is typically used for treatment. Monitoring the levels of CA125 in the blood can help determine the effectiveness of the treatment. If the levels decrease, it indicates that the treatment is working. However, it is important to note that elevated levels of tumor markers do not always indicate the presence of cancer, as they can also be elevated in non-cancerous conditions. Therefore, tumor markers should always be interpreted in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      105.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of severe central...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of severe central pleuritic chest pain and fever that started yesterday. She has no history of drug or alcohol abuse and was born in the United States with no recent travel history. She reports a similar episode of pericarditis six months ago, which was diagnosed by her primary care physician (PCP).
      Upon examination, her temperature is 38.8°C, heart rate is 110 bpm, and blood pressure is 112/76 mmHg. A chest X-ray appears normal, and a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia and widespread ST elevation in limb and precordial leads.
      What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and colchicine

      Correct Answer: Aspirin and colchicine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis

      Acute pericarditis can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine as first-line therapy. The ICAP study has shown that colchicine can reduce the risk of recurrent pericarditis significantly. Anticoagulants like dalteparin are not recommended unless there is a risk of venous thromboembolism. Aspirin can be used as an alternative to colchicine for the first episode of pericarditis. Corticosteroids like prednisolone are not recommended as first-line therapy but can be considered for patients who cannot tolerate colchicine or do not respond to NSAIDs or aspirin. Alteplase is not indicated for acute pericarditis and may increase the risk of pericardial haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      133
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 57-year-old man with extensive small bowel stricturing Crohn’s disease underwent a large...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man with extensive small bowel stricturing Crohn’s disease underwent a large small bowel resection. It was complicated by an anastomotic breakdown which required a further resection and jejunostomy formation. He was referred to a local intestinal failure unit and, after a period of assessment, was discharged home on parenteral nutrition. He gained weight and made good progress, although an intermittently high-output stoma persisted. When reviewed in clinic after a year on home parenteral nutrition, he complained of hair loss, a skin rash, and impairment of taste. Examination revealed a superficial scaling erythematous patchy rash that was most prominent in intertriginous areas and periorally. What is the most probable nutrient deficiency?

      Your Answer: Selenium

      Correct Answer: Zinc

      Explanation:

      Understanding Zinc Deficiency and Acrodermatitis Enteropathica

      Zinc deficiency is a condition that can lead to a range of symptoms, including acrodermatitis, which is characterized by red, crusted lesions that appear in an acral distribution, peri-orificial, perianal, and alopecia. Other symptoms of zinc deficiency include short stature, hypogonadism, hepatosplenomegaly, geophagia (ingesting clay/soil), and cognitive impairment.

      One specific form of zinc deficiency is known as acrodermatitis enteropathica, which is a recessively inherited partial defect in intestinal zinc absorption. This condition can lead to a range of symptoms, including skin lesions, diarrhea, and other gastrointestinal issues. Treatment may involve zinc supplementation and dietary changes to ensure adequate zinc intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      111.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old man was referred by his doctor for investigation of his 6-month...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man was referred by his doctor for investigation of his 6-month history of lower limb peripheral neuropathy. Upon examination, he had a mixed sensory-motor peripheral neuropathy affecting his feet and a positive Romberg's test. He had scarring on his lower legs from childhood sores when he lived in Jamaica, but has been living in the UK for 40 years. His investigations revealed a positive Treponemal EIA and Treponema pallidum particle agglutination, but a negative Rapid plasma reagin (RPR). What is the most likely explanation for his syphilis serology?

      Your Answer: Fully treated prior syphilis infection

      Correct Answer: Yaws

      Explanation:

      The patient’s positive results for EIA and TPPA tests, along with a history of leg sores during childhood and Jamaican background, suggest a possible diagnosis of yaws. This disease is caused by a bacterium related to the one causing syphilis and can lead to skin lesions and scarring. While the patient’s peripheral neuropathy is likely due to poorly controlled diabetes, a lumbar puncture should be performed to rule out neurosyphilis. The possibility of a false positive is less likely due to the presence of two positive results. The patient’s clinical history does not suggest prior syphilis infection or systemic lupus erythematosus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      68.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old female presents to the clinic with a worsening of fatigue that...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents to the clinic with a worsening of fatigue that she has been experiencing for several months. She reports constipation, cold intolerance, and dry skin. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. During examination, her lying blood pressure is 110/75 mmHg, which drops to 95/60 mmHg upon standing.

      The following are the results of her investigations:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 110 g/l
      - Sodium (Na+): 131 mmol/l
      - Fasting glucose: 7.5 mmol/l
      - Platelets: 425 * 109/l
      - Potassium (K+): 5.1 mmol/l
      - Bicarbonate: 19 mmol/l
      - White blood cells (WBC): 10.1 * 109/l
      - Urea: 10.5 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune polyendocrinopathy syndrome (APS) - type 2

      Explanation:

      Patients with APS type 2 have a combination of Addison’s disease and either type 1 diabetes mellitus or autoimmune thyroid disease. A fasting glucose level of 7.5 mmol/l may indicate diabetes, but further testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Symptoms such as constipation, cold intolerance, and dry skin suggest hypothyroidism, and thyroid function tests should be conducted. The presence of hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, acidosis, and postural hypotension may indicate hypoaldosteronism. Overall, the diagnosis of APS type 2 should be considered in patients with these multiple autoimmune endocrine disorders.

      Autoimmune polyendocrinopathy syndrome (APS) is a condition where Addison’s disease, an autoimmune hypoadrenalism, is associated with other endocrine deficiencies in about 10% of patients. There are two types of APS, with type 2 being more common and having a polygenic inheritance linked to HLA DR3/DR4. Patients with APS type 2 have Addison’s disease and either type 1 diabetes mellitus or autoimmune thyroid disease. On the other hand, APS type 1, also known as Multiple Endocrine Deficiency Autoimmune Candidiasis (MEDAC), is a rare autosomal recessive disorder caused by a mutation of the AIRE1 gene on chromosome 21. To be diagnosed with APS type 1, a patient must have two out of three features, which include chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis, Addison’s disease, and primary hypoparathyroidism. Vitiligo can occur in both types of APS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      61.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (2/2) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine (0/1) 0%
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