-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
You encounter a 65-year-old woman who recently underwent a medication review and had urea and electrolytes performed. You have access to her previous results from 6 months ago for comparison. She has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril. During examination, her blood pressure is measured at 135/80 mmHg.
Current blood test results:
- Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 6.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 125 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR 54 ml/min/1.73m2
Blood test results from 6 months ago:
- Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 5.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 122 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR 55 ml/min/1.73m2
What medication should be added to this woman's current regimen?Your Answer: Losartan
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin
Explanation:According to NICE criteria, patients with CKD should be prescribed a statin for the prevention of CVD. This patient meets the criteria as she has a persistent reduction in renal function. Antiplatelet treatment is not necessary for secondary prevention of CVD in this patient. Losartan is not required as her blood pressure is well controlled and a combination of renin-angiotensin system antagonists should not be prescribed to patients with CKD. Metformin has no role in the management of CKD in non-diabetic patients.
Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
The likelihood of a 34-year-old mother having a baby with Down's syndrome is roughly:
Your Answer: 1 in 125
Correct Answer: 1 in 275
Explanation:The risk of Down’s syndrome is 1 in 1,000 at the age of 30, and this risk decreases by a factor of 3 for every 5 years.
Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.
There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.
The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Linda is a 38-year-old woman who presents with sudden onset left iliac fossa pain which woke her up from her sleep. She has taken some paracetamol, but the pain is still 10/10 in intensity. On further questioning, she tells you that she has recently undergone hormonal treatment for IVF and developed ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome as a result. For the last few days she has been feeling nauseous and bloated, however, her symptoms were starting to improve until she developed the pain overnight.
On examination she is afebrile. Her abdomen is not distended, however, there is guarding on palpation of the left iliac fossa.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ovarian torsion
Explanation:If you experience ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, your chances of developing ovarian torsion are higher. This is because the ovary becomes enlarged, which increases the risk of torsion. If you experience sudden pelvic pain and vomiting on one side, it may be a sign of ovarian torsion.
While an ovarian cyst can cause pelvic pain, the sudden onset of pain suggests a cyst accident, such as rupture, haemorrhage, or torsion.
Pelvic inflammatory disease typically causes pelvic pain, fever, and abnormal vaginal bleeding.
Appendicitis usually causes pain in the right iliac fossa.
Understanding Ovarian Torsion
Ovarian torsion is a condition where the ovary twists on its supporting ligaments, leading to a compromised blood supply. This can result in partial or complete torsion of the ovary. When the fallopian tube is also affected, it is referred to as adnexal torsion. The condition is commonly associated with ovarian masses, pregnancy, and ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome. Women of reproductive age are also at risk of developing ovarian torsion.
The most common symptom of ovarian torsion is sudden, severe abdominal pain that is often colicky in nature. Other symptoms include vomiting, distress, and in some cases, fever. Adnexal tenderness may be detected during a vaginal examination. Ultrasound may reveal free fluid or a whirlpool sign. Laparoscopy is usually both diagnostic and therapeutic for ovarian torsion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old Caucasian man visits his GP for a routine health check-up. During the examination, his clinic blood pressure is found to be elevated. Further ambulatory monitoring reveals a daytime average measurement of 160/96 mmHg. His blood and urine tests show the following results:
- Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Creatinine 136 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 56 ml/min/1.73 m² (>90)
- HbA1c 39 mmol/mol (<42)
- Urinary albumin: creatinine ratio 45 mg/mmol (<3)
The patient confirms that the urine sample was produced in the early morning, and his eGFR is unchanged from last year. What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Commence dapagliflozin
Correct Answer: Commence ramipril
Explanation:Patients who have chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of >30 mg/mmol should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor or an ARB, regardless of age or ethnicity, to reduce the progression of kidney damage. In the case of a man with stage 2 hypertension and chronic kidney disease G3aA3, commencing ramipril is the correct choice. His blood pressure target should be less than 140/90 mmHg. Amlodipine is not recommended for patients with chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of >30 mg/mmol. Dapagliflozin is not appropriate for this man as he doesn’t have type 2 diabetes. Referring him to a nephrologist is not necessary at this time as he doesn’t meet the criteria for specialist referral. While lifestyle modifications should be advised, pharmacological treatment is necessary for this man given the severity of his condition.
Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management
Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.
To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.
According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.
The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Each of the following is linked to hypertrichosis, except for which one?
Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation:Hypertrichosis is the result of Porphyria cutanea tarda, not hirsutism.
Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis
Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.
Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old lady comes to see you about her husband. He suffers with Alzheimer's dementia and she is finding it difficult to cope. She says that she doesn't drive and has had to resort to employing private carers to allow her time to do the shopping. She says that they are both in receipt of generous pensions but her sister has suggested that she applies for any benefits that are applicable.
What can you tell her about the Attendance Allowance (AA)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To qualify for Attendance Allowance patients must be State Pension age or over
Explanation:Attendance Allowance – A Guide for GPs
Attendance Allowance is a tax-free benefit that provides financial assistance to individuals who are State Pension age or older and have a disability that requires additional help with personal care. This benefit is not affected by income or employment status. To qualify, the individual must have required assistance for at least six months, unless they are terminally ill. There are two levels of Attendance Allowance – lower and higher.
As a GP, you may be asked to complete a statement at the end of the Attendance Allowance claim form by your patient. If the decision maker cannot determine benefit entitlement without further evidence, they may request that you complete a medical report based on your medical records and knowledge of the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old Nigerian woman is undergoing treatment for TB.
Which of the following medications speeds up the metabolism of her combined oral contraceptive?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptomycin
Explanation:Tuberculosis Treatment and Pregnancy
When treating tuberculosis in women who are of childbearing age or pregnant, it is important to consider the potential effects of the medication on contraception and fetal development. Rifampicin, a commonly used medication for tuberculosis, can accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, making them less effective. Therefore, patients should be advised to use alternative forms of contraception while taking rifampicin.
If a pregnant woman develops tuberculosis, standard treatment with rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol should be given. However, streptomycin should be avoided as it may be ototoxic to the fetus. Quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, should also be avoided during pregnancy as they have been shown to cause arthropathy in animal studies.
Overall, it is important to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of tuberculosis treatment in pregnant women and to provide appropriate counseling and monitoring throughout the course of treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had recently injured his shoulder in a fall and self-certified for the first seven days with an SC2 note. He then saw a colleague of yours a week ago who gave him a medical certificate to cover the last week. The fit note has been marked you may be fit to return to work taking into account the following advice, has ticked amended duties and has handwritten in the comments section: to avoid heavy lifting. The fit note has been marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
He works in a factory and some of his duties include heavy lifting but he is able to contribute effectively in his role in other areas that do not involve heavy lifting. As this is the case he has been on light duties at work for the last week. He informs you that his shoulder is now fully healed. However, his employer has requested he has a 'return to work note' stating he is fit to return to full work activities due to the previous note being marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
What is the best course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: His employer has a legal responsibility to carry out a formal occupational health assessment by private arrangement with a GP or occupational health specialist and following this it is their decision whether he is ready to return to full duties
Explanation:Return to Work Note in UK Practice
When returning to work after a period of sickness, employers may ask for a return to work note. However, it is important to note that employees do not need to sign this note. The Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) provides guidance for employers and managers, stating that employees can return to work at any time, even before the end of the sick note. This doesn’t breach Employers Liability Compulsory Insurance, as long as a suitable risk assessment has been conducted if necessary. It is important to advise patients and employers of this information and refer them to the DWP guidance. Remember, there is no need to sign a return to work note in UK practice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old has just been diagnosed with hypertension and you have commenced treatment with an ACE inhibitor (ACE-I).
As per NICE guidelines, what are the monitoring obligations after initiating an ACE-I?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No monitoring required
Explanation:Monitoring Recommendations for ACE-I Treatment
After initiating ACE-I treatment, it is recommended by NICE to monitor renal function and serum electrolytes within 1-2 weeks. However, if the patient is at a higher risk of hyperkalaemia or deteriorating renal function, such as those with Peripheral Vascular Disease, diabetes, or the elderly, it is suggested to check within 1 week. Blood pressure should be checked 4 weeks after each dose titration. After the initial monitoring, renal function and serum electrolytes only need to be checked annually unless there are abnormal blood test results or clinical judgement indicates a need for more frequent testing. By following these monitoring recommendations, healthcare professionals can ensure the safety and efficacy of ACE-I treatment for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
When is it suitable to give a pertussis vaccine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To a child who is HIV positive
Explanation:Reasons to Withhold Vaccination
Vaccination is an important aspect of healthcare, but there are certain situations where it may be necessary to withhold it. For example, pertussis immunisation should not be given to individuals with a history of prolonged seizures and encephalopathy within seven days of the first vaccine. However, a history of convulsions or a family history of epilepsy doesn’t warrant withholding immunisation. It is important to seek specialist opinion if an individual has an evolving neurological condition or poorly controlled epilepsy.
