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Question 1
Correct
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A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is called?
Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia
Explanation:Pernicious anaemia is a type of autoimmune disease in which antibodies form against the parietal cells or intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of vitamin B12. Blood testing typically shows a macrocytic, normochromic anaemia and low levels of serum vitamin B12. A Schilling test can then be used to distinguish between pernicious anaemia, vitamin B12 malabsorption and vitamin B12 deficiency. Symptoms include shortness of breath, pallor and diarrhoea etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30 year old female chef is taken to the hospital after complaining of abdominal pain in the right iliac fossa with fever and diarrhoea. She is taken to the theatre for an appendicectomy but her appendix appears normal. However, her terminal ileum appears thickened and engorged. Which of the following has most likely caused her infection?
Your Answer: Salmonella
Correct Answer: Yersinia enterocolitica
Explanation:Answer: Yersinia enterocolitica
Yersinia enterocolitica (see the image below) is a bacterial species in the family Enterobacteriaceae that most often causes enterocolitis, acute diarrhoea, terminal ileitis, mesenteric lymphadenitis, and pseudo appendicitis but, if it spreads systemically, can also result in fatal sepsis. Symptoms of Y enterocolitica infection typically include the following:
Diarrhoea – The most common clinical manifestation of this infection; diarrhoea may be bloody in severe cases
Low-grade fever
Abdominal pain – May localize to the right lower quadrant
Vomiting – Present in approximately 15-40% of cases
Mesenteric adenitis, mesenteric ileitis, and acute pseudo appendicitis
These manifestations are characterized by the following symptoms (although nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and aphthous ulcers of the mouth can also occur):Fever
Abdominal pain
Tenderness of the right lower quadrant
Leucocytosis
Pseudo appendicitis syndrome is more common in older children and young adults. Patients with Y enterocolitica infection often undergo appendectomy; several Scandinavian studies suggested a prevalence rate of 3.8-5.6% for infection with Y enterocolitica in patients with suspected appendicitis.
Analysis of several common-source outbreaks in the United States found that 10% of 444 patients with symptomatic, undiagnosed Y enterocolitica infection underwent laparotomy for suspected appendicitis.
Human clinical Y enterocolitica infections ensue after ingestion of the microorganisms in contaminated food or water or by direct inoculation through blood transfusion.
Y enterocolitica is potentially transmitted by contaminated unpasteurized milk and milk products, raw pork, tofu, meats, oysters, and fish. Outbreaks have been associated with raw vegetables; the surface of vegetables can become contaminated with pathogenic microorganisms through contact with soil, irrigation water, fertilizers, equipment, humans, and animals.
Pasteurized milk and dairy products can also cause outbreaks because Yersinia can proliferate at refrigerated temperatures.
Animal reservoirs of Y enterocolitica include swine (principle reservoir), dogs, cats, cows, sheep, goats, rodents, foxes, porcupines, and birds.
Reports of person-to-person spread are conflicting and are generally not observed in large outbreaks. Transmission via blood products has occurred, however, and infection can be transmitted from mother to new-born infant. Faecal-oral transmission among humans has not been proven.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 3
Correct
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A 20-year old gentleman was brought to the emergency department with headache and nausea for 2 days. He also complained of intolerance to bright light and loud sounds. Lumbar puncture showed glucose < 45 mg/dl, protein > 5 mg/dl and neutrophil leucocytosis. The likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer: Meningitis
Explanation:Diagnosis of meningitis can be carried out with examination of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) with a lumbar puncture (LP). In a case of bacterial meningitis, the CSF analysis will show:
– Opening pressure: > 180 mmH2O
– White blood cell count: 10–10 000/μl with neutrophil predominance
– Glucose: < 40 mg/dl
– CSF glucose to serum glucose ratio: < 0.4
– Protein: > 4.5 mg/dl
– Gram stain: positive in > 60%
– Culture: positive in > 80%
– Latex agglutination: may be positive in meningitis due to Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, Escherichia coli and group B streptococci
– Limulus, lysates: positive in Gram-negative meningitis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A specialist registrar was performing the bi-lateral surgical removal of the adrenal glands. He first removed the left adrenal gland before moving on to the right one. However, the registrar noticed that the removal of the right adrenal gland would be a challenge because of an overlying structure. What was this structure that overlies the right suprarenal glad?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The adrenal glands or the suprarenal glands are small glands that are found on top of each of the kidneys. They are retroperitoneal glands. The right adrenal gland is found on top of the right kidney and is closely associated with the inferior vena cava as it directly drains into this large vein. In the case where the right adrenal gland is to be surgically removed, the inferior vena cava might prove a problem to manoeuvre as it overlies the right suprarenal gland. The other blood vessels such as the aorta, right renal, superior mesenteric, splenic artery and the hepatic vein as well as the right crus are not closely associated with either of the suprarenal glands.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 63-year old lady presents with pain in multiple bones and renal failure. On enquiry, there is history of recurrent pneumonia in the past. What will be the likely finding on her bone marrow biopsy?
