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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old lady comes to her GP for a yearly check-up of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old lady comes to her GP for a yearly check-up of her heart failure treatment.

      She has a blood pressure reading of 165/90 mmHg. At present, she is taking furosemide and aspirin, and she feels short of breath when walking uphill.

      What would be the best medication to include in her treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      First Line Treatments for Heart Failure

      ACE inhibitors and beta blockers are the primary medications used in the treatment of heart failure. The SOLVD and CONSENSUS trials have shown that ACE inhibitors are a cornerstone in the management of heart failure. It has been proven that higher doses of ACE inhibitors provide greater benefits. These medications are generally well-tolerated, particularly in mild cases. If ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, an ARB can be used as an alternative. Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists are also recommended as a first-line treatment for heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old male smoker with a family history of hypertension has persistently high...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male smoker with a family history of hypertension has persistently high resting blood pressure.

      Ambulatory testing revealed a level of 146/84 mmHg. He has no signs of end organ damage on standard testing.

      According to the latest NICE guidance (NG136), what would be your most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Start treatment with an ACE inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Start treatment with a calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Importance of NICE Guidance on Hypertension

      This passage discusses the latest NICE guidance on hypertension and its importance in evaluating the long-term balance of treatment benefit and risks for adults under 40 with hypertension. However, it also highlights the criticism that the guidance has received from some clinicians, particularly regarding the use of ambulatory and home blood pressure monitoring. It is important to have a balanced view and be aware of other guidelines and consensus opinions in medicine. While AKT questions may not contradict NICE guidance, it is essential to consider the bigger picture and not solely rely on the latest guidance. Remember that the questions test your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion. Proper understanding of NICE guidance on hypertension is crucial, but it is equally important to have a broader perspective on the matter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man who had a stroke 2 years ago is being evaluated....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man who had a stroke 2 years ago is being evaluated. He was prescribed simvastatin 40 mg for secondary prevention of further cardiovascular disease after his diagnosis. A fasting lipid profile was conducted last week and the results are as follows:

      Total cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l
      HDL cholesterol 1.1 mmol/l
      LDL cholesterol 4.0 mmol/l
      Triglyceride 1.6 mmol/l

      Based on the latest NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Switch to simvastatin 80 mg on

      Correct Answer: Switch to atorvastatin 80 mg on

      Explanation:

      In 2014, the NICE guidelines were updated regarding the use of statins for primary and secondary prevention. Patients with established cardiovascular disease are now recommended to be treated with Atorvastatin 80 mg. If the LDL cholesterol levels remain high, it is suitable to consider switching the patient’s medication.

      Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines

      Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      85.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old boy is found to have a systolic murmur.
    Select from the list...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is found to have a systolic murmur.
      Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of this being an innocent murmur.

      Your Answer: Heard during a febrile illness

      Explanation:

      Understanding Innocent Heart Murmurs in Children

      Innocent heart murmurs are common in children between the ages of 3 and 8 years. They occur when blood flows noisily through a normal heart, usually due to increased blood flow or faster blood movement. Innocent murmurs are typically systolic and vibratory in quality, with an intensity of 2/6 or 1/6. They can change with posture and vary from examination to examination. Harsh murmurs, pansystolic murmurs, late systolic murmurs, and continuous murmurs are usually indicative of pathology. Heart sounds in innocent murmurs are normal, with a split second heart sound in inspiration and a single second heart sound in expiration. It’s important to note that the absence of symptoms doesn’t exclude important pathology, and some murmurs due to congenital heart disease may not be easily audible at birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 5 - A 64-year-old man who underwent mechanical mitral valve replacement four years ago is...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old man who underwent mechanical mitral valve replacement four years ago is being evaluated. What is the probable long-term antithrombotic treatment he is receiving?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Antithrombotic therapy for prosthetic heart valves differs depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically only require aspirin, while mechanical valves require both warfarin and aspirin. However, according to the 2017 European Society of Cardiology guidelines, aspirin is only given in addition if there is another indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Direct acting oral anticoagulants are not used for patients with a mechanical heart valve.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.