In general, any vaccination should be postponed if an individual is suffering from a significant acute illness with fever or systemic upset. However, HIV-infected infants should still receive all appropriate killed vaccines according to the usual schedule. They should also receive polio, measles, mumps, and rubella vaccines, as the risk of these infections outweighs the risks of immunisation. The inactivated polio vaccine may be preferable in this case.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these reasons to withhold vaccination to avoid unnecessary missed opportunities for vaccination and to ensure the safety and effectiveness of immunisation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint of a severely itchy rash on his wrist that appeared suddenly a few weeks ago. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
Upon examination of the flexor aspect of John's left wrist, you observe multiple 3-5 mm shiny flat-topped papules that are violet in color. Upon closer inspection, you notice white streaks on the surface of the papules. There are no other affected skin areas, and no oromucosal changes are present.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A potent topical steroid such as betamethasone valerate 0.1%
Explanation:Lichen planus is typically treated with potent topical steroids as a first-line treatment, especially for managing the itching caused by the rash. While this condition can occur at any age, it is more common in middle-aged individuals. Mild topical steroids are not as effective as potent ones in treating the rash. Referral to a dermatologist and skin biopsy may be necessary if there is diagnostic uncertainty, but in this case, it is not required. Severe or widespread lichen planus may require oral steroids, and if there is little improvement, narrow band UVB therapy may be considered as a second-line treatment.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man presents with hypogonadism and infertility. He had a normal puberty and there is no significant family history. On physical examination, he has gynaecomastia, small testes, and is tall. His sense of smell is normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klinefelter syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Syndromes and Their Characteristics
Klinefelter Syndrome: The Most Common Sex-Chromosome Abnormality
Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the addition of an extra X chromosome (XXY) due to non-disjunction. It is the most common sex-chromosome abnormality, affecting 1 in 600 male births. Men with Klinefelter syndrome tend to be tall and may have mild learning difficulties, although many have normal intellect. This syndrome is also the most common cause of male hypogonadism and infertility.
Fragile X Syndrome: A Learning Disability Disorder
Fragile X syndrome is an X-linked-dominant disorder that affects both sexes. In males, it is associated with macro-orchidism, but not hypogonadism or infertility. Females with Fragile X syndrome may experience premature ovarian failure. People with this syndrome have moderate-to-severe learning disabilities and average height.
Kallmann Syndrome: A Disorder Associated with Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism
Kallmann syndrome is a genetic disorder associated with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, where levels of luteinising hormone and follicular stimulating hormone are low. It has several inheritance patterns, including dominant, recessive, and X-linked. People with Kallmann syndrome fail to go through puberty and are usually infertile. They also have anosmia, but most have normal or above normal height.
Marfan Syndrome: A Disorder Associated with Tall Stature
Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder that causes people to be tall and thin with long arms and legs compared to their trunk. It is not associated with hypogonadism or infertility, and intelligence is normal.
XYY Syndrome: A Rare Genetic Disorder
XYY syndrome is a rare genetic disorder caused by the addition of an extra Y chromosome in males due to non-disjunction. Symptoms are few but may include being tall, having acne, and a risk of learning difficulty. It is not associated with hypogonadism or infertility.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
You assess a 62-year-old man who has been discharged after experiencing a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI) and receiving percutaneous coronary intervention. What is the appropriate timeframe for him to resume sexual activity after his MI?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:After a heart attack, it is safe to resume sexual activity after a period of 4 weeks.
Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI. Patients who have had an MI should be offered dual antiplatelet therapy, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. Lifestyle changes such as following a Mediterranean-style diet and engaging in regular exercise are also recommended. Sexual activity may resume after four weeks, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used after six months, but caution should be exercised in patients taking nitrates or nicorandil.
Dual antiplatelet therapy is now the standard treatment for most patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome. Ticagrelor and prasugrel are now more commonly used as ADP-receptor inhibitors. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend adding ticagrelor to aspirin for medically managed patients and prasugrel or ticagrelor for those who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention. The second antiplatelet should be stopped after 12 months, but this may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events.