Your Answer: Blasts
Correct Answer: Plasma cells
Explanation:Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell malignancy that produce excessive monoclonal immunoglobulins. The disease presents with bone pains, renal dysfunction, increased calcium, anaemia and recurrent infections. Diagnosis is by demonstrating the presence of M-protein in urine or serum, lytic bone lesions, light chain proteinuria or excessive plasma cells on marrow biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 33 year old mechanic presents to the A&E department with epigastric pain. An endoscopy is done which shows that he has a punched out ulcer on the anterior wall of the stomach which is shallow and measures 0.8cm in diameter. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute peptic ulcer
Explanation:Peptic ulcer disease can involve the stomach or duodenum. Gastric and duodenal ulcers usually cannot be differentiated based on history alone, although some findings may be suggestive. Epigastric pain is the most common symptom of both gastric and duodenal ulcers, characterized by a gnawing or burning sensation and that occurs after meals—classically, shortly after meals with gastric ulcers and 2-3 hours afterward with duodenal ulcers.
Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is the preferred diagnostic test in the evaluation of patients with suspected peptic ulcer disease. At endoscopy, gastric ulcers appear as discrete mucosal lesions with a punched-out smooth ulcer base, which often is filled with whitish fibrinoid exudate. Ulcers tend to be solitary and well circumscribed and usually are 0.5-2.5 cm in diameter.
Treatment of peptic ulcers varies depending on the aetiology and clinical presentation. The initial management of a stable patient with dyspepsia differs from the management of an unstable patient with upper gastrointestinal (GI) haemorrhage. In the latter scenario, failure of medical management not uncommonly leads to surgical intervention.Treatment options include empiric antisecretory therapy, empiric triple therapy for H pylori infection, endoscopy followed by appropriate therapy based on findings, and H pylori serology followed by triple therapy for patients who are infected. Breath testing for active H pylori infection may be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
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Question 7
Correct
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The midgut loop, also called the primary intestinal loop in a developing embryo, is formed when the midgut bends around which of the following arteries?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric
Explanation:In a developing foetus, the midgut develops to form most of the intestines. During this development process, the midgut usually bends around the superior mesenteric artery and forms what is referred to as the midgut loop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Structures passing through the foramen magnum do NOT include the:
Your Answer: Accessory nerve
Correct Answer: Vagus nerve
Explanation:Structures passing through the foramen magnum include the medulla, meninges, tectorial membrane, anterior spinal artery, vertebral artery and spinal branches of the accessory nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 14 year old boy is suspected of having CSF rhinorrhoea after sustaining a basal skull fracture. Which laboratory test would be able to accurately detect the presence of CSF?
Your Answer: Lab stix testing for protein
Correct Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assay
Explanation:Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assay
Beta-2-transferrin is a protein found only in CSF and perilymph. Since 1979, beta-2-transferrin has been used extensively by otolaryngologists in the diagnosis of CSF rhinorrhoea and skull-base cerebrospinal fluid fistulas. With sensitivity of 94% – 100%, and specificity of 98% – 100%, this assay has become the gold standard in detection of CSF leakage. CSF rhinorrhoea is characterized by clear or xanthochromic watery rhinorrhoea that may not become apparent until nasal packing is removed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 10
Correct
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A 27-year-old male complains of passing painless bright red blood rectally. It has been occurring over the past week and tends to occur post defecation. He also suffers from pruritus ani. The underlying cause is likely to be manageable by treatment from which of the following modalities?
Your Answer: Rubber band ligation
Explanation:The patient has Haemorrhoid Disease
A total of 40% of individuals with haemorrhoids are asymptomatic.
For internal haemorrhoids, bleeding is the most commonly reported symptom. The occurrence of bleeding is usually associated with defecation and almost always painless. The blood is bright red and coats the stool at the end of defection.