      It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      284.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following statements regarding QFracture is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding QFracture is correct?

      Your Answer: Estimates the 5-year risk of fragility fracture

      Correct Answer: Is based on UK primary care data

      Explanation:

      The data used for QFracture is derived from primary care in the UK.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of leg pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of leg pain while walking. Upon examination, his feet appear cool and dusky, with the right foot being more affected than the left. An ankle brachial pressure index is measured at 0.8 on the right and 0.9 on the left. Both femoral pulses are present, but posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses are absent in both legs. His blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg.
      Which of the following medications is LEAST likely to provide relief for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Simvastatin

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)

      Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD) is a condition that causes intermittent claudication. Antiplatelet therapy is recommended for those with symptomatic disease to reduce major cardiovascular events. Clopidogrel is suggested as the drug of first choice by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors have been shown to reduce cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in patients with PAD. However, they should be carefully monitored as more than 25% of patients have co-existent renal artery stenosis. Statins are also recommended as they reduce the risk of mortality, cardiovascular events and stroke in patients with PAD. Naftidrofuryl oxalate is an option for the treatment of intermittent claudication in people with PAD for whom vasodilator therapy is considered appropriate. Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 29-year-old female patient complains of intermittent episodes of white fingers that turn...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female patient complains of intermittent episodes of white fingers that turn blue and then red, accompanied by pain. The symptoms are more severe during winter but persist throughout the year, and wearing gloves doesn't alleviate them. Physical examination of her hands, skin, and other joints reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following treatments might be helpful?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.

      If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      85.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old man is found to be in atrial fibrillation during a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is found to be in atrial fibrillation during a routine check-up. He reports having noticed some irregularity in his pulse for a few weeks. What is the appropriate management for him?

      Your Answer: Verapamil can be added to the ß-blocker if rate control is inadequate

      Correct Answer: ß-blockers are recommended as first-line treatment

      Explanation:

      Rate Control vs Rhythm Control in Atrial Fibrillation: Recent Trials and Treatment Guidelines

      Recent trials have confirmed that for most patients with atrial fibrillation, rate control is superior to rhythm control in terms of survival benefit. However, DC cardioversion may be considered for new onset and younger patients. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend first-line therapy with ß-blockers or rate-limiting calcium antagonists, or digoxin if these are not tolerated. Verapamil should not be used in combination with a ß-blocker. These guidelines provide a framework for the management of atrial fibrillation and can help clinicians make informed treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      353.2
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance policy. She has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker, and drinks 3 units of alcohol weekly. During examination, a faint systolic murmur is detected. Her ECG shows a heart rate of 68 bpm and is normal. An echocardiogram reveals a bicuspid aortic valve.
      What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent endocarditis during dental procedures

      Correct Answer: Referral for heart surgery at a later date

      Explanation:

      Bicuspid Aortic Valve: Risks and Recommendations

      Bicuspid aortic valve is a common congenital heart disease in adults, occurring in 1-2% of the population with a familial incidence of around 10%. While some patients may be asymptomatic, about 30% develop complications such as aortic stenosis or insufficiency, which may require surgery. Additionally, the aorta of patients with bicuspid aortic valve has reduced tensile strength, putting them at higher risk for aortic dissection and aneurysm formation in the ascending aorta.

      To manage the cardiovascular risk associated with this condition, low-dose aspirin and cholesterol-lowering drugs may be prescribed as appropriate. While there is evidence supporting a familial predisposition, screening for family members is not yet universally recommended. Finally, while infective endocarditis is a potential complication, antibiotic prophylaxis during dental procedures is no longer recommended.

      In summary, bicuspid aortic valve requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications and ensure optimal cardiovascular health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      69.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (2/10) 20%
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