For patients who have had an acute MI and have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, treatment with an aldosterone antagonist such as eplerenone should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy. Proper management and adherence to these guidelines can significantly reduce the risk of further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
During a routine baby check, you observe a small, soft umbilical hernia in a 7 week-old baby boy. What steps should be taken?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Watch and wait
Explanation:It is common for babies to have small umbilical hernias, which typically resolve on their own by the time the child is 12 months old. Parents should not worry as treatment is usually not necessary. However, they should be aware of the signs of obstruction or strangulation, such as vomiting, pain, and the inability to push the hernia in. These symptoms are rare in infants. If the hernia is still present when the child is around 2 years old, parents should bring the child to a surgeon for referral. It is not helpful to try to treat the hernia by strapping or taping things over the area, as this can irritate the skin.
Understanding Umbilical Hernia in Children
Umbilical hernia is a common condition that can be found in children during their newborn exam. It is characterized by a bulge or protrusion near the belly button, caused by a weakness in the abdominal muscles. While it may cause concern for parents, it usually resolves on its own by the age of three and doesn’t require any treatment.
However, certain associations have been identified with umbilical hernia in children. Afro-Caribbean infants are more likely to develop this condition, as well as those with Down’s syndrome and mucopolysaccharide storage diseases. It is important for parents to be aware of these associations and to inform their healthcare provider if their child falls into any of these categories.
Overall, umbilical hernia in children is a common and usually harmless condition. With proper monitoring and awareness of any associated risk factors, parents can ensure their child’s health and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
After the 2014 National Review of Asthma Deaths, what is the minimum number of salbutamol prescriptions in the last 6 months that should trigger an immediate assessment of a patient's asthma management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12
Explanation:The National Review of Asthma Deaths (NRAD) found that only 23% of the 195 people who died from asthma had personal asthma action plans, and 43% had not had an asthma review in general practice in the year before their death. The report identified factors that could have avoided death in relation to the implementation of asthma guidelines by health professionals, including lack of specific asthma expertise and knowledge of UK asthma guidelines. The report recommended referral to secondary care for patients requiring BTS stepwise treatment 4 or 5, assessment of inhaler technique at annual review, monitoring of non-adherence to inhaled corticosteroids, and the use of combination inhalers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus is concerned about her blood sugar levels and seeks advice. What is the target blood sugar level before meals and at other times of the day (excluding mornings)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4-7 mmol/l
Explanation:Blood glucose targets in individuals with type 1 diabetes:
Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines
The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. The condition can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and is associated with micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide useful information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.
One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be taken into account. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also important, with a recommended frequency of at least 4 times a day, including before meals and before bed. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.
When it comes to insulin, NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens over twice-daily mixed insulin regimens for all adults. Twice-daily insulin detemir is the preferred regime, with once-daily insulin glargine or insulin detemir as an alternative. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins for mealtime insulin replacement.
Finally, NICE recommends considering adding metformin if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher. These guidelines provide a useful framework for managing type 1 diabetes and improving patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of lethargy. During a work-up, her fasting plasma glucose level was found to be 6.3 mmol/l. The GP registrar ordered an HbA1c test to confirm the diagnosis of prediabetes. What is the most probable condition/situation that could render the test result invalid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemolytic anaemia
Explanation:HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis in certain conditions such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, and chronic kidney disease.
The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man with a four-month history of general malaise has a routine blood test that shows raised serum calcium and raised alkaline phosphatase.
Which of the following statements regarding a possible diagnosis is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised parathyroid hormone levels in the presence of high calcium suggest hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Hyperparathyroidism and its Differential Diagnosis
Hyperparathyroidism is a condition characterized by elevated levels of parathyroid hormone and calcium. Primary hyperparathyroidism is suspected when high calcium levels are accompanied by high parathyroid hormone levels. In this condition, bone alkaline phosphatase levels are usually elevated due to increased osteoblastic activity. However, in some cases, alkaline phosphatase levels may remain within the normal range.
Contrary to popular belief, myeloma doesn’t often present with high alkaline phosphatase levels. In fact, multiple myeloma is usually associated with normal alkaline phosphatase levels, unless there are fractures. This is because bony destruction in myeloma is caused by increased osteoclastic activity without any compensatory remodelling by osteoblasts.