Another frequent symptom is the sensation of tissue prolapse. Prolapsed internal haemorrhoids may accompany mild faecal incontinence, mucus discharge, a sensation of perianal fullness, and irritation of perianal skin. Pain is significantly less common with internal haemorrhoids than with external haemorrhoids but can occur in the setting of prolapsed, strangulated internal haemorrhoids that develop gangrenous changes due to the associated ischemia.
In contrast, external haemorrhoids are more likely to be associated with pain, due to activation of perianal innervations associated with thrombosis. Patients typically describe a painful perianal mass that is tender to palpation. This painful mass may be initially increasing in size and severity over time. Bleeding can also occur if ulceration develops from necrosis of the thrombosed haemorrhoid, and this blood tends to be darker and more clotted than the bleeding from the internal disease. Painless external skin tags often result from previous oedematous or thrombosed external haemorrhoids.Lifestyle and dietary modification are the mainstays of conservative medical treatment of haemorrhoid disease. Specifically, lifestyle modifications should include increasing oral fluid intake, reducing fat consumptions, avoiding straining, and regular exercise. Diet recommendations should include increasing fibre intake, which decreases the shearing action of passing a hard stool.
Most patients with grade I and II and select patients with grade III internal hemorrhoidal disease who fail medical treatment can be effectively treated with office-based procedures.
For internal haemorrhoids, rubber band ligation, sclerotherapy, and infrared coagulation are the most common procedures but there is no consensus on optimal treatment. Overall, the goals of each procedure are to decrease vascularity, reduce redundant tissue, and increase hemorrhoidal rectal wall fixation to minimize prolapse.
Rubber band ligation is the most commonly performed procedure in the office and is indicated for grade II and III internal haemorrhoids. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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the action of the semimembranosus muscle is:
Your Answer: Flexion of the hip and extension of the knee
Correct Answer: Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee
Explanation:the semimembranosus is situated at the back and medial side of the thigh. It arises from the upper and outer impression on the tuberosity of the ischium, above and lateral to the biceps femoris and semitendinosus. It is inserted mainly into the horizontal groove on the posterior medial aspect of the medial condyle of the tibia. it flexes the knee and assists in extension of the hip.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The patient who is diagnosed with bladder cancer asked his physician, what could have been the contributing factor in the development of his bladder cancer?
Your Answer: Radon
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Tobacco smoking is the main known contributor to urinary bladder cancer. In most populations, smoking is associated with over half of bladder cancer cases in men and one-third of cases among women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents with signs of inflammation in the first metatarsophalangeal joint: redness, swelling and pain. The analysis of synovial fluid reveals needle-shaped, strongly negatively birefringent crystals. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Pseudogout
Correct Answer: Gout
Explanation:Gout is a rheumatic disease caused by the precipitation of monosodium urate crystals into tissues, usually joints. This causes acute or chronic pain; the acute illness initially affects only one joint, often the first metatarsophalangeal joint. The diagnosis of the disease requires the identification of crystal in the synovial fluid. These crystals are needle-shaped and strongly negatively birefringent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman presents with intermittent diarrhoea for the past eight months and loss in weight of about two kilograms. Colonoscopy is carried out in which appearances of melanosis coli are identified. This is confirmed on biopsy. What could be the most likely cause of melanosis coli in this patient?
Your Answer: Laxative abuse
Explanation:Melanosis coli may have occurred as a result of laxative abuse in this patient.
Melanosis coli, also pseudomelanosis coli, is a disorder of pigmentation of the wall of the colon, often identified at the time of colonoscopy. It is benign, and may have no significant correlation with the disease. The brown pigment seen is lipofuscin in macrophages, not melanin.
According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), chronic diarrhoea is defined as lasting for more than 14 days. It is very common in irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Patients may be divided into those with diarrhoea-predominant IBS and those with constipation-predominant IBS. Along with diarrhoea/constipation, clinical features such as abdominal pain, bloating, weight loss, change in bowel habit, lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms are also seen. Bloody diarrhoea is more common in ulcerative colitis than in Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 15
Correct
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Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis with fibrinoid necrosis, petechial haemorrhages, microinfarcts in the kidneys and elevated plasma renin are common findings in which of the following patients?
Your Answer: A 45-year-old woman with scleroderma
Explanation:Scleroderma, also known as systemic sclerosis, is a chronic disease of the connective tissue. Involvement of the kidneys occurs in patients with diffuse scleroderma, causing rapid onset of high blood pressure with hyperreninemia, thrombotic microangiopathy, and progressive renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Regarding the posterior compartment of the leg, which is correct?
