MSFinals-1671

A 29-year-old woman presents with two episodes of post-coital bleeding. She reports that she noticed some red spotting immediately after intercourse, which settled shortly afterwards. She is on the combined oral contraceptive pill, with a regular partner, and does not use barrier contraception.
Examination reveals a malodorous, green, frothy discharge and an erythematosus cervix with small areas of exudation. High vaginal and endocervical swabs were performed.
Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate management?