Excess dietary calcium is not a common cause of high alkaline phosphatase levels. Instead, it can lead to hypercalcaemia. High calcium and alkaline phosphatase levels are usually indicative of malignancy, but they can also be caused by thyrotoxicosis or sarcoidosis. In bony metastases, the raised alkaline phosphatase reflects increased osteoblastic activity.
Sarcoidosis is not typically associated with hypocalcaemia. Instead, it can cause hypercalcaemia due to the uncontrolled synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 by macrophages, leading to increased calcium absorption in the intestine and resorption in bone. Raised alkaline phosphatase levels in sarcoidosis may reflect the presence of liver granulomas.
In summary, hyperparathyroidism should be suspected in the presence of high calcium and parathyroid hormone levels. However, other conditions such as myeloma, excess dietary calcium, and sarcoidosis can also cause similar symptoms and should be considered in the differential diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man presents with a 72-hour history of lower abdominal pain, dysuria, and frequent urination. He has no prior history of urinary issues and no significant medical history. Upon urine dipstick testing, leucocytes and nitrites are positive while blood and protein are negative. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotics
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, men with symptoms of a lower UTI should receive oral antibiotics such as trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, based on local microbiology protocols. This patient’s dipstick test is positive for nitrites, indicating a UTI, and he should be treated accordingly.
Intravenous antibiotics are not typically necessary for UTI treatment unless the patient experiences rigors, chills, vomiting, or confusion. Therefore, this option is not appropriate for this patient.
Men with UTIs should not be routinely referred to urology unless the infection is recurrent. The two-week rule pathway should be followed for patients aged 45 and over with unexplained visible haematuria or aged 60 and over with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test.
While it may be important to rule out a sexually transmitted infection, this patient’s symptoms suggest a UTI, and there is no indication of an STI in his medical history. Therefore, empirical antibiotics should be administered initially.
Although it is important to perform a urinary MC+S test to assess for resistant bacteria, antibiotic treatment should not be delayed while waiting for the results. In this case, prompt treatment is necessary to prevent the infection from spreading or causing sepsis.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome is brought in by his parents for his yearly check-up. He has recently visited the optometrist. What is the most common ophthalmological abnormality that is likely to be detected in a child with Down syndrome? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refractive error
Explanation:Common Ophthalmological Abnormalities in Children with Down Syndrome
Children with Down syndrome are more likely to experience refractive errors, with up to 80% of them affected. However, it can be challenging to identify signs of this condition in children who may have difficulty expressing themselves. Cataracts are not common in childhood Down syndrome, but glaucoma is slightly more prevalent than in the general population. Nystagmus occurs in 10% of cases, while squint affects 20% of children with Down syndrome. While these conditions are relatively common, it is essential to monitor and manage them to prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A new anti-epileptic drug is being tested for adolescents with absence seizures. The control group consists of 300 adolescents while 200 adolescents are given the new drug. After 6 months, 80 adolescents in the control group had a seizure while only 10 adolescents in the group taking the new medication had a seizure. What is the relative risk reduction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 75%
Explanation:Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials
Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.
To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of a lump in his throat and increasing hoarseness that has been present for the past 3 weeks. He reports having a cold 4 weeks ago but denies experiencing heartburn, weight loss, nausea and vomiting, or difficulty swallowing. He is a non-smoker and drinks 12 units of alcohol per week. There is no significant medical history to note.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laryngopharyngeal reflux
Explanation:Laryngopharyngeal reflux may be the cause of globus and hoarseness in the absence of any red flags. This condition is often referred to as ‘silent’ reflux. While globus hystericus is a symptom of anxiety, it is unlikely to persist without other autonomic symptoms. Gastro-oesophageal reflux, on the other hand, is characterized by retrosternal burning and regurgitation that worsens when lying down or leaning forward and is relieved by antacids. Post-nasal drip, which is commonly triggered by colds and flu, typically presents with an intractable cough or throat clearing that is worse at night.
Understanding Laryngopharyngeal Reflux
Laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) is a condition that occurs when stomach acid flows back into the throat, causing inflammation in the larynx and hypopharynx mucosa. It is a common diagnosis, accounting for approximately 10% of ear, nose, and throat referrals. Symptoms of LPR include a sensation of a lump in the throat, hoarseness, chronic cough, dysphagia, heartburn, and sore throat. The external examination of the neck should be normal, with no masses, and the posterior pharynx may appear erythematous.