Your Answer: The muscles dorsiflex the foot and are innervated by the tibial nerve
Correct Answer: The muscles plantarflex the foot and are innervated by the tibial nerve
Explanation:The muscles of the back of the leg are subdivided into two groups: superficial and deep. Superficial muscles include gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. Deep muscles include tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus and popliteus. The superficial ( calf muscles) which are responsible for plantarflexion of the foot are supplied by the tibial nerve as follows: the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are supplied by the first and second sacral nerves and the plantaris by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerve (the tibial nerve).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following malignancies is associated with the development of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?
Your Answer: Lung cancer
Explanation:Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome is a rare disorder of the neuromuscular junction. It can occur as a solitary diagnosis but it can also occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung cancer, particularly small-cell histology. It can also be associated with other cancers such as lymphoma, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, T-cell leukaemia, non-small-cell lung cancer, prostate cancer and thymoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 18
Correct
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Regarding the venous drainage of the heart which of these is correct?
Your Answer: The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus and this vein starts at the apex of the heart and ascends with the anterior ventricular branch of the left coronary artery
Explanation:Most of the veins of the heart open into the coronary sinus. This is a wide venous channel, about 2.25 cm in length, situated in the posterior part of the coronary sulcus and covered by muscular fibres from the left atrium. Its tributaries are the great, small and middle cardiac veins, the posterior vein of the left ventricle and the oblique vein of the left atrium. The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 19
Correct
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A 59 year old man presents with septicaemia 48 hours after undergoing a difficult colonoscopy to assess the extent of a caecal carcinoma. His abdomen is soft and non tender. Blood cultures grow gram positive cocci. Which of the following organisms is likely responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Streptococcus bovis
Explanation:Streptococcus bovis (S. bovis) bacteria are associated with colorectal cancer and adenoma. S. bovis is currently named S. gallolyticus. 25-80% of patients with S. bovis/gallolyticus bacteraemia have concomitant colorectal tumours. Colonic neoplasia may arise years after the presentation of bacteraemia or infectious endocarditis of S. bovis/gallolyticus. The presence of S. bovis/gallolyticus bacteraemia and/or endocarditis is also related to the presence of villous or tubular-villous adenomas in the large intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 47 year-old woman was admitted for elective cholecystectomy, with a past history of easy bruising and heavy menstrual periods. The patient was also diagnosed with Willebrand's disease. Willebrand's disease is:
Your Answer: Characterised by decreased factor VII
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:von Willebrand disease is an autosomal dominant disorder marked by the deficiency of vWF, a large protein synthesized by the endothelial cells and megakaryocytes. It mediates adhesion of platelets to the subendothelium at site of vascular injury. Disease characteristics include impaired platelet adhesion, prolonged bleeding time and a functional deficiency of factor VIII (vWF is its carrier protein).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 20-year old college student was diagnosed with meningitis that had developed due to an acute cavernous sinus thrombosis from an ear infection. Which of the following superficial venous routes is the usual path that an infected blood clot takes to reach the cavernous sinus?
Your Answer: Facial vein
Explanation:The facial vein is the usual communication between the cavernous sinus and the pterygoid sinus. It is through this vein that an infected clot can travel to the cavernous sinus and cause infection. The pterygoid plexus is a venous plexus that is situated between the temporalis muscle and lateral pterygoid muscle, and partly between the two pterygoid muscles. The pterygoid plexus is connected to the facial vein by the deep facial vein. This connection is what makes this area where this sinus and the facial vein are located a danger zone. The danger zone or triangle of the face is the area from the corners of the mouth to the nose bridge. The sinus connection in this area makes it possible for infection to reach the cavernous sinus and at times cause meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 22
Correct
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A 56 year old man presents to the emergency with a type IIIc Gustilo and Anderson fracture of distal tibia after being involved in a road traffic accident. He was trapped under the wreckage for about 7 hours and had been bleeding profusely from the fracture site during this time. He is found to have an established neurovascular deficit. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Amputation
Explanation:A below-knee amputation (“BKA”) is a transtibial amputation that involves removing the foot, ankle joint, and distal tibia and fibula with related soft tissue structures. In general, a BKA is preferred over an above-knee amputation (AKA), as the former has better rehabilitation and functional outcomes. There are three major categories of indications for proceeding with a BKA. These include:
– Urgent cases where source control of necrotizing infections or haemorrhagic injuries outweighs limb preservation.
