MRCP2-0678

A 49-year-old woman comes to the hospital after experiencing a self-limited tonic-clonic seizure. She confesses to regularly misusing benzodiazepines and opioids. She recently switched her primary care physician (PCP) because her previous one refused to prescribe her the 70 mg lorazepam and 200 mg of oxycodone she takes daily. She does not consume alcohol and has not been known to misuse other prescription drugs.

Upon examination in the Emergency Department, no abnormalities are found.

What is the most appropriate course of action?