Diagnosis of LPR can be made without further investigations in the absence of red flags. However, the NICE cancer referral guidelines should be reviewed for red flags such as persistent, unilateral throat discomfort, dysphagia, and persistent hoarseness. Lifestyle measures such as avoiding fatty foods, caffeine, chocolate, and alcohol can help manage LPR. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors and sodium alginate liquids like Gaviscon can also be used to manage symptoms.
In summary, Laryngopharyngeal reflux is a common condition that can cause discomfort and inflammation in the throat. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if red flags are present. Lifestyle measures and medication can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman has been referred to the outpatient clinic due to declining renal function. After diagnosis, it is determined that she has AD polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). Her family history reveals that her mother died of a stroke at the age of 46, and her father is still alive. She is worried about the likelihood of passing on the disorder to her daughter. What is the chance that her daughter will inherit ADPKD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) is a genetic condition that usually manifests between the ages of 30-50. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, meaning that if one parent has the condition, there is a 50% chance of passing it on to their child.
ADPKD is characterized by the development of cysts in the kidneys, which can lead to deteriorating renal function and hypertension. In addition to renal cysts, patients may also have hepatic and berry aneurysms. A maternal history of these conditions may be highly relevant in determining the risk of developing ADPKD.
It is important for individuals with a family history of ADPKD to undergo genetic testing and regular monitoring to detect and manage any potential complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old boy is brought to see you by his mother due to concerns about his hearing. The school has raised concerns about his lack of attention in class and his speech and language development. The mother reports that at home, she has noticed her son sitting close to the television and frequently having to repeat herself when speaking to him.
Upon reviewing the medical records, it is noted that the child has had recurrent episodes of acute otitis media affecting both ears over the past 18 months. He was last seen by a colleague at the practice three months ago and was treated for right-sided acute otitis media with a course of oral amoxicillin.
On examination, the child appears to be in good health, but both tympanic membranes are intact and have a grey color with absent light reflexes.
What is the most appropriate initial management strategy for this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for specialist assessment
Explanation:Management of Otitis Media with Effusion (Glue Ear)
Eighty percent of children under 10-years-old will have experienced at least one episode of otitis media with effusion (OME), commonly known as glue ear. This condition is characterized by relapsing and remitting episodes that can last for 6-10 weeks, with bimodal peaks at 2 and 5 years of age. The main concern with glue ear is the associated conductive hearing impairment, which can have significant repercussions for a child’s education and speech and language development.
In cases where symptoms persist, specialist referral to audiometry or ENT for hearing assessment is indicated, probably leading to the need for ENT intervention (grommet insertion) based on the clinical picture (developmental issues are present and the problems are persistent). It is worth noting that antibiotics, topical and systemic steroids, decongestants, mucolytics, and antihistamines are not recommended in the routine management of OME.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend a period of watchful waiting for three months, with two pure-tone audiograms three months apart, to confirm and quantify the hearing loss. Audiometry is important to ensure there is not a more significant hearing deficit. Ultimately, surgical treatment in the form of ventilation tube (grommet) insertion is effective in managing OME.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner seeking help to quit using illicit opioids but is struggling to achieve complete abstinence. He has recently been prescribed maintenance methadone by his local drug and alcohol withdrawal service.
What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Have the patient collect their prescribed drugs daily from a nominated pharmacy
Explanation:Best Practices for Prescribing Methadone for Opioid Addiction Treatment
Methadone is a commonly prescribed medication for opioid addiction treatment. However, prescribing and dispensing methadone requires careful consideration and adherence to best practices. Here are some guidelines for prescribing methadone for opioid addiction treatment:
1. Have the patient collect their prescribed drugs daily from a nominated pharmacy.
2. Prescribe a week-long methadone regime, reducing the dosage on a daily basis.
3. Ask the patient whether they would prefer an oral or injectable form of methadone.
4. Give the patient a prescription which they can take to a pharmacy of their choice in order to collect their methadone.