– Less acutely, urgent BKAs may be performed for chronic nonhealing ulcers or significant infections with the risk of impending systemic infection or sepsis.
– Urgent BKAs may be performed where limb salvage has failed to preserve a mangled lower extremity. Adequate resuscitation and stabilization must always have occurred before such a decision, as judged by vital signs, lactate, base deficit, and the management of concomitant injuries.
This man is hemodynamically unstable and the limb is likely to be non-viable after so many hours of entrapment. Hence, the safest option would be primary amputation of the injured limb. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true about a patient who has undergone total colectomy and ileostomy?
Your Answer: This patient is at increased risk of anaemia due to malabsorption of iron
Correct Answer: Following total colectomy and ileostomy, the volume and water content of ileal discharge decreases over time
Explanation:After a patient has undergone total colectomy and ileostomy, the volume of ileal discharge, along with its water content gradually decreases over time. Post surgery, most patients can live a normal life. Iron and vitamin B12 absorption do not take place in the colon and hence are not affected significantly by a colectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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All the following arteries contribute to the blood supply of the hip joint except:
Your Answer: Foveal artery
Correct Answer: Pudendal
Explanation:The blood supply to the hip joint is from two main arteries, the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries. These are branches of the deep artery of the thigh, which itself is a branch of the femoral artery. There is contribution of blood supply from the inferior gluteals, foveal and obturator arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 25
Correct
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Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular teeth and bone:
Your Answer: Inferior alveolar nerve
Explanation:The inferior alveolar nerve (sometimes called the inferior dental nerve) is a branch of the mandibular nerve, which is itself the third branch of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerves supply sensation to the lower teeth of the mandible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 26
Correct
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A young male was diagnosed with hepatitis A, which clinically resolved in 2 weeks. What will his liver biopsy done after 6 months show?
Your Answer: Normal architecture
Explanation:Hepatitis A is the most common acute viral hepatitis, more common in children and young adults. It is caused by Hepatitis A virus, which is a single-stranded RNA picornavirus. The primary route of spread of Hepatitis A is the faecal-oral route. Consumption of contaminated raw shellfish is also a likely causative factor. The shedding of the virus in faecal matter occurs before the onset of symptoms and continues a few days after. Hepatitis A does not lead to chronic hepatitis or cirrhosis, and there is no known chronic carrier state. Hence, a biopsy performed after recovery will show normal hepatocellular architecture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 27
Correct
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The mandibular nerve, which is the largest of the 3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve, exits the cranial cavity through which foramen?
Your Answer: Foramen ovale
Explanation:At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?
Your Answer: Penicillin
Correct Answer: Methicillin
Explanation:Bacterial meningitis (including meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae meningitis, and staphylococcal meningitis) is a neurologic emergency that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Initiation of empiric antibacterial therapy is therefore essential for better outcomes. The patient appears to be suffering from meningitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Methicillin would be the drug of choice . It is bactericidal and unlike streptomycin and chloramphenicol it is not associated with toxicity
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 29
Correct
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Which of these HLA alleles is most likely to be present in ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer: HLA-B27
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis usually appears between the ages of 20-40 years old and is more frequent in men. It is strongly associated with HLA-B27, along with other spondyloarthropathies, which can be remembered through the mnemonic PAIR (Psoriasis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Inflammatory bowel disease, and Reactive arthritis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Paracentesis of ascetic fluid in a 45-year old woman revealed the following : clear, yellow fluid with protein 2.0 g/dl and a few mesothelial and mononuclear cells seen. No malignant cells seen. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Correct Answer: Micronodular cirrhosis
Explanation:Cirrhosis is disease of the liver that is characterized by fibrosis leading to disorganization of the hepatic architecture. It shows the development of regenerative nodules surrounded by dense fibrotic tissue. Cirrhosis shows non-specific symptoms initially, which include fatigue, anorexia and weight loss. It can later progress to portal hypertension, ascites and liver failure.
Micronodular cirrhosis is named so, due to the uniformly small nodules (<3 mm in diameter) and thick regular bands of connective tissue. These nodules lack lobular organization with distortion of central hepatic venules and portal triads. Over a period of time, macronodular cirrhosis develops, with bigger nodules (3 mm to 5 cm in diameter) surrounded by broad fibrous bands, and some amount of lobular organization. Mixed cirrhosis combines features of both micronodular and macronodular cirrhosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