5. Nominate a representative who can collect the patient’s methadone on their behalf.It is important to note that prescribing and dispensing methadone should be done in consultation with the patient and their healthcare team. By following these best practices, patients can receive safe and effective treatment for opioid addiction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
You are speaking with a 57-year-old man who is worried about his blood pressure control. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home daily for the past week and consistently reads over 140/90 mmHg, with the highest reading being 154/86 mmHg. He has no chest symptoms and is otherwise healthy. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking perindopril. He previously took amlodipine, but it was discontinued due to significant ankle edema. His recent blood test results are as follows:
Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 5.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 80 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thiazide-like diuretic
Explanation:To improve control of poorly managed hypertension in a patient already taking an ACE inhibitor, the recommended step 2 treatment is to add either a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, the preferred choice is a thiazide-like diuretic as the patient has a history of intolerance to calcium channel blockers. Aldosterone antagonist and beta-blocker are not appropriate choices for step 2 management. It is important to note that combining an ACE inhibitor with an angiotensin receptor blocker is not recommended due to the risk of acute kidney injury.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old female presents with a complaint about her legs. She is typically healthy and doesn't take any regular medications. She reports experiencing an intense urge to move her legs in the evenings and when in bed, describing it as fidgety, twitchy legs. This has been affecting her sleep and occurs daily. Although massaging and stretching her legs provide some relief, she finds her symptoms both intrusive and tiresome. Her husband also reports being awakened several times by her sudden leg jerks during the night, which she seems to have no control over. Recent blood tests are normal, including a normal full blood count, ferritin, renal function, liver function, bone profile, thyroid function, fasting glucose, and inflammatory markers. What treatment options may be helpful for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Baclofen
Explanation:Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment Options
Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS) is a condition where patients experience an intense desire to move their legs, particularly in the evenings and at night. This can lead to sleep disturbance and involuntary leg jerks. It is important to rule out secondary causes such as diabetes, hypothyroidism, and renal disease, as well as consider a patient’s drug history as certain medications can be the underlying cause of symptoms. Non-pharmacological approaches such as stretching, massage, and warmth can be effective in mild cases, but drug treatment should be considered for frequent or intrusive symptoms. Ropinirole and levodopa are commonly used medications for RLS, with levodopa being the drug of choice for intermittent symptoms. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of acute severe pain in his upper abdomen, which radiates to his back. He experiences severe nausea and vomiting and finds that sitting forwards is the only way to alleviate the pain. His medical history includes hypertension and gallstones, which were incidentally discovered during an ultrasound scan. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Acute Upper Abdominal Pain
Acute upper abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some possible diagnoses based on the given symptoms:
1. Acute pancreatitis: This condition is often caused by gallstones or alcohol consumption and presents with severe upper abdominal pain. Blood tests show elevated amylase levels, and immediate hospital admission is necessary.
2. Budd-Chiari syndrome: This rare condition involves the blockage of the hepatic vein and can cause right upper abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, and ascites.
3. Acute cholecystitis: This condition is characterized by localized pain in the upper right abdomen and a positive Murphy’s sign (pain worsened by deep breathing).
4. Perforated duodenal ulcer: This condition can cause sudden upper abdominal pain, but it is usually associated with a history of dyspepsia or NSAID use.
5. Renal colic: This condition causes severe pain in the loin-to-groin area and is often accompanied by urinary symptoms and hematuria.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute upper abdominal pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his annual review for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In the clinic, his blood pressure measures 170/100 mmHg, and you initiate treatment with amlodipine 5mg once daily. What guidance should you provide regarding driving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No need to notify DVLA unless side-effects from medication
Explanation:If you have hypertension and belong to Group 1, there is no requirement to inform the DVLA. However, if you belong to Group 2, your blood pressure must consistently remain below 180/100 mmHg.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
What factors in a patient's medical record could potentially elevate natriuretic peptide levels (such as NT-proBNP) that are utilized to evaluate possible heart failure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation:Natriuretic Peptide Levels in Heart Failure Assessment
Natriuretic peptide levels, specifically NT-ProBNP levels, are utilized in the evaluation of heart failure to determine the likelihood of diagnosis and the urgency of any necessary referral. These levels can be influenced by various factors.
Factors that can decrease natriuretic peptide levels include a body mass index over 35 kg/m2, diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, beta blockers, and aldosterone antagonists. On the other hand, factors that can increase natriuretic peptide levels include age over 70, left ventricular hypertrophy, myocardial ischaemia, tachycardia, right ventricular overload, hypoxia, pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary embolism, chronic kidney disease with an eGFR less than 60 mL/min/1.73m2, sepsis, COPD, diabetes mellitus, and liver cirrhosis.
It is important to consider these factors when interpreting natriuretic peptide levels in the assessment of heart